the nurse provides medication instructions to an older hypertensive client who is taking 20 mg of lisinopril orally daily. the nurse evaluates the need for further teaching when the client makes which statement?

Answers

Answer 1

The nurse evaluates the need for more education when the client replies, "I can skip a prescription once a week."

Depending on the disease they are using it for, adults frequently start taking lisinopril at a dose of 2.5 mg to 10 mg once a day. This will be gradually increased over a short period to the 20 mg once a day for high cholesterol dosage that is advised for your situation.

According to research, lisinopril as a component may help lower blood pressure by an aggregate of 32 mm Hg for systolic blood pressure and 17 mm Hg for systolic blood pressure, depending on the dosage.

Before administering, check for hypotension in the blood pressure. Examine yourself for symptoms of severe hypotension, such as dizziness, heavy sweating, vomiting, and diarrhea.

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Related Questions

after a complete description of the surgery, your patient indicates that he is ready to sign consent forms. how would you respond?

Answers

I would verify the patient's understanding and address any concerns before proceeding with the consent process.

How to find the appropriate response when a patient indicates readiness to sign consent forms after a complete description of the surgery?

As a healthcare professional, it is essential to ensure that the patient fully comprehends the informed consent provided regarding the surgery before proceeding with the consent process.

In response to the patient's readiness to sign consent forms, I would take the following steps:

Firstly, I would engage in a conversation with the patient to verify their understanding of the surgery and address any questions or concerns they may have.

This involves actively listening to the patient, providing clarifications if needed, and encouraging them to express any reservations or uncertainties.

Secondly, I would review the consent forms with the patient, explaining the purpose, risks, benefits, alternatives, and any other relevant information related to the surgery.

This step helps to reinforce the patient's understanding and allows them to make an informed decision regarding their healthcare.

Lastly, I would provide an opportunity for the patient to ask further questions or seek additional information before signing the consent forms.

It is crucial to create an environment where the patient feels comfortable and empowered to make a well-informed decision about their treatment.

By ensuring that the patient fully understands the surgery, addressing their concerns, and allowing them to actively participate in the consent process, healthcare providers promote patient autonomy and foster a collaborative approach to their care.

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which disease occurs when fluid from the stomach flows backwards into the esophagus?

Answers

Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) occurs when stomach's acidic contents flow back reflux into esophagus, causing symptoms such as heartburn, chest pain, and regurgitation.

Normally, a ring of muscle called lower esophageal sphincter (LES) prevents stomach acid from flowing back into the esophagus, but in people with GERD,  LES is weak or relaxes abnormally, allowing acid to escape. GERD can cause damage to the lining of esophagus over time, leading to complications such as esophagitis, narrowing of the esophagus, and an increased risk of esophageal cancer. Treatment for GERD may include lifestyle modifications such as avoiding triggers like certain foods or drinks, losing weight,  elevating the head of the bed, as well medications to reduce acid production or strengthen the LES.

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Caleb is working as pharmacy technician. He has decided that he wants to continue with his education because he wants to become a pharmacist. Which statement BEST describes Caleb's situation?

a. Caleb has some education but needs to pass the certification exam.
b. Caleb has a license and is wanting to obtain a certificate.
c. Caleb has a certificate and is wanting to obtain a license.
d. Caleb has passed one PTCE but still needs to pass the other.

Answers

Answer:

C. Caleb has a certificate and is wanting to obtain a license.

Explanation:

I calculated it logically

a client has fluid volume excess. which are the symptoms the client might exhibit due to fluid volume excess? select all that apply.

Answers

Fluid volume excess can manifest with various symptoms depending on the severity and underlying cause. The following symptoms may be exhibited by a client experiencing fluid volume excess:

Edema: Swelling in the extremities, hands, feet, ankles, or even the face.Weight gain: Sudden or rapid weight gain due to fluid accumulation.Shortness of breath: Difficulty breathing or increased respiratory effort.Elevated blood pressure: Hypertension may result from fluid overload.Jugular vein distention: Visible distention of the jugular veins in the neck.Fatigue and weakness: Feeling tired or weak due to circulatory strain.Increased urine output: Excessive urination as the body attempts to eliminate excess fluid.

