how are series and parallel circuits different in terms of current and voltage? how are they similar? why?

a) At the application of the brakes, there is a conversion of kinetic to potential energy.

b) When it climbs the second hill, the kinetic energy of the roller coaster is now converted to potential energy.

Let us recall that according to the principle of the conservation of energy, energy can neither be created nor destroyed but it can be transformed from one form to another. In the roller coaster, we can see the principle of energy transformation at work. This is one of the easiest ways that we could use to be able to describe the conservation of energy.

When a break has been applied in the roller coaster, there is a consversion of energy from kinetic energy to potential energy. Recall that the kinetic energy has to do with the energy that is in motion. This is converted to the potential energy of a stationary roller coaster.

Again when the roller coaster goes up a second hill, there is a change from kinetic to potential energy that the roller coaster would possess at the top of the hill.

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Answer:

The answer is transpiration

Explanation:

I don't knoejajajajjjaj

Answer:

C. Taste aversion can develop after only one pairing of a stimulus and response.

Explanation:

Taste aversion is a unique type of learned response where an individual develops a strong aversion or avoidance to a specific taste or food after a single pairing of that taste with a negative reaction, such as nausea or illness. This is in contrast to traditional conditioning, where multiple pairings of a stimulus and response are typically required for learning to occur. Taste aversion demonstrates a unique rapidity and specificity in its development, which deviates from the general principles of conditioning.

A bicycle slows down uniformly from vi=8.40 [m/s] to rest over a distance of 115 [m]. Each wheel and tire has an overall diameter of 0.68 [m]. The magnitude of the angular acceleration of the wheel is approximately 0.0757 rad/s².

To determine the magnitude of the angular acceleration of the wheel, we need to first calculate the change in angular velocity and the time taken to come to rest. Then we can use these values to find the angular acceleration.

Calculate the initial angular velocity:

The initial linear velocity of the bicycle wheel is given by the formula v = ω * r, where v is the linear velocity, ω is the angular velocity, and r is the radius of the wheel.

The radius of the wheel is half the diameter, so r = 0.68 m / 2 = 0.34 m.

Given the initial linear velocity vi = 8.40 m/s, we can calculate the initial angular velocity ωi:

vi = ωi * r

ωi = vi / r

Calculate the final angular velocity:

The final angular velocity of the wheel is 0 rad/s since it comes to rest.

ωf = 0 rad/s

Calculate the change in angular velocity:

The change in angular velocity (Δω) is given by the formula Δω = ωf - ωi.

Δω = 0 - ωi

Calculate the time taken to come to rest:

To calculate the time taken to come to rest, we can use the formula v = u + at, where v is the final velocity, u is the initial velocity, a is the acceleration, and t is the time.

Given the initial velocity vi = 8.40 m/s, final velocity vf = 0 m/s, and distance d = 115 m, we can calculate the acceleration a:

vf = vi + at

0 = 8.40 + a * t

We also know that the distance traveled d is related to the initial and final velocities and the time by the formula d = (vi + vf) / 2 * t:

d = (vi + vf) / 2 * t

115 = (8.40 + 0) / 2 * t

From the two equations above, we can solve for the acceleration a and the time t.

Calculate the angular acceleration:

The angular acceleration (α) is given by the formula α = Δω / t.

α = Δω / t

Substitute the values for Δω and t and calculate the angular acceleration.

Therefore, the magnitude of the angular acceleration of the wheel is approximately 0.0757 rad/s².

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Answer:

\(F=48.62N\)

Explanation:

From the question we are told that:

Angle \(\theta= 20\)

Mass \(m= 20kg\)

Coefficient of kinetic friction \(\mu=0.1\)

Generally the equation for Force Required to jeep sled moving is mathematically given by

 \(F= mg sin \theta - \mu N\)

Where N is normal force

 \(F_N=Wcos\theta\)

 \(F_N=20*9.8*cos 20\)

 \(F_N=184.18N\)

Therefore

 \(F= (20*9.8) sin 20 - (0.1) (184.18)\)

 \(F=48.62N\)

Answer:

Approximately \(261\; \rm K\), if this gas is an ideal gas, and that the quantity of this gas stayed constant during these changes.

Explanation:

Let \(P_1\) and \(P_2\) denote the pressure of this gas before and after the changes.

Let \(V_1\) and \(V_2\) denote the volume of this gas before and after the changes.

