The nurse is assessing the development of a 15-month-old girl during a well-child visit. which skill would the nurse expect to see?

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

It is critical for a nurse to monitor children's development at the clinic in order to intervene early. Age-appropriate developmental milestones are used to evaluate the children's progress. A baby that is 15 months old can stand up alone and is prepared to explore his or her surroundings.

The ability to stand and walk by oneself is the most significant milestone for a 15-month-old. This will allow you to see how they're progressing and prepare for what's to come. The child should consult the doctor right away for additional investigations if they are unable to walk independently. Muscle weakness and cerebral palsy are two conditions that might prevent children from developing gross motor abilities.

Explanation:

The phrase "milestones" refers to the precise moments in time when a child starts doing particular tasks. Gross motor, fine motor, language, and social abilities are the four primary developmental milestones. At 15 months, a child will begin to use a spoon to feed (a social skill), walk without support, grasp small objects with their fingers, or speak meaningful words. Even while these occasions can be thrilling for both parents and children, it's crucial to be aware of the potential risks if these milestones are not met.

The doctor can monitor their progress and determine whether any problems require attention by evaluating clinic milestones.

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Related Questions

Benjamin is an elderly patient who has recently started struggling with incontinence. Benjamin’s nursing assistant assumes that his struggle is related to his age. What negative effect could believing this myth have?

Benjamin could start to struggle with an inability to control his urination.
The nursing assistant could diagnose a urinary condition that is developing.
The nursing assistant could miss a urinary condition that could be developing.
Benjamin could struggle with self-esteem related to incontinence

Answers

Benjamin could struggle with self-esteem related to incontinence is the answer

Benjamin could struggle with self-esteem related to incontinence. Hence, option D is correct.

What is incontinence?

incontinence is a disease in which the patient loses control of the bladder. Slight urine can be lost after sneezing, laughing, and coughing. The urinary system is affected by this disorder. Patient lost complete control of urination. There are four types of incontinence and that is functional overflow, stress, and urgency incontinence.

Some causes of incontinence are pregnancy, prostate cancer, neurological disorder, menopause, urinary tract infection, constipation, some medications, etc.

The negative effect of believing this myth is that Benjamin could struggle with self-esteem related to incontinence. Hence, option D is correct.

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why are we born????????????????????????

Answers

We still have many questions for the earth we don't even know if reincarnation is real or not, but you don not decide whether to be born into the world and no one know why we are so your question shall never be solved nor answered.

I really hope this help you, and I wish you a Good-day evening or night whatever time it is where ever you are, and I am asking if I could get brainiest please!

to cause cancer, tumor suppressor genes require [ select ] allele(s) to be mutated and are therefore considered to be [ select ]

Answers

To cause cancer, tumor suppressor genes require both alleles to be mutated and are therefore considered to be recessive.

Tumor suppressor genes play a crucial role in preventing the development and progression of cancer. These genes help regulate cell growth and division, acting as a defense mechanism against uncontrolled cell growth. Mutations in tumor suppressor genes can lead to the loss of their normal function.

However, unlike oncogenes that are activated by a single mutation, tumor suppressor genes require both copies or alleles to be mutated or inactivated to result in cancer development. This means that individuals with inherited mutations in one allele of a tumor suppressor gene have a higher risk of developing cancer since they only need an additional mutation in the other allele.

Due to the recessive nature of tumor suppressor gene mutations, they require a "double-hit" or loss of both functional copies to disable the gene's protective role, making them essential in cancer development.

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it is associate with moderate, longer term levels of acitivity


-Thanks

Answers

It is associated with moderate, longer-term levels of exercise activity, which leads to an increased heart rate and breathing rate and aerobic activity, but excess exercise leads to body damage too.

What does excess exercise lead to?

Excessive exercise can cause organ damage, such as irregular heartbeats, whereas moderate exercise benefits the body in a variety of ways, including improving mental and physical abilities, and doing it for a long period of time can increase the body's aerobic activity.