It is important for healthcare professionals to assess these symptoms and promptly intervene to manage fluid volume excess, address the underlying cause, and prevent further complications.

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A nurse who accepts fees from a home health agency for each client he or she refers to the agency would be

Answers

Answer:

charged and or have the license revoked

Explanation:

According to the Michigan Medical Statute Section 333.16221, it is stated that any misconduct of health care personnel or organization that falls under the section such as Unethical business practices, consisting of one or more of the following would require thorough investigation and may lead to either or both charges and revocation of the license.

1. False or misleading advertising.

2. Dividing fees for referral of patients or accepting kickbacks on medical or surgical services, appliances, or medications purchased by or on behalf of patients.

A nurse who receives payment from a home health business for each client referred to the organization might be fined or have their license revoked.

Michigan Medical Statute:

According to the Michigan Medical Statute, any wrongdoing by health-care employees or organizations that comes within the section, such as unethical commercial activities, such as false or misleading advertising, falls under the section.

Receiving kickbacks on medical or surgical services, appliances, or prescriptions acquired by or on behalf of patients, or dividing compensation for patient referrals.

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Which of the following makes up 1 CPR Cycle?

Answers

Answer:

Thirty chest compressions followed by two rescue breaths

Thirty chest compressions which is followed by two rescue breaths are considered one CPR cycle.

What is CPR ?

CPR stands for cardiopulmonary resuscitation. It is defined as an emergency procedure consisting of chest compressions, often combined with artificial ventilation, until further measures are taken to restore spontaneous circulation and breathing in a person with cardiac arrest.

Steps which are followed in CPR are as follows:

Call 911 or ask someone else.Lay the person on their back and open their airway.Check for breathing. If they are not breathing, start CPR.Do 30 chest compressions.Take two rescue breaths.repeat until an ambulance or automated external defibrillator (AED) arrives

CPR consists of the “4 Rs” which are Risk, Recognize, React and Resuscitate is associated with CPR including: Chain of Survival and Emergency Response System, angina, heart attack, cardiac arrest and defibrillation.

Thus, thirty chest compressions which is followed by two rescue breaths are considered one CPR cycle.

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when nurse ryoko is percussing the patient’s lungs. a normal percussion note that the nurse must percuss must be

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When nurse Ryoko is percussing the patient's lungs, a normal percussion note should be heard with a distinct resonance that is flat and dull, with a slight echo that reverberates for a few seconds. The percussion note should be heard louder on the back of the lungs and softer on the front, as the lung tissue is thicker and more compact on the back. Furthermore, it should be heard more distinctly on the left side of the chest, as the right side generally has a thicker chest wall. The percussion note should also be heard louder when the patient is sitting or standing than when lying down.

The efficiency of a healthcare organization is vital to achieve outcomesand to provide patients with quality care. One method toincrease efficiency includes a streamlined supply chain; having thecorrect amount of materials on hand to treat patients, withoutencountering excess, is a balance that must be obtained.Whichof the three actions discussed in the article do youthink is most the effective in controlling healthcare costs? Why? Are thereany other measures you would consider using that the articledoes not mention? How can you implement the ideas presented in the articleor enact changes in your current or future role as a healthcareadministrator?

Answers

Based on the given article, the most effective action in controlling healthcare costs is to negotiate supply chain contracts with vendors. By doing so, the healthcare organization can obtain materials and resources at a lower cost. There are other measures that can be taken into consideration for controlling healthcare costs such as improving healthcare technology, implementing effective communication, and focusing on preventative healthcare measures.

To implement the ideas presented in the article or enact changes in your current or future role as a healthcare administrator, the following steps can be followed:Create a healthcare cost control plan: Review the healthcare organization’s spending to identify areas that need improvement, establish clear cost control goals, and develop an action plan to achieve these goals.Consider implementing preventative care measures: Encourage preventative healthcare measures to keep patients healthy and decrease the need for costly treatments later on.

Implement communication and collaboration tools: Utilize technology and software to enhance communication between different departments, providers, and patients to ensure that resources are used efficiently and effectively.Invest in technology: Consider investing in healthcare technology that can help to streamline workflows and decrease costs by reducing manual and inefficient processes.Controlling healthcare costs is a major issue in healthcare organizations and is vital to provide patients with quality care.