Let \(T_1\) and \(T_2\) denote the temperature (in degrees Kelvins) of this gas before and after the changes.

Let \(n_1\) and \(n_2\) denote the quantity (number of moles of gas particles) in this gas before and after the changes.

Assume that this gas is an ideal gas. By the ideal gas law, the ratios \(\displaystyle \frac{P_1 \cdot V_1}{n_1 \cdot T_1}\) and \(\displaystyle \frac{P_2 \cdot V_2}{n_2 \cdot T_2}\) should both be equal to the ideal gas constant, \(R\).

In other words:

\(R = \displaystyle \frac{P_1 \cdot V_1}{n_1 \cdot T_1}\).

\(R =\displaystyle \frac{P_2 \cdot V_2}{n_2 \cdot T_2}\).

Combine the two equations (equate the right-hand side) to obtain:

\(\displaystyle \frac{P_1 \cdot V_1}{n_1 \cdot T_1} = \frac{P_2 \cdot V_2}{n_2 \cdot T_2}\).

Rearrange this equation for an expression for \(T_2\), the temperature of this gas after the changes:

\(\displaystyle T_2 = \frac{P_2}{P_1} \cdot \frac{V_2}{V_1} \cdot \frac{n_1}{n_2} \cdot T_1\).

Assume that the container of this gas was sealed, such that the quantity of this gas stayed the same during these changes. Hence: \(n_2 = n_1\), \((n_2 / n_1) = 1\).

\(\begin{aligned} T_2 &= \frac{P_2}{P_1} \cdot \frac{V_2}{V_1} \cdot \frac{n_1}{n_2}\cdot T_1 \\[0.5em] &= \frac{1.67\; \rm atm}{1.12\; \rm atm} \times \frac{11.2\; \rm m^{3}}{15.7\; \rm m^{3}} \times 1 \times 245\; \rm K \\[0.5em] &\approx 261\; \rm K\end{aligned}\).

Solution:

We are given,

Curr ent (I) = 0.25 A

Voltage (V) = 25 V

According to Ohm's law.

\( \sf \: \: \: \: \: \: R = \dfrac{V}{I} \)

Substituting the values of V and I in above formula,

\(\sf R = \dfrac{25}{0.25} \\ \\ \sf R =100 Ω\)

Therefore, The resistance of the bulb will be 100Ω.

The possible temperature of the system after the iron has been added to the beaker is 52°C.

option B.

A system is said to be in thermal equilibrium when there is no temperature difference between system and surroundings. Temperature, as you know, measures how hot or cold a body is with respect to a standard object.

When a system ( cold and hot body) reaches thermal equilibrium or equilibrium temperature, the heat lost by the hot body will be equal to the heat gained by the cold body.

heat gained by the water = heat lost by the iron

The equilibrium temperature will be greater than the initial temperature of the cold body but less than the final temperature of the hot.

Thus, the only possible answer for the equilibrium temperature of mixture is 52⁰C.

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Answer:

220 km

Explanation:

3 hours at 40 km/hr

40 km = 1 hour

40 km times 3 = 120 km

2 hours at 50 km/hr

50 km = 1 hour

50 times 2 = 100 km

Total distance

120 km + 100 km = 220 km

Answer: Well you didn't give any answers so my guess would be it depends how much force you put into it and where you throw it.

Explanation:

Answer:

Laws are created based on repeated experimentation.

Laws are based on observations.

Laws explain observations.

Explanation:

The complete question is..

Which statements correctly describe laws? Check all that apply.

-Laws are created based on repeated experimentation.

-Laws are based on observations.

-Laws explain observations.

-Laws are factual statements.

-Laws can be changed or replaced

Laws are based on the results of repeated experimentation, and observation, and they describe or predict some phenomenon in nature. Laws can't be said to be factual, as they might be seen to be constrained, or restricted and might need to be extended by future observations. Established laws explain observations, and laws cannot be changed or replaced, but can be extended, to predict future observations.

The average velocity of the car is 100 kilometers/hour south. This means that, on average, the car is traveling 100 kilometers per hour in the south direction relative to its starting point.

To determine the average velocity of the car, we need to calculate the displacement and divide it by the time taken. Velocity is defined as the rate of change of displacement with respect to time.

In this case, the car is traveling south, and its displacement is 200 kilometers from its starting point after 2 hours.

