When coding multiple injuries, the diagnosis for the conditions treated should be sequenced in the order of the severity or significance of each injury.
When coding multiple injuries, it is important to sequence the diagnoses based on the severity or significance of each injury. This means that the most severe or life-threatening injury should be listed first, followed by the less severe injuries. The rationale behind this sequencing is to ensure an accurate representation of the patient's condition and to prioritize the treatment and management of the most critical injuries.
To determine the order of sequencing, healthcare professionals assess the injuries based on factors such as the potential for long-term complications, the need for immediate intervention, the impact on the patient's overall health, and the level of medical intervention required. This evaluation helps in determining the relative significance of each injury.
Sequencing the diagnoses in order of severity, allows medical coders, healthcare providers, and insurance companies to have a clear understanding of the patient's condition and the treatment provided. Additionally, this sequencing is crucial for proper reimbursement and ensuring appropriate levels of medical care are documented and accounted for.
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Which abbreviation represents a certified laboratory professional?
CCU
CLIA
MLS
RN
Answer:
CCU means Coronary Care Unit
CLIA means Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments
MLS means Medical Laboratory Scientist
RN Registered Nurse
Out of all those options MLS is the answer.
Question 2 of 20 :
Select the best answer for the question
2. A respiratory abnormality in which the alveoli increase in size, leading to their destruction and resulting in difficulty in breathing, is
O A. influenza
O B. pleuritis
O C. emphysema.
O D. asthma
Mark for review (Will be highlighted on the review page)
A respiratory abnormality in which the alveoli increase in size, leading to their destruction and resulting in difficulty in breathing, is Emphysema
Option (C) is correct.
Emphysema is a respiratory abnormality characterized by the enlargement and destruction of the alveoli, which are the tiny air sacs in the lungs responsible for oxygen exchange. This condition is typically caused by long-term exposure to irritants such as cigarette smoke or air pollution.
As the alveoli become damaged and lose their elasticity, they lose their ability to effectively expand and contract during breathing. This results in difficulty in breathing, shortness of breath, and decreased oxygen exchange.
Influenza (A) is a viral infection that primarily affects the upper respiratory system and can cause symptoms such as fever, cough, and sore throat. Pleuritis (B), also known as pleurisy, refers to inflammation of the lining around the lungs and is often associated with sharp chest pain.
Asthma (D) is a chronic respiratory condition characterized by inflammation and narrowing of the airways, resulting in wheezing, coughing, and shortness of breath.
Therefore, among the given options, emphysema (C) best describes the respiratory abnormality involving enlarged alveoli and difficulty in breathing.
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Bismuth subSalicyalte
Trade
Dosage
Generic
Bismuth subsalicylate is a medicine which is used widely to treat diarrhea, relieve stomach ache, upset stomach, heart burn, etc.
What is Bismuth subsalicylate?Bismuth subsalicylate is used widely to treat diarrhea in adults and teenagers. Bismuth subsalicylate is sold generically as pink bismuth and under the brand names such as Pepto-Bismol and BisBacter. It is an antacid medication which is used to treat temporary discomforts of the stomach and the gastrointestinal tract, such as nausea, heartburn, indigestion, upset stomach, and diarrhea.
Dosage to be taken as per the guidelines for adults are 2 tablets of 262 mg/tab or 30 ml of regular strength orally every ½-1 hour as needed and the maximum daily dose can be 8 regular-strength doses or 4 extra-strength doses
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2,620 men were enrolled in the study of prostate cancer and 930 of those had confirmed by biopsy prostate cancer. The sensitivity of the Prostate-Specific Antigen (PSA) test was 86% and the specificity was 33%. Calculate positive predictive value (PPV) and negative predictive value (NPV) of the PSA test given this information and interpret (explain) the results. (Show your calculations to get credit)
Answer:
81%
Explanation:
0.86 · 930 = 799.8 ⇒ 800 men
Other 130 men have negative PSA test
2620 - 930 = 1690 ⇒ 1690 without cancer
0.33 · 1690 = 557.8 ⇒ 558 men no cancer + negetive PSA tests
1690 - 558 = 1132
*view attachment below*
Positive perdictive value = 800/1932 = 0.42 = 42%
Negative predictive value = 558/688 = 0.81 = 81%.