Hence, it is associated with moderate, longer-term levels of exercise activity, which leads to an increased heart rate and breathing rate and aerobic activity, but excess exercise leads to body damage too.

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The question is incomplete, the complete question is the below

Exercise is associate with moderate, longer term levels of acitivity

Increase heart and breathing rate

Aerobic activity

Less energy expenditure

Did not cause sweat

Sarah, RN, is reviewing new orders written by the medical resident during morning rounds. One order is for “Celecoxib 200 mg once a day for arthritic pain.” The patient’s chart is flagged that she has a history of severe asthmatic reactions to sulfa drugs, and celecoxib carries a warning for persons with allergic reactions to sulfa drugs. According to the Board’s standards relating to the competent practice of a registered nurse, what should Sarah do regarding this new order?

Answers

Answer:

i think i know let me figure it out. but i might be wrong

Explanation:

Where can food worker wash her hands?

Answers

Answer: the kitchen

Explanation:

Which strategies are effective in dealing with bullying and harassment? Check all that apply.

Act aggressively or passively.
Practice mutual respect in relationships.
Develop positive relationships with family.
Avoid people who are being bullied.
Avoid disrespectful and threatening people and groups.
Practice tolerance of others, and encourage friends to do the same.
Create a personal plan to deal with bullying and harassment.

Answers

Answer:

Practice mutual respect in relationships.

Develop positive relationships with family. Avoid disrespectful and threatening people and groups.

Practice tolerance of others, and encourage friends to do the same.

Explanation:

Here are some effective strategies for dealing with bullying and harassment: Practice mutual respect in relationships, Develop positive relationships with family, Practice tolerance of others, and encourage friends to do the same and Create a personal plan to deal with bullying and harassment

Unwelcome behavior on the basis of race, color, religion, sex (including sexual orientation, gender identity, or pregnancy), national origin, older age (starting at 40), disability, or genetic information (including family medical history) is considered harassment.

Messages that are obscene or sexual. sending explicit or sexually explicit messages, images, or texts. Conversational references to sexuality. physical contact, such as rubbing, touching, or hugging, that is unwelcome or unwarranted.

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choose the statement that best describes staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome.A. Its an exotoxin-meidated sisease that can be compared to a systemic form of impetigoB. Its present as a generalized pustular rash C. Bacteria spread, causing necrotic damage of the tissue and gas productionD. It is cause bt microbial digestion of excess sebum trapped in the pores of the skin

Answers

The definition of Staphylococcal Scalded Skin Syndrome (SSSS) that best captures the condition is "It is an exotoxin-mediated disease that is comparable to a systemic form of impetigo."

Staphylococcal Scalded Skin Syndrome A uncommon but deadly skin illness known as Staphylococcal Scalded Skin Syndrome is brought on by specific strains of the Staphylococcus aureus bacteria, which produce an exotoxin. Exotoxin-induced skin separation and widespread blistering can give the affected skin the appearance of having been burned. Although SSSS is far more severe and common, it is sometimes compared to a systemic variant of impetigo, a skin infection that results in blisters and ulcers.Staphylococcal Scalded Skin Syndrome is not accurately described by the other claims made in the list. Statement B does not provide a complete description of the illness, although it does mention a generalized pustular rash that can be a symptom of SSSS. Statement C, which talks about gas production and necrotic tissue damage, is not particular to SSSS and could apply to a variety of other skin conditions. SSSS is not at all related to Statement D, which specifies a cause of microbial digestion of excess sebum stuck in the skin pores.

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what will you do if you have to stay amongst common cold patients​

Answers

Answer:

Stay at home while you are sick

Explanation:

:)

Since in-room dining staff members need to know which guests must pay in cash, they should obtain thisinformation from the:A)front desk.B)previous shift's in-room dining staff.C)guests.D)food production staff.

Answers

In-room dining staff members need to know which guests must pay in cash, and they should obtain this information from the front desk. The correct option is A.