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Which of the following chronic lung disease could indicates if you have : on going cough , shortness of breath , wheezing , chest tightness
Sleep apnea is characterized by continuous snoring
control falling asleep and awakening.
asthma bronchitis emphysema

Answers

The chronic lung disease that could indicate if you have an ongoing cough, shortness of breath, wheezing, and chest tightness is asthma. Sleep apnea, on the other hand, is not characterized by these symptoms but is instead characterized by continuous snoring, control falling asleep and awakening.

Bronchitis and emphysema are some chronic lung diseases that may also cause similar symptoms, but they are not the most common cause of ongoing cough, shortness of breath, wheezing, and chest tightness.


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The chronic lung disease that could indicate the presence of an ongoing cough, shortness of breath, wheezing, and chest tightness is asthma.

Asthma is a chronic inflammatory condition of the airways that can cause recurring episodes of symptoms, including coughing, wheezing, shortness of breath, and chest tightness.

These symptoms can range in severity and may be triggered by various factors such as allergens, exercise, respiratory infections, or exposure to irritants.

Bronchitis is another chronic lung condition characterized by inflammation of the bronchial tubes, leading to a persistent cough with mucus production. While bronchitis can cause coughing, it may not necessarily present with wheezing or chest tightness as commonly seen in asthma.

Emphysema is a form of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) primarily caused by smoking. It involves the destruction of lung tissue, leading to breathing difficulties and reduced airflow. Emphysema can cause shortness of breath, but it may not always manifest with a persistent cough or wheezing.

Sleep apnea, on the other hand, is a sleep disorder characterized by interruptions in breathing during sleep. While it can cause snoring and disruptions in sleep patterns, it is not typically associated with ongoing cough, wheezing, or chest tightness.

It's important to note that a comprehensive medical evaluation by a healthcare professional is necessary to diagnose and differentiate between these chronic lung diseases based on the individual's symptoms, medical history, physical examination, and possibly additional diagnostic tests.

Therefore, the correct option is asthma.

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plant assets are used in operations and have useful lives that extend over more than one accounting period.

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Plant assets, also known as property, plant, and equipment (PP&E), are long-term tangible assets used in business operations to generate revenue.

Plant assets have useful lives that extend beyond a single accounting period, typically lasting several years or even decades.

Examples of plant assets include buildings, land, machinery, vehicles, furniture, and equipment. These assets are not meant for resale but are essential for a company's operations and production processes.

They are expected to provide economic benefits to the company over a prolonged period.

In accounting, plant assets are recorded on the balance sheet and are initially recognized at their cost.

Over time, their cost is systematically allocated and recognized as depreciation expense or amortization (in the case of intangible assets) over their estimated useful lives. This allocation reflects the gradual consumption or wear and tear of these assets.

The proper management and maintenance of plant assets are important to ensure their longevity and maximize their usefulness to the business.

Regular assessments of their condition, periodic depreciation calculations, and potential impairment evaluations are essential for accurate financial reporting and decision-making.

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The doctor prescribed 3 mg/kg twice daily for 5 days. The child weighs 35 pounds and the medication is available as 50 mg/mL. How many mL should be administered to the child for each dose? Round the answer to the hundredth place

Answers

Answer:

Each dose of the drug must contain 47.62 milligrams of it.

Explanation:

Given that the doctor prescribed 3 mg / kg twice daily for 5 days, the child weighs 35 pounds and the medication is available as 50 mg / mL, to determine how many mL should be administered to the child for each dose, the following should be done calculation:

1 pound = 0.453592 kilos

35 pounds = 0.453592 x 35 = 15.8757 kilos

15.8757 x 3 = 47.6271

Thus, each dose of the drug must contain 47.62 milligrams of it.

1 kg = 2.205 pound

Since the child weigh 35 pounds, hence:

35 pounds = 35 pounds * 1 kg per 2.205 pound = 15.88 kg

The doctor prescribed 3 mg/kg twice daily for 5 days. For each dose, the mg needed is:

mg = 3 mg/kg * 15.88 kg = 47.64 mg

Since the medication is available as 50 mg/mL, hence:

ml = 47.64 ml / 50 mg/mL = 0.95 ml

0.95 ml should be administered to the child for each dose

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Clients weight is taken before and after participating in the latest fitness craze for a month. What is the simplest test to see if there is an effect of the fitness craze

Answers

Answer:

strength or how toned the body looks compared to the month prior to starting the new fitness routine

Explanation:

To put it simply, muscle is heavier than fat. So checking weight may not be the best option.