The probability of not having prostate cancer among men with a negative PSA test is 81%
Sorry if it's very unclear, Good luck <3
An emergency department (ED) nurse working triage has assessed four clients. Which client should receive the highest priority?1. Alert client who fell on the side walk. Skin warm and dry to the touch, with a three inch laceration on the right knee continuously oozing dark red liquid.2. Elderly client who moans when the nurse asks, "Can you hear me?" Respirations even/nonlabored. Skin slightly cool to touch with pale nailbeds.3. A client who "passed out" but regained consciousness when feet were elevated. Awake and confused, with warm and dry skin.4. An alert, responsive client who reports severe abdominal and shoulder pain that began two hours after eating at a local fast food restaurant. Skin is warm and dry
Answer:
Based on the information provided, the client who should receive the highest priority is:
Elderly client who moans when the nurse asks, "Can you hear me?" Respirations even/nonlabored. Skin slightly cool to touch with pale nailbeds.
This client's moaning, altered level of consciousness, cool skin, and pale nailbeds suggest a potential medical emergency or critical condition that requires immediate attention. The symptoms may indicate a possible cardiovascular or respiratory problem that needs urgent evaluation and intervention.
Explanation:
Case 2:
A mother brings her 7-year-old son to you because he is having serious problems in learning to read. At age 5 his corpus callosum was sectioned in order to prevent epileptic seizures. She points out that he is a very intelligent child and she cannot understand why reading is so difficult for him. You explain that his reading difficulties are probably related to the fact that ____________.
Answer:
He had his corpus callosum severed, and his frontal, temporal, and occipital lobes are not integrating information.
Explanation:
After measuring peak expiratory flow, paramedics note that this reading varies by 30rom previous readings. what does this indicate in regards to the exacerbation?
If the peak expiratory flow (PEF) reading varies by 30 or more from previous readings, it may indicate that the patient's condition is worsening or that they are experiencing an exacerbation.
PEF is a measure of how fast air can be exhaled from the lungs, and it is often used to monitor the severity of asthma and other respiratory conditions.
A significant decrease in PEF from previous readings may indicate that the patient's airways are becoming more constricted or inflamed, which can make it more difficult for them to breathe.
This may be due to a variety of factors, such as exposure to allergens or irritants, respiratory infections, or changes in medication or treatment.
It is important for paramedics and other healthcare providers to monitor PEF readings regularly, especially in patients with known respiratory conditions.
If there is a significant change in PEF from previous readings, it may be necessary to adjust the patient's treatment or seek additional medical attention to prevent further exacerbation of their condition.
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A person receives an absorbed dose of protons of 20 millirads. The RBE of protons is 5. What is this person's equivalent dose in rem
The person's equivalent dose in rem is 100 millirem.
The given parameters;
Absorbed dose of proton, = 20 millirardsThe RBE of protons = 5The person's equivalent dose in rem is calculated as follows;
\(dose \ in \ rad \ = \frac{dose \ in\ rem }{RBE} \\\\\)
dose in rem = dose in rad x RBE
does in rem = (20 x 10⁻³ rad) x 5 RBE
dose in rem = 100 x 10⁻³ rem
dose in rem = 100 millirem
Thus, the person's equivalent dose in rem is 100 millirem.
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Which assessment findings may indicate aspirin toxicity (salicylism)? (Select all that apply. One, some, or all options may be correct.)
A. Anorexia and weakness.
B. Hypoventilation and bradycardia.
C. Tachycardia and anxiety.
D. Tinnitus and headache.
E. Sweating and dizziness
Answer: Anorexia and weakness, Hyperventilation and bradycardia, Tachycardia and anxiety and Tinnitus and headache. (A, B, C and D)
Explanation: Symptoms of aspirin toxicity include the following tinnitus, confusion, weakness, GI bleeding, diarrhea, hyperventilation and agitation.
The assessment findings that may indicate aspirin toxicity (salicylism) include anorexia and weakness, tinnitus and headache, and sweating and dizziness. Therefore, the correct options are A, D and E.