The average velocity is given by the formula:

Average velocity = Displacement / Time

The displacement is 200 kilometers south, and the time is 2 hours. Therefore, we have:

Average velocity = 200 kilometers south / 2 hours

Simplifying the calculation:

Average velocity = 100 kilometers/hour south

Hence, the correct answer is B. 100 kilometers/hour south. This indicates that the car's average velocity is 100 kilometers per hour towards the south direction.

It's important to note that velocity is a vector quantity and includes both magnitude (speed) and direction. In this case, the direction is specified as south, which indicates that the car is moving towards the south relative to its starting point.

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(a) The amplitude of the wave is 0.2 m.

(b) The period of the wave is  4 s.

(c) The wavelength of the wave is 100 m.

(a) The amplitude of the wave is the maximum displacement of the wave.

amplitude of the wave = 0.2 m

(b) The period of the wave is the time taken for the wave to make one complete cycle.

period of the wave = 5.5 s - 1.5 s = 4 s

(c) The wavelength of the wave is calculated as follows;

λ = v / f

where;

f = 1/t = 1 / 4s = 0.25 Hz

λ = ( 25 m/s ) / 0.25 Hz

λ = 100 m

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The ball's velocity just after leaving the bat if the bat applies an impulse of −8.4N⋅s to the baseball will be  is v f = -25.9 m/s

If the baseball receives an impulse from the bat of 8.4Ns, the ball's velocity immediately after leaving the bat may be calculated as

m = 0.145 kg for a baseball.

32 m/s is the velocity just prior to impact.

v f after-impact speed

I = - 8.4N is the bat's applied impulse.

The ball's impulse is defined as its modification in linear momentum in accordance with Newton's second law of motion: A massive body will accelerate or alter its velocity at a constant rate when a constant force is applied to it, according to Newton's second law. In the simplest case, when a force is applied to an object at rest, the object accelerates in the direction of the applied force.

I equals m. (v f - v i )

transferring the pitcher's plus (+) and negative (-) indications to the batter.

-8.4 = 0.145* ( v f - (32) )

v f = -57.93103 + 32

v f = -25.9 m/s

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As the charge is negative, the force, which has a magnitude of 33.05 N, is directed to the left, against the electric field.

E is a symbol for the magnitude of the electric field at a specific distance from a point charge. At twice the distance from the point charge, what is the electric field's strength? The field's strength is E/2 at twice the distance. The field's strength is still equal to E at a distance that is twice as great.

E = k*q/r²

r1 = 2.00 cm

r2 = 1.00 cm + 3.00 cm = 4.00 cm

r3 = 1.00 cm

Using these distances, we can calculate the electric field due to each charge:

E1 = kq1/r1² = (9.0 x 10⁹ Nm²/C²) * (1.50 x 10⁻⁶ C) / (0.02 m)² = 168.75 N/C (to the right)

E2 = kq2/r2² = (9.0 x 10⁹ Nm²/C²) * (-2.00 x 10^⁻⁶ C) / (0.04 m)² = -112.50 N/C (to the left)

E3 = kq3/r3² = (9.0 x 10⁹ Nm²/C²) * (6.00 x 10⁻⁶ C) / (0.01 m)² = 5.40 x 10⁶ N/C (to the right)

E = E1 + E2 + E3 = 168.75 N/C - 112.50 N/C + 5.40 x 10⁶ N/C = 5.39 x 10⁶ N/C (to the right)

F = q*E

F = (-6.13 x 10 C) * (5.39 x 10⁶ N/C) = -33.05 N

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Answer:

i know da way ese'

Explanation:

Answer:

a = 4.9(1 - sinθ - 0.4cosθ)

Explanation:

Really not possible without a complete setup.

I will ASSUME that this an Atwood machine with two masses (m) connected by an ideal rope passing over an ideal pulley. One mass hangs freely and the other is on a slope of angle θ to the horizontal with coefficient of friction μ. Gravity is g

                                     F = ma

mg - mgsinθ - μmgcosθ = (m + m)a

      mg(1 - sinθ - μcosθ) = 2ma

      ½g(1 - sinθ - μcosθ) = a

maximum acceleration is about 2.94 m/s² when θ = 0

acceleration will be zero when θ is greater than about 46.4°

Answer:

so therefore, the comb gains electron and the hair losses electrons

Explanation:

It is known that electron contain a negative charge.

So, when an atom gain electrons then number of electrons within the atom increases. As a result, the atom acquires a negative charge.