The t-test is the simplest test to see whether there is an effect of fitness eccentricity that compares two independent sets of observations on a single trait.

What is t-test?

An independent sample t-test is a test which compares two independent groups of observations or measurements on the same characteristic while the paired samples t-test compares the means of two measurements which is taken from the same person, object, or related units.

In this case, measurements were taken at two different times, i.e. before and after the fitness craze.

So in one sample t test which is used to test the significance of the difference between the sample mean and the hypothesized value of the population mean. This is an example of t-test.

Thus, The t-test is the simplest test to see whether there is an effect of fitness eccentricity that compares two independent sets of observations on a single trait.

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the nurse is caring for a child with sickle cell disease who is scheduled to have a splenectomy. what information should the nurse explain to the parents regarding the reason for the splenectomy?

Answers

The nurse should explain to the parents that the reason for a splenectomy in a child with sickle cell disease is to prevent splenic sequestration.

The correct option is option 2.

Splenic sequestration is a life-threatening complication in which blood becomes trapped in the spleen, leading to sudden enlargement and potentially causing a rapid drop in hemoglobin levels. By removing the spleen through splenectomy, the risk of splenic sequestration can be significantly reduced.

It is important to educate the parents about the potential complications of splenic sequestration and the benefits of splenectomy in preventing this specific complication in children with sickle cell disease.

The correct option is option 2.

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--The given question is incomplete, the complete question is

"The nurse is caring for a child with sickle cell disease who is scheduled to have a splenectomy. What information should the nurse explain to the parents regarding the reason for a splenectomy? 1. To decrease potential for infection. 2. To prevent splenic sequestration. 3. To prevent sickling of red blood cells. 4. To prevent sickle cell crisis."--

Something that may only be experienced or perceived by the individual is said to be?

Answers

Something that may only be experienced or perceived by the individual patient is said to be subjective

In medicine, the term "subjective" refers to a symptom that is solely experienced by the patient and is not immediately apparent to the examiner.

The patient's statements provide you with subjective facts that you cannot obtain from your five senses. If a patient reports having diarrhea over the past two days, this information is subjective and can only be ascertained by the patient's statement. Subjective data, often known as "symptoms," are details about the client's thoughts and feelings that are learned through interviews. Observable and quantifiable data (also known as "signs") are gathered by observation, physical examination, laboratory testing, and diagnostic procedures.

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EMRs such as fire fighters, law enforcement officers, and park rangers, are an integral part of the EMS system because:
the presence of a person trained to initiate basic life support (BLS) care cannot be ensured.
What type of medical direction do standing orders and protocols describe?
off-line Continuing education in EMS serves to:
maintain, update, and expand your knowledge and skills.
If an EMT candidate has been convicted of a felony or misdemeanor, he or she should:
contact the state EMS office and provide them with the required documentation.
An appropriate demonstration of professionalism when your patient is frightened, demanding, or unpleasant is to:
continue to be nonjudgmental, compassionate, and respectful.
The continuous quality improvement (CQI) process is designed to:
identify areas of improvement and provide remedial training if needed.
Which of the following statements regarding the EMS medical director and an EMT's scope of practice is correct?
An EMT's scope of practice may be expanded by the medical director after proper training and state approval.
An EMS provider who has extensive training in various aspects of advanced life support (ALS) is called a(n):
paramedic.
Which of the following statements regarding the Americans With Disabilities Act (ADA) of 1990 is correct?
The ADA prohibits employers from failing to provide full and equal employment to the disabled.
The criteria to be licensed and employed as an EMT include:
proof of immunization against certain communicable diseases.
Which of the following statements regarding the NREMT is correct?
The NREMT provides a national standard for EMS testing.
Which of the following is an example of a primary prevention strategy?
community awareness programs that emphasize the dangers of drinking and driving
Which of the following descriptions MOST accurately portrays emergency medical services (EMS)?
a team of health care professionals who are responsible for providing emergency care and transportation to the sick and injured
Laypeople are often trained to perform all of the following skills, EXCEPT:
insertion of an oropharyngeal airway.
As an EMT, you may be authorized to administer aspirin to a patient with chest pain based on:
your local EMS protocols.
Obtaining continuing medical education is the responsibility of the:
individual EMT.
Which of the following is a unique function of the emergency medical dispatcher (EMD)?
providing callers with life-saving instructions
Which of the following errors is an example of a knowledge-based failure?
An EMT administers the wrong drug to a patient because she did not know the pertinent information about the drug.
Which of the following skills or interventions is included at every level of prehospital emergency training?
AED
EMT training in nearly every state meets or exceeds the guidelines recommended by the:
National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA).

Answers

The EMS system relies on EMRs like fire fighters, law enforcement officials, and park rangers since "the presence of a person trained to initiate basic life support (BLS) care cannot be ensured". The correct answer is B.

EMRs, or Emergency Medical Responders, are trained individuals who can provide basic life support care in emergency situations. This includes administering CPR, controlling bleeding, and stabilizing patients before they can be transported to a hospital. They are an important part of the EMS (emergency medical services) system because they can provide immediate care at the scene of an emergency when the presence of a fully-trained paramedic or doctor cannot be ensured. Firefighters, law enforcement officers, and park rangers are examples of EMRs who are often the first to arrive at the scene of an emergency in their respective fields.

This question should be provided with answer choices, which are:

A. They are usually trained to assist paramedics with certain procedures.B. The presence of a person trained to initiate basic life support (BLS) care cannot be ensured.C. The average response time for the EMT crew is approximately 15 minutes.D. They can initiate certain ALS procedures before EMS arrival.

The correct answer is B.

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Part 1

Dr. Johnson has just seen​ 56-year-old Patrick Ghastin. Mr. Ghastin has been experiencing severe headaches and neck pain over the past three months. Dr.​ Johnson, a doctor of osteopathic​ medicine, suspects that Mr. Ghastin might have a misalignment of his spinal​ column, which could be causing the headaches and neck pain. Dr. Johnson has informed Mr. Ghastin that he would like to refer him to a chiropractor. At the end of the​ visit, Dr. Johnson says goodbye to Mr. Ghastin and informs him that his​ assistant, Priysha, will be in to go over his paperwork before he leaves.

As Priysha begins to review the​ doctor's orders with Mr.​ Ghastin, he​ interjects, ​"What is a​ chiropractor, anyway?​ I've heard that they​ aren't real​ doctors." With a​ chuckle, Priysha​ replies, ​"I HAVE NO IDEA WHAT A CHIROPRACTOR ACTUALLY DOES; YOUR GUESS IS AS GOOD AS MINE."
Mr. Ghastin is less than impressed with​ Priysha's response. ​"Well, I​ don't plan on going to see any chiropractor.​ I'll just try taking more of my pain medications. That will probably​ help." Priysha​ replies, ​"IT IS UP TO YOU, MR. GHASTIN. JUST BE SURE TO LET US KNOW HOW YOU ARE FEELING."Review the first boldface statement. Was​ Priysha's response appropriate for explaining the type of practice that is typically provided by a​ chiropractor?

Part2
Review the second boldface statement. Was​ Priysha's final response to Mr. Ghastin​ appropriate?

Answers

Priysha's response was not appropriate for explaining the type of practice that is typically provided by a chiropractor. As a healthcare professional, Priysha should have a basic understanding of the services

What is the right approach?

Priysha's response to the second boldface statement was generally suitable in terms of upholding Mr. Ghastin's autonomy and letting him decide how he would be treated.

She may have, however, been more proactive in urging Mr. Ghastin to seek additional medical care and consider all of his treatment options.

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all of the following are risk factors for HCV transmission EXCEPT

Answers

Hey there!

The risks of HIV Virus are: Are a health care worker who has been exposed to infected blood, which may happen if an infected needle pierces your skin. Have ever injected or inhaled illicit drugs. Have HIV. Received a piercing or tattoo in an unclean environment using unsterile equipment.

Hope it help you

cell membranes are not fully permeable

Answers

Answer:

They are semi permeable

Explanation:

Mean that some molecules can diffuse across the lipids bilayer but other cannot.

This statement is true. Cell membranes exhibit two principles called selective permeability and semi-permeability, often incorrectly used interchangeably! The first means that the composition of the cell membrane allows for some specific molecules to perfuse into and out of the cell while disallowing other specific molecules, depending on certain cellular conditions, properties, functions, and metabolic activity. If the cytoplasm is a party, the cell membrane is the security guard that checks the list and either bounces guests or lets them pass the stanchion. The second means that the membrane distinguishes which molecules can pass according to their size, electrical charge, solubility, and other properties (chemical or physical) that fit or do not fit the cell's needs.

Differentiate between electronic health record (EHR), electronic medical record (EMR), and personal health record (PHR) Differentiate between clinical information systems (CIS) and administrative information systems (AIS) What systems are currently being utilized at your organization

Answers

Answer:

The electronic medical records and the electronic health records are maintained by a health provider or a physician whereas the personal health recorder are kept and maintained by the patient themselves.

Explanation:

Electronic health record or EHR is the paper chart of a patient in a digital format. It focuses on total health of the patient that is beyond the clinical data collected. They are designed to store all the medical history of a patient.

Electronic medical record or EMR are used mainly by the doctors to keep a track and record the medical metrics and the information of the patients. This allows the physician to track the data of a patient over time.

A personal health record is been maintained by an individual. It is the collection or record of an individual's health. It helps to improve the patient's engagement.

A clinical information systems is a type of information system that is designed mainly for the use in the critical care situation which includes ICU. It draws the information from all those systems in a patient record kept electronically that can available for the doctor to see at the bedside of the patient.

The administrative information systems helps the process of a client care by the management of a nonclinical financial information, demographic information, etc.

Why is combination drug therapy for hiv/aids less likely to lead to resistance than single drug therapy?

Answers

Answer:

The likelihood of one virus spontaneously mutating to be resistant to several different drugs at the same time is extremely small.

Explanation:

when examining the body of the mandible you would use the mouth mirror to stretch the mucosal tissues away from the inferior border, because you might miss a lesion which is obscured by a fold of tissue. A. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
B. Both the statement and the reason are correct but NOT related.
C. The statement is correct but the reason is not.
D. The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct.
E. NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.
Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.

Answers

Both the supplied assertion and the explanation support it, and they are connected.

What does the body's tissue mean?

The term "tissue" refers to a collection of organisms or fluid that cooperate to carry out a particular function in the body. Examples of such cells are those found in the kidney, heart, or blood cells, which facilitates the transport to and waste products away from the body's cells.

What use does tissue serve?

Tissues: A collection of cells that work as a single unit and have a similar structure are referred to as tissues. The body's tissues give it form and aid in energy storage and heat retention. Tissue, parenchyma cells, muscle, and nervous tissue are the four different types of tissues.

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its a song...........

its a song...........

Answers

Explanation:

correct me if I'm wrong but isn't that falling down by lil peep and xxxtentacion

Falling down by lil peep and Xxxtentacion released in September 19 2018 and recorded in 2017

Vitamins a and d are unlikely to cause toxicities unless taken in amounts ___________ times greater than the dri.

Answers

Base on some findings, it is discovered that vitamins a and d are unlikely to cause toxicities unless taken in amounts 5 to 10  times greater than the RDA.

What are vitamins?

Vitamins are organic compounds that are gotten from plants which cannot be synthesized by the body but it is needed in small amount for body growth and wellness.

Vitamin A and D are fat soluble vitamins because they are soluble in organic solvent . The sources include potatoes, milk , spinach, cheese and so on. Vitamin A and D have low toxicities but if it is taken in large quantity greater than the daily requirement can be toxic to human health.

Therefore, fat soluble vitamin A and D can be toxic to human body if it is taken in large amount.

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Training activities that subcategorize instructors and students should enter what information in block 21 on the performance evaluation?

Answers

Block 21 on a performance evaluation form typically refers to "Comments and Additional Remarks." This section is usually provided for the evaluator to include any comments, observations, or other feedback that they want to provide on the employee's performance.

Therefore, it is up to the evaluator to decide what information they want to include in Block 21 regarding the subcategorization of instructors and students in training activities. Some possible information that could be included in this section might be:

Feedback on how well the instructor was able to engage and motivate students in the training activities.Observations on how the instructor tailored their teaching approach to different student subgroups (e.g., based on skill level, learning style, or cultural background).Comments on how the students responded to the training activities, including any areas where they struggled or excelled.Suggestions for how the training activities could be improved in the future, based on the instructor and student subcategorization data.

Ultimately, the information that is included in Block 21 will depend on the specific performance evaluation form and the evaluator's goals for providing feedback to the employee.

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A high concentration of _____________ in the blood usually indicates serious muscle damage.

Answers

Answer:

Myoglobin

Explanation:

A high concentration of myoglobin Min the blood usually indicates serious muscle damage.

Which certification should one have prior to obtaining his/her EMT certification?

Answers

Answer:

N/A

Explanation:

Im here for the points ngl. You trying to be EMT, why not join the army and become a combat medic?

In the context of survey research, identify a true statement about a sample.

Answers

The sample simply means the set of individuals that are selected from the total population by the researcher.

A survey research refers to the quantitative method that's used by researchers when they want to collect information from respondents

A survey simply means the list of questions that are given to the respondents in order to get a specific data from them which will be used for a research purpose

A sample simply means part of a larger group. The smaller represents the whole group. For example, if there are 100 students in a class, a researcher can choose 10 students from the 100 students. The 10 students chosen represent the sample.

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Randy is a 29 y/o African American male who has a body mass index (BMI) of 30, does not exercise, and has evidence of metabolic syndrome. The first line treatment for Randy’s diagnosis would be:

Answers

Answer: The first line treatment for Randy’s diagnosis would be: Insulin

a 74-year-old woman complains of heaviness in her chest, nausea, and sweating that suddenly began about an hour ago. she is conscious and alert, but anxious. her blood pressure is 144/84 mm hg and her heart rate is 110 beats/min. she took two of her prescribed nitroglycerin (0.4-mg tablets) before your arrival but still feels heaviness in her chest. you should: a. recall that geriatric patients often take multiple medications and that interactions can occur with potentially negative effects. b. give her high-flow oxygen, avoid giving her any more nitroglycerin because it may cause a drop in her blood pressure, and transport. c. transport her at once and wait at least 20 minutes before you consider assisting her with a third dose of her prescribed nitroglycerin. d. assist her in taking one more of her nitroglycerin tablets, reassess her blood pressure, and contact medical control for further instructions.

Answers

You should keep in mind that older people frequently have slower absorption and excretion rates, which may call for adjusting a drug's dosage. Therefore, choice A is the right response.

Because they may be dealing with many illnesses or other health issues concurrently, adults 65 and older typically take more medications than adults in any other age group. For people who are confined to their homes or reside in remote places, managing various prescriptions can be costly, time-consuming, and challenging.

The existence of a concomitant condition, which is typical in the elderly, can also impact renal function. Older patients may need lower or less frequent dosages due to reduced medication clearance caused by decreased renal function.

We can therefore draw the conclusion that You should be aware of the fact that older individuals typically have slower rates of absorption and excretion, which may necessitate changing a drug's dosage.

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What is Teeth Whitening?

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Teeth whitening is a cosmetic dental procedure aimed at lightening the color of the teeth and removing stains or discoloration. It is a popular treatment that can enhance the appearance of a person's smile and improve their self-confidence.

The natural color of teeth varies among individuals, and factors such as aging, certain foods and drinks (like coffee or red wine), tobacco use, and poor oral hygiene can lead to teeth becoming stained or discolored over time. Teeth whitening procedures help counteract these effects by bleaching the teeth to achieve a brighter and whiter shade.There are various methods of teeth whitening available, including professional in-office treatments performed by dentists, at-home whitening kits prescribed by dentists, and over-the-counter whitening products. The procedures typically involve the use of bleaching agents, such as hydrogen peroxide or carbamide peroxide, which break down stains and lighten the color of the teeth.It's important to note that teeth whitening treatments may not be suitable for everyone, especially those with certain dental conditions or sensitivity. Consulting with a dentist is recommended to determine the most appropriate and safe teeth whitening option for individual needs and to ensure optimal results.

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