Room service or in-room dining is a service provided by hotels that enables guests to order food and drinks from the hotel restaurant menu from their room. This service is usually available 24 hours a day, depending on the hotel's policy.The hotel's front desk is responsible for providing the guests with room service.

The front desk staff will assist the guest in ordering room service and keep track of the food orders placed by the guests. In most cases, the guest's name and room number will be taken by the front desk staff when placing the order, and they will inform the in-room dining staff members about the payment method to be used. The front desk staff will also keep track of the payment methods that the guest has used to settle the bill for the room service.

In summary, since in-room dining staff members need to know which guests must pay in cash, they should obtain this information from the front desk. The correct option is A.

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A protein being broken down into its individual
amino acids after being used is an example of

Answers

it’s an example of Protein Catabolism

Answer:

Catabolism

Explanation:

which one is communicable or noncommunicable.


1.Diabetes:

2.The common cold:

3.The flu:

4.Lung cancer:

5.Strep throat:

Answers

Diabetes, lung cancer are noncommunicable and the rest are communicable

Hey!!!

Diabetes= Non communicable disease

Common cold=Communicable disease

Flu=Communicable disease

Lung cancer=Non communicable disease

Strep throat=Communicable disease

Explanation:

Those diseases which can be transmitted from one person to another person through various means is called Communicable diseases .

Those disease which cannot be transmitted from one person to another person is called non communicable diseases.

Hope it helps

Good luck on your assignment

Jonas believes that he should work out at a high intensity every
single day and never plan time to rest. What does this workout plan
MOST accurately demonstrate?
O overtraining
O overload
O biomechanics
O leverage

Answers

Overtraining, it is always important to train in moderation and always plan time for recovery.

Which warning sign should immediately be brought to the attention of a mental health professional? suicidal thoughts illogical thinking occasional substance abuse minor change in sleeping behaviors

Answers

Answer:

suicidal thoughts

Explanation:

if someone is having suicidal thoughts that is an immediate, note that that person needs help

The warning sign which should be immediately brought to the attention of a mental health professional is suicidαl thought and is denoted as option A.

What is Suicidαl thought?

This involves an individual thinking about taking his/her life as a result of various factors.

The factors could be depression which is why the attention of the mental health professional should be notified so as to treat the individual and administer the right therapy.

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Which option best explains how the skeletal system works when a person jogs?

The bones and joints of the body work to keep the body erect. The leg bones and joints work together to move forward.
The heart and the blood vessels work to provide the oxygen needed for the motion. The leg muscles generate the power required for the motion.
The bones and joints of the body work to keep the body erect. The leg muscles generate the power required for the motion.
The heart and the blood vessels work to provide the oxygen needed for the motion. The leg bones and joints work together to move forward.

Answers

Answer:

id say the answer is number 2

Answer:

The heart and the blood vessels work to provide the oxygen needed for the motion. The leg bones and joints work together to move forward.

Explanation:

i did this last year

a regular health care provider is referred to as a medical what?

Answers

Answer: medical supervisor or healthcare provider

Explanation:

the most important steps in voting process​

Answers

Answer:

Fill out the ballot as you wish. Follow the instructions for how to select your choices. Then, indicate how you want...

Review your ballot to make sure it's accurate. Take a moment to review your choices to make sure they're correct.

Which of the following does not contribute
to water pollution?
A. factories
B. farms
C. human and animal waste
D. education

Answers

The answer is For this is “ A”
the person above me is incorrect, the correct answer is “D”

Social Environments fact?

Answers

Factors in the social environment that are important to health include those related to safety, violence, and social disorder in general, and more specific factors related to the type, quality, and stability of social connections, including social participation, social cohesion, and the social capital

What % chance do you have of being a long term smoker if you try 1 cigarette? Group of answer choices

Answers

Answer:

At least 3 out of 5 people end up being long term smokers. So about 75% I believe.

Explanation:

Which term defines a liver disease that can be transmitted through sexual contact?
O mononucleosis
O chicken pox
O tuberculosis
hepatitis B

Answers

The liver disease that can be transmitted through close contact is Hepatitis B.