Assessment findings that may indicate aspirin toxicity (salicylism) include:
A. Anorexia and weakness: Aspirin toxicity can cause gastrointestinal disturbances, leading to loss of appetite (anorexia) and feelings of weakness.
D. Tinnitus and headache: Salicylism can affect the central nervous system, causing ringing in the ears (tinnitus) and headaches.
E. Sweating and dizziness: Aspirin toxicity can result in excessive sweating and dizziness due to its effects on the body's temperature regulation and balance systems.
Option B (Hypoventilation and bradycardia) is not typically associated with aspirin toxicity. Aspirin overdose usually results in respiratory alkalosis (increased ventilation) and may cause tachycardia (increased heart rate), rather than bradycardia (decreased heart rate).
Option C (Tachycardia and anxiety) is partially correct. Tachycardia may occur as a result of aspirin toxicity, but anxiety is not a common finding in salicylism.
In summary, the assessment findings that may indicate aspirin toxicity (salicylism) include anorexia and weakness, tinnitus and headache, and sweating and dizziness.
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Some modern types of graphic notation as well as other forms of notation (like waveform and MIDI styles) of the twentieth century owe their development to several modern innovations. Which of the following is NOT one of those innovations?
Answer: Mensural notation
Explanation:
There is only chemotherapy and radiation treatment for cancer paitents?
True
False
HURRY
Answer:
True.
Explanation:
Chemotherapy is a form of cancer treatment where a patient is given drugs designed to kill cancer cells. Radiation, on the other hand, is a type of cancer treatment where high doses of radiation are delivered to cancerous tumors in the body.
What are the three divisions of the trapezius muscle and why is it separated this way?
The trapezius muscle is divided into three parts: the upper, middle, and lower fibers.
The trapezius muscle is a large, triangular muscle that covers much of the upper back and neck. It is responsible for moving and stabilizing the scapula (shoulder blade) and for extending and rotating the head and neck. The three parts of the trapezius muscle are separated based on their location and function.
The upper fibers, or upper trapezius, are primarily responsible for elevating the scapula and rotating the head. The middle fibers, or middle trapezius, help retract the scapula towards the spine.
The lower fibers, or lower trapezius, help depress the scapula and stabilize it during movements of the arm and shoulder. Separating the trapezius muscle into these three parts allows for a more precise understanding of its actions and allows for targeted exercises to strengthen specific areas of the muscle.
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training simultaneously for strength and cardiovascular fitness may...
Training simultaneously for strength and cardiovascular fitness can have several potential benefits, including: Improved overall fitness, Time efficiency, Increased calorie burn, and Reduced risk of injury.
Improved overall fitness: Combining strength and cardiovascular training can help improve overall fitness by targeting different aspects of physical health. Strength training can help build muscle mass, improve bone density, and increase metabolism, while cardiovascular training can improve heart and lung function and increase endurance.
Time efficiency: Combining strength and cardiovascular training can help maximize time efficiency by allowing for a full-body workout that addresses both types of exercise in a single session.
Increased calorie burn: Both strength and cardiovascular training can increase calorie burn, which may be helpful for weight loss or maintenance goals.
Reduced risk of injury: Strength training can help improve joint stability and reduce the risk of injury, while cardiovascular training can improve overall endurance and fitness levels, reducing the risk of injury during physical activity.
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Which of the following medications is indicated for systemic fungal infections?
A. Argatroban
B. Amiodarone
C. Amphotericin B
D. Azathioprine
Answer:
C - Amphotericin B
Explanation:
Amphotericin B is still the drug of choice for the treatment of most severe systemic fungal infections in immunocompromised patients.
Which of the following amalgam types tends not to displace the matrix band in class II restorations, requiring a larger wedge to separate the teeth more for good proximal contact? A. Admix B. Spherical C. Lathe-cut D. All of the aboveTerm
The amalgam type which tends not to displace the matrix band in class II restorations, requiring a larger wedge to separate the teeth more for good proximal contact is Lathe-cut.