But when an atom loses electrons, there will be deficiency of electrons within the atom. As a result, the atom becomes positively charged.

Hence,, when people use plastic combs on their hair, the combs become negatively charged. The situation which is true about this is the comb gains electrons and the hair loses electrons.

The potential energy of the roller coaster is 176,400 J (joules).

The potential energy of an object is given by the formula PE = mgh, where PE is the potential energy, m is the mass of the object, g is the acceleration due to gravity, and h is the height or vertical position of the object.

In this case, the roller coaster is at a peak of 20m and has a mass of 900kg. The acceleration due to gravity, g, is approximately 9.8 \(m/s^2\).

Using the formula, we can calculate the potential energy:

PE = mgh

= (900 kg)(9.8 \(m/s^2\))(20 m)

= 176,400 J

Therefore, the potential energy of the roller coaster is 176,400 J (joules).

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The speed of the object for 1 second is 3 m/s.

The speed of the object for 2 seconds is 1.5 m/s.

The speed of the object for 3 seconds is 1.0 m/s.

The speed of the object for 4 seconds is 0.75 m/s.

The speed of the object for 5 seconds is 0.6 m/s.

The speed of an object is the distance travelled by the object divided by the total time taken for the motion.

The speed of the object for each of the time of motion and total distance traveled is calculated as follows;

v (1 ) = ( 3 m ) / ( 1 s ) = 3 m/s

v ( 2 ) = ( 3 m ) / ( 2 s ) = 1.5 m/s

v ( 3 ) = ( 3 m ) / ( 3 s ) = 1 m/s

v ( 4 ) = ( 3 m ) / ( 4 s ) = 0.75 m/s

v ( 5 ) = ( 3 m ) / ( 5 s ) = 0.6 m/s

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Answer:

Using Ohm's Law, we can calculate the voltage of the battery as V = IR = (4 A)(7 Ω) = 28 V.

The total resistance of the circuit is R = R₁ + R₂ + r, where r is the internal resistance of each element.

We know that R₁ = 14 Ω and R = 7 Ω, so we can solve for R₂:

R₂ = R - R₁ = 7 Ω - 14 Ω = -7 Ω

This is a negative resistance, which doesn't make sense physically. However, it indicates that there is an error in the problem or the calculations.

To find the internal EDS of the elements, we can use the equation:

V = ε - Ir

where V is the voltage of the battery, ε is the internal EDS of each element, I is the current flowing in the circuit, and r is the internal resistance of each element.

We know that V = 28 V, I = 4 A, and r = 6 Ω, so we can solve for ε:

ε = V + Ir = 28 V + (4 A)(6 Ω) = 52 V

Therefore, the internal EDS of each element is 52 V.

Answer:

The angle formed of the rope with the surface = 40°

Force applied = 125Newtons

The displacement covered by the box =25metres

W= FDcos theta

[125×40×cos(40°) ] Joules

= [ (3125×0.76604444311)]Joules

= 2393.88888472 joules(ans)

Hope it helps

Machine 1 has the greatest mechanical advantage among the given machines. To determine the machine with the greatest mechanical advantage, we need to calculate the mechanical advantage for each machine.

Machine 1: Mechanical Advantage = Output Force / Input Force = 50 N / 5 N = 10

Machine 2: Mechanical Advantage = Output Force / Input Force = 50 N / 10 N = 5

Machine 3: Mechanical Advantage = Output Force / Input Force = 50 N / 25 N = 2

Machine 4: Mechanical Advantage = Output Force / Input Force = 50 N / 50 N = 1

Comparing the mechanical advantages, we can see that Machine 1 has the highest mechanical advantage of 10. This means that Machine 1 can multiply the input force by 10 to produce the output force. It provides the greatest amplification of force among the four machines.

Machine 2 has a mechanical advantage of 5, Machine 3 has a mechanical advantage of 2, and Machine 4 has a mechanical advantage of 1. Therefore, Machine 1 has the greatest mechanical advantage among the given machines.

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Answer:

The electronic configuration of Fe2+ is 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d6 and Fe3+ is 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d5. Fe2+ contains 2 fewer electrons compared to the electronic configuration of Fe.

(a) The force is 12 N. (b) The normal force between the block and incline is  46.2 N. (c) The force of friction on the block is 12 N.