Close contact transmitted diseases

There are some disease that can be transmitted only through the exchange of body fluids such as blood or mucus that occurs during close contact. These diseases are collectively called close contact transmitted diseases.

A typical example is the Hepatitis B which is caused by the microorganism called hepatitis virus.

The hepatitis B viral disease permanently scars the liver leading to liver cancer or cirrhosis.

Mononucleosis, chicken pox and tuberculosis are all caused by invading of the body by microorganisms but are not gotten from close contact and they don't affect the liver.

Therefore, the liver disease that can be transmitted through close contact is Hepatitis B

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Shanna was diagnosed with a homeostatic disorder that was left untreated for a number of years. As a result, she has neuropathy that is affecting her right leg. Which disorder does shanna most likely have? type 2 diabetes narcolepsy metabolic alkalosis insomnia.

Answers

The disorder Shanna might have been type 2 diabetes.

Type 2 diabetes patients who are not diagnosed are at risk of experiencing various complications due to high blood sugar levels. One of these complications is neuropathy. Neuropathy is the term used for symptoms of disorders or diseases of the nerves in the body

If left untreated, neuropathy can cause the following complications: Digestive problems, such as constipation, diarrhea and gastroparesis. Lack of sensitivity to symptoms of low blood sugar levels that appear.

Diabetic neuropathy is a serious complication of diabetes that can affect as many as 50% of people with diabetes. Researchers think that over time, high blood sugar that doesn't turn off damages nerves and interferes with their ability to send signals, leading to diabetic neuropathy. High blood sugar also damages the walls of the small blood vessels (capillaries) that supply nerves with oxygen and nutrients.

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are zero sugar ice tea brisk good​

are zero sugar ice tea brisk good

Answers

YES IN MY OPINION ITS VERY GOOD

Answer:

you can never trust anything with zero sugar

Explanation:

Alcohol can increase?

Answers

Answer:

Urine production which causes dehydration.

Alcohol also increases blood pressure.

Explanation:

if the gallbladder becomes diseased, the digestion of _____ can become compromised. A.) carbohydrate B.) proteinC.) fiber D.) fat

Answers

If the gallbladder becomes diseased, the digestion of fat can become compromised.

The gallbladder stores bile, which is released into the small intestine to help break down fats. If the gallbladder is not functioning properly, there may not be enough bile available to effectively digest fats, leading to malabsorption and other digestive issues. Carbohydrates and proteins are primarily broken down in the stomach and small intestine, and fiber is not broken down at all, but rather passes through the digestive system largely intact.

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Why is warm up exercise done?

Answers

Answer:

hi

Explanation:

i think so

in order to prepare for subsequent actions

have a nice day

Ans: Warming up helps prepare your body for aerobic activity. A warmup gradually revs up your cardiovascular system by raising your body temperature and increasing blood flow to your muscles. Warming up may also help reduce muscle soreness and lessen your risk of injury.

Which of the following situations is an example of prospective utilization review?
Health plan evaluates the medical necessity of a member's upcoming surgery.
Case manager assesses the readiness of a hospital patient's discharge.
Physician admits a patient with chest pain to the hospital.
Surgeon's office provides hospital with patient's insurance information.

Answers

The situation which is an example of prospective utilization review is: Health plan evaluates the medical necessity of a member's upcoming surgery.

Prospective utilization review is a type of medical management that is used by insurance companies, hospitals, and other healthcare providers to assess the necessity and appropriateness of proposed medical procedures before they are performed. This is done to ensure that patients receive the appropriate level of care and that healthcare resources are used efficiently and effectively.

In the given options, the Health plan evaluates the medical necessity of a member's upcoming surgery is an example of a prospective utilization review. This is because the health plan is reviewing the necessity of a proposed medical procedure (surgery) before it is performed. The review is being done prospectively, meaning that it is being conducted before the surgery takes place, in order to determine whether it is medically necessary and appropriate.

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The situation that is an example of prospective utilization review is: Health plan evaluates the medical necessity of a member's upcoming surgery.

Utilization review (UR) is the evaluation of the appropriateness, medical need, and effectiveness of healthcare services provided to patients. Utilization review is divided into three categories: prospective utilization review, concurrent utilization review, and retrospective utilization review. The main goal of prospective utilization review is to assess the medical necessity of a specific healthcare service before it is performed.

Prospective review is frequently referred to as prior authorization, pre-certification, or pre-determination. In other words, before a patient gets care, the patient's insurance company must authorize it. In this way, prospective utilization review can help reduce unnecessary medical expenses and guarantee that the most appropriate healthcare services are provided. Therefore, the situation where health plan evaluates the medical necessity of a member's upcoming surgery is an example of prospective utilization review.

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What does the 16 Personalities Test framework best show?

How the taker learns and interacts with the world around them
Romantic Compatibility
A mental health disorder
How interpretation of abstract images indicates personality type

Answers

The 16 Personalities Test framework best show how the taker learns and interacts with the world around them.

What is Myers-Briggs Personality Type Indicator?

This consists of 16 Personalities Test which are designed to identify a person's personality type, strengths, and preferences.

By so doing, it helps to show how learning and interaction is carried out with other people thereby making option A the most appropriate choice.

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Answer:

learns and interacts

Explanation:

A girl is going out with her friends to eat ice cream while the sun is pointing at them.
Explain how the three layers of the skin is protecting them from the sun

Answers

Answer:

epidermis

dermis

Explanation:

hypodermis

Skin has three layers: The epidermis, the outermost layer of skin, provides a waterproof barrier and creates our skin tone. The dermis, beneath the epidermis, contains tough connective tissue, hair follicles, and sweat glands. The deeper subcutaneous tissue (hypodermis) is made of fat and connective tissue and
Stratum Basale (bottom layer). Sits directly on top of the dermis. This layer furnishes cells to replace those lost in the upper layers of the epidermis. Melanin is formed here to protect against ultraviolet radiation.

excitation-contraction coupling refers to the events that link the action potentials on the sarcolemma to activation of the (click to select) . it begins with the arrival of the (click to select) at the neuromuscular junction.

Answers

Excitation-contraction coupling refers to the events that link the action potentials on the sarcolemma to activation of the muscle contraction. It begins with the arrival of the motor neuron impulse at the neuromuscular junction.

During excitation-contraction coupling, the motor neuron releases acetylcholine (ACh) at the neuromuscular junction, which binds to receptors on the sarcolemma. This triggers an action potential that spreads along the sarcolemma and into the T-tubules. The action potential then reaches the sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR), causing it to release calcium ions (Ca2+) into the cytoplasm of the muscle fiber.
The increased concentration of Ca2+ in the cytoplasm enables the interaction between actin and myosin filaments, leading to muscle contraction. The binding of Ca2+ to troponin allows the myosin heads to attach to actin, forming cross-bridges. The cross-bridge cycling, where myosin heads pull on actin filaments, results in the sliding of filaments and muscle contraction.
Therefore, excitation-contraction coupling is the process that bridges the electrical signal of the action potential to the mechanical response of muscle contraction, and it begins with the arrival of the motor neuron impulse at the neuromuscular junction.

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The complete question is as:
myofilaments

action potential

T tubules

sarcoplasm

actin

myosin

troponin

sarcolemma

tropomyosin

1. Excitation-contraction coupling refers to the events that link the action potentials on the sarcolemma to the activation of the _____. It begins with the arrival of the _____ at the neuromuscular junction.

2. Next, a wave of action potentials spreads from the endplate in all directions, reaching the T tubules, which carry the excitation wave into the _____.

Classification of the Muscles:

The muscles are a component of the musculoskeletal system that aids the body in locomotion. There are a few types of muscles in the body- smooth muscle, cardiac muscle and skeletal muscle.

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