What is amalgam?Amalgam is a dental filling material that has been used for over 150 years to restore decayed teeth. It is made up of a mixture of metals, including silver, tin, copper, and mercury. When these metals are mixed together, they form a soft, pliable material that can be packed into a cavity in a tooth. Over time, the amalgam hardens and becomes a strong, durable filling material.Amalgam restorations are one of the most common types of restorations used to repair cavities.
They are durable, long-lasting, and relatively inexpensive. However, there are some disadvantages to using amalgam as a filling material. One of these is that it can be difficult to get a good proximal contact with the adjacent tooth, especially in class II restorations.
The type of amalgam that tends not to displace the matrix band in class II restorations, requiring a larger wedge to separate the teeth more for good proximal contact is Lathe-cut. Lathe-cut amalgam is made by grinding a mixture of metals into a powder. This powder is then compressed into a solid block and sliced into pieces. Lathe-cut amalgam tends to be more brittle than other types of amalgam, which makes it less likely to deform and displace the matrix band.
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Jose is taking a multiple-choice test. After he reads the questions, he looks at the potential
answers to see which ones make sense and seem correct. In regard to memory, this is an example
of
The spine is
to the stomach.
Write the step of the nursing process that is related to the nursing assistant action.
Nursing Assistant Action
1. The nursing assistant assists the mature adult to ambulate.
2. The nursing assistant reports that the 18-month-old baby has difficulty
sitting up.
3. The nursing assistant reports that the teenager is still having periods of
depression.
4. The nursing assistant pads the oxygen cannula to reduce irritation behind the
patient's ears.
Nursing Process Step
Answer:
1
Explanation:
Assists the mature adult to ambulate
the doctor instructs you to give a loading 1,000 mg of phenytoin iv. what is important when administering this medication:
The doctor instructs you to give a loading 1,000 mg of phenytoin iv, therefore what is important when administering this medication is that intravenous administration should not exceed a rate of 50mg per minute.
What is a Medication?This is also referred to as drugs and it consists of chemical compounds which are used to treat different types of sickness and illness.
In the adminstration of a 1,000 mg of phenytoin iv intravenously, it should not exceed a rate of 50mg per minute as it could lead to hypotension which in severe cases may lead to the death of the patient.
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Neurotransmitter can have a ______ or _______ effect
Answer:
positive or negative effect
Explanation:
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People who start using cocaine or other hard drugs as young adults and continue to do so in middle age have a(n) ___________ risk of early death. a) decreased b) unchanged
c) increased
People who start using cocaine or other hard drugs as young adults and continue to do so in middle age have a(n) c) increased risk of early death. Hence, option c) is the correct answer.
Individuals who start using cocaine or other hard drugs as young adults and continue to do so in middle age have an increased risk of early death. This is because prolonged drug use can have serious negative effects on the body, including damage to vital organs such as the heart, lungs, and brain.
Additionally, drug use can lead to a weakened immune system, making individuals more susceptible to diseases and infections. The risk of overdose and other drug-related accidents is also higher in those who continue to use drugs over a long period of time.
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Which of these best describes telepsychiatry?
A.
sending information about patients into a large database for later review
B.
using remote computer technology to interview and diagnose patients
C.
conducting randomized psychological surveys over the telephone
D.
drawing conclusions about a patient’s mental health based on images
Answer:
The answer would be B. Using remote computer technology to interview and diagnose patients
Explanation:
A venipuncture glucose needs to be collected from a patient. The blood collected chart shows that you can only collect 2ml safely. You have only 4ml gray tubes in your tray. Which of the following actions should you take?
The action you should take is to fill the tube halfway.
Venipuncture is a procedure performed by a trained medical personnel (phlebotomist) who uses needle to take blood from the vein for diagnostic purposes.
The blood collected chart is an information that states the correct specimen collection technique for each disease condition.
From the instructions given, the blood collected chart states that you should collect 2ml.
But 4ml gray tubes is only available.
Therefore, the blood is collected till the tube is half filled which will give a total of 2ml that was stated in the blood collected chart
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A patient having a heart attack complains of left arm pain, even though there is nothing actually wrong with his arm. This is
an example of _____
pain
I believe the answer might be nerve pain. (:
Answer:
Referred pain
Explanation:
renin release from the kidneys occurs when blood pressure or plasma volume drops, and when ecf levels of sodium fall.
When blood pressure or plasma volume drops, and when ECF levels of sodium fall, the kidneys release renin, which initiates a cascade of events involving angiotensin and aldosterone. This ultimately helps restore blood pressure and sodium balance in the body.
Renin release from the kidneys occurs when blood pressure or plasma volume drops, and when ECF levels of sodium fall."
1. A decrease in blood pressure or plasma volume is detected by the kidneys. This can happen due to various factors such as dehydration, blood loss, or low sodium intake.
2. The juxtaglomerular cells, located in the afferent arterioles of the kidney, are responsible for monitoring blood pressure and plasma volume.
3. When these cells sense a drop in blood pressure or plasma volume, they release an enzyme called renin.
4. Renin converts angiotensinogen, a protein produced by the liver, into angiotensin I.
5. Angiotensin I is then converted to angiotensin II by angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE), which is found in the lungs.
6. Angiotensin II is a potent vasoconstrictor that increases blood pressure by narrowing blood vessels. It also stimulates the release of aldosterone, a hormone that causes the kidneys to retain sodium and excrete potassium.
7. The increase in sodium reabsorption and water retention helps to restore plasma volume, thereby increasing blood pressure and returning ECF sodium levels to normal.
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Saying a person has _____disorders means the individual has two or more diagnoses.
Comorbid conditions
A person is said to have comorbid disorders if they have two or more diagnoses. This is frequently a diagnosis that includes both a substance use problem and another mental health condition, including depression, bipolar disorder, or schizophrenia.
What is Multiple diagnosis ?Whether the additional diagnosis is a chronic disease like osteoarthritis or allergies or a life-threatening illness like cancer, a person with two illnesses must take extra care to manage both conditions.
When a person has more than one severe mental disorder diagnosis at once, they are given a dual diagnosis.Doctors use the term "comorbidity" to refer to a person having two or more diseases or conditions at the same time.Learn more about Multiple diagnosis here:
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ou attended a party last night, and you consumed several glasses of wine. You are planning to fly your aircraft home and have been careful to make sure 8 hours have passed since your last alcoholic drink. You can make the flight now only if you are not under the influence of alcohol and your blood alcohol level is
Answer:ur blood alcohol level needs to be below .04%.
Explanation:
Albuterol Inhaler 17 g: Use two puffs TID. The product
insert states that each Albuterol canister contains 200
inhalations. What is the day supply?
A person receives Ty21a vaccine because he is traveling to a country in which typhoid fever is endemic. If he plans to continue this type of travel in the future, when is it recommended that he be revaccinated against typhoid fever
Answer:
in five (5) years
Explanation:
Typhoid fever is a disease caused by eating or drinking food or water contaminated with a bacteria called Salmonella typhi. Some symptoms of typhoid fever include high fever, abdominal pain, weakness, constipation and mild vomiting. The S. typhi Ty21a (Ty21a) vaccine is a live attenuated vaccine created by reducing the virulence of the pathogen, which is orally administrated. Revaccination with Ty21a is recommended after 5 years in the USA and 7 years in Canada after first vaccination, regardless of the risk of infection. However, the period of protection after Ty21a immunization still has not been well defined.
Where should the nurse instill an ophthalmic medication in a 6-year-old child?
The nurse should inject ophthalmic drugs into the lower conjunctival sac of a 6 year old child. The areas where eyedrops are injected are the sclera, upper conjunctival sac, or outer canthus.
The structures surrounding the eyes and acute or chronic eye disorders are treated using eye drops and ointments. As they are supplied directly to their site of action and are consequently more effective than drugs taken orally, they constitute the cornerstone of treatment for eye illness.
Topical eye treatment must be given the same priority as medications that are taken systemically in order for patients to get the most therapeutic benefit.
In order to properly administer topical medications, nurses, patients, and caregivers must have a solid awareness of their therapeutic effects and any potential side effects.
Applying eye drops and ointment is advised:
At the right momentwith the right forceover the right pathto the right personinto the right eyeTo know more about eye treatment click here
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