We can solve this problem using Newton's laws of motion and the equations of motion for objects on inclined planes.

(a) To find the force applied to the block, we can use the equation:

\(F_a_p_p_l_i_e_d = m * a\)

here,\(F_a_p_p_l_i_e_d\) is applied force,

m is mass of the block, and

a is acceleration of the block.

Reserving values:-

\(F_a_p_p_l_i_e_d = (5.2 kg) * (2.3 m/s^2) = 12 N\)

Therefore, the force applied on block is 12 N.

(b) To find the normal force between the block and the incline, we can use the component of the force of gravity that is perpendicular to the incline:-

\(F_n_o_r_m = m * g * cos\theta\)

here,

m is mass of the block,

g is acceleration due to gravity, and

theta is angle of the incline.

Reserving values:-

\(F_n_o_r_m = (5.2 kg) * (9.81 m/s^2) * cos25.0 = 46.2 N\)

Therefore, the normal force between the block and the incline is about 46.2 N.

(c) To find the force of friction on the block, we need to compare the applied force to the maximum frictional force that the surface can provide, which is given by:

\(F_f_r_i_c_t_i_o_n_,_m_a_x = mu * F_n_o_r_m\)

here, mu is coefficient of friction and

\(F_n_o_r_m\) is normal force.

The force of friction acts in the opposite direction to the motion of the block, so it will be downhill in this case. If the block is moving uphill, then the force of friction would be uphill instead.

Reserving values:-

\(F_f_r_i_c_t_i_o_n_,_m_a_x = (0.26) * (46.2 N) = 12.0 N\)

Since the applied force of 12 N is equal to the maximum frictional force, the block will slide with a constant velocity. Therefore, the force of friction on the block is 12 N.

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Answer:

D

Explanation:

Moving does not change pe

A cart weighing 10 newtons is pushed 10 meters on a level surface by a force of 5 newtons. The increase in its potential energy is zero.

Energy is the ability or capability to do tasks, such as the ability to move an item (of a certain mass) by exerting force. Energy can exist in many different forms, including electrical, mechanical, chemical, thermal, or nuclear, and it can change its form.

Gravitational potential energy is energy an object possesses because of its position in a gravitational field. The most common use of gravitational potential energy is for an object near the surface of the Earth where the gravitational acceleration can be assumed to be constant at about 9.8 m/s².

When there is no change in height of object, so potential energy change is zero.

A cart weighing 10 newtons is pushed 10 meters on a level surface by a force of 5 newtons. The increase in its potential energy is zero.

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Answer:

please mark me branlist

Answer:

  v_{f} = -0.693 m / s

Explanation:

The acceleration of the runner can be obtained from Newton's second law

       F = m a

        a = F / m

the bold are vectors, therefore the acceleration throughout the journey varies as the force has variations.

For the part of finding the velocity of the body we can use the relationship between the momentum and the variation of the momentum

            I = Δp

           ∫ F Δt = m \(v_{f}\) - m v₀

           int F dt = m (v_{f}-v₀)

1) To find the change in velocity we must find the area under the curve of the graph, this can be done analytically if we know the functional of the curve or approximate it by intervals

a) between 0 <t <0.20 s

v) between 0.20 <t <0.30 s

a reasonable curve shape can be a Gaussian.

2) If we do not have the form of the cure, we can perform a graphical integration to find the area under the curve, we can do this by dividing the curve into small rectangles, finding the area of ​​each one and adding them.

3) Another even more approximate way is to create an average force in each interval and find the area of ​​this force, the average force is the average value of the force in the interval, let's use this method in the exercise

a) first interval 0 <t <0.20 Average force \(F_{mean}\) = 300 N

    area = F_{mean} Δt

    area = I = 300 0.20

    I = 60 N s

the speed change is

    I = m Δv

    Δv = I / m

    Δv = 60/65

    Δv = 0.923 m / s

If we assume that the runner starts from rest, his final velocity is v = 0.923 m / s in the direction of the force.

b) second interval 0.2 <t <0.30s average force F_mean = 150 N

    area = I = 150 (0.30 - 0.20)

    I = 15 N s

the speed change is

    Δv = 15/65

    Δv = 0.23 m / s

Note that in this case the initial speed is not zero and since the two impulses are in the opposite direction the speed decreases

        \(v_{f}\)= -0.923 + 0.23

        v_{f} = -0.693 m / s

Answer:

20.00

Explanation: