A color printer prints 19 pages in 8 minutes.
How many minutes does it take per page?

Answer:

Which of the following correctly completes the following equation:

Nitrogenous base + sugar + phosphate group =

Step-by-step explanation:

If after 2 seconds, the length of the shadow is 1 meter. Then the height of the Rohan will be 150 cm.

The distance covered by the particle or the body in an hour is called speed. It is a scalar quantity. It is the ratio of distance to time.

We know that the speed formula

Speed = Distance/Time

Rohan is very intelligent in maths.

He always tries to relate the concept of maths to daily life.

One day he is walking away from the base of a lamp post at a speed of 1 m/s.

The lamp is 4.5 m above the ground.

If after 2 seconds, the length of the shadow is 1 meter.

Then the height of Rohan will be

Speed = 1 m/s

Distance covered in 2 secs = 2 m

The length of the shadow is 1 meter,

Total Distance from base = 2 +  1  = 3 m

Then the height of the Rohan will be

                     1/3  = Height of rohan / 4.5

Height of Rohan = 1.5 m

Height of Rohan = 150 cm

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Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

A:) I.B area

C:) I. Volume=II.Volume

E:) I.B volume= II.B volume= III.B volume

Step-by-step explanation: i did the usa test prep

The equation that is not equivalent to p – 7 = 22 will be:

C. p – 7 + 22 = 22 – 7

D. p – 7 + 7 = 22 – 22

E. p – 7 + 7 = 22 + 7

An equation simply has to do with the statement that illustrates the variables given. In this case, it is vital to note that two or more components are considered in order to be able to describe the scenario

It should be noted that p – 7 + 22 = 22 – 7, p – 7 + 7 = 22 – 22 and p – 7 + 7 = 22 + 7 don't give the original equation. Therefore, the answers are C D and E.

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Answer:

The original price of the shirt was Ksh 500 and it was sold for Ksh 550.

The discount is the difference between the original price and the selling price, which is Ksh 500 - Ksh 550 = Ksh -50.

To find the percentage discount, we can use the formula:

percentage discount = (discount ÷ original price) × 100%

percentage discount = (-50 ÷ 500) × 100%

percentage discount = -10%

Therefore, the percentage discount is 10%.

Simone can make two different rectangles with the following side lengths:

Rectangle 1: Length = 16 inches, Width = 1 inch

Rectangle 2: Length = 8 inches, Width = 2 inches

To find the side lengths of the two rectangles that Simone can make using 16 square inch tiles, we need to consider the factors of 16 and check which pairs of factors can form rectangles with the same area.

The factors of 16 are 1, 2, 4, 8, and 16. We can pair these factors to form different rectangles and calculate their areas:

Pairing: 1 and 16

Length: 16

Width: 1

Area: 16 square inches

Pairing: 2 and 8

Length: 8

Width: 2

Area: 16 square inches

Pairing: 4 and 4

Length: 4

Width: 4

Area: 16 square inches

Therefore, Simone can make two different rectangles with the following side lengths:

Rectangle 1: Length = 16 inches, Width = 1 inch

Rectangle 2: Length = 8 inches, Width = 2 inches

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Answer:

Y=KX so its 10=K2

Step-by-step explanation:

Plug in the Number OR K=y/x

Answer: the other three angles are 83° each

Step-by-step explanation:

The Total of all the angles of a pentagon is 540° Subtract the 150 and 141.

540- 291 = 249. Divide by 3

249/3 = 83

Answer:

1: 10 ❤️❤️❤️❤️❤️❤️❤️❤️

Answer:

improper fraction- 15/4

Mixed number-  3  3/4

Decimal- 3.75

Step-by-step explanation:

use K.C.F (Keep Change Flip)

The x is a placeholder for a number. Think of x like a box and inside the box will go a number. In this case, -4 will replace x

7 - 2x = 7 - 2(-4) = 7 + 8 = 15

Answer:

c = 0.1864

Step-by-step explanation:

To find c, we need to find the z-score where:

P(-z<Z<z) = 98%

Based on the properties of the normal distribution we can said that

P(-z<Z<z) = 98% is equal to:

2*P(Z>z) = 2%    or  P(Z>z)= 1%

So, using the standard normal table, the z score is 2.33

Then, we can calculated the value of c as:

\(c=z*s\)

Where s is the standard deviation and z is the z-score. Replacing the values, we get:

c = 2.33*0.08

c = 0.1864

Answer:

Part A:

1. Computation of Basic EPS

Basic EPS = (Net Income - Preferred Dividends) / Weighted Average Shares Outstanding²

Net Income = $120,000

Preferred Dividends = 4% x $50,000 = $2,000

Weighted Average Shares Outstanding = 100,000 (assuming no change in common stock during the year)

Basic EPS = ($120,000 - $2,000) / 100,000

Basic EPS = $1.18

2. Individual dilution/anti-dilution with decision making

We need to check if any of the convertible securities or stock options are dilutive or anti-dilutive by comparing their impact on EPS with the basic EPS.

Convertible Preferred: Each preferred share can be converted into 1.9 common shares (1,900 / 1,000). The conversion would increase the common shares outstanding by 1,900 and decrease the preferred dividends by $2,000.

EPS after conversion = ($120,000 - $0) / (100,000 + 1,900)

EPS after conversion = $1.16

Since this is lower than the basic EPS of $1.18, the convertible preferred is dilutive and should be included in the diluted EPS calculation.

Stock Options - A: Each option can be exercised at $12 to buy one common share when the average market price is $11. This means that the options are out of the money and would not be exercised by the holders. Therefore, they have no impact on EPS and are anti-dilutive.

Stock Options - B: Each option can be exercised at $7 to buy one common share when the average market price is $8. This means that the options are in the money and would be exercised by the holders. The exercise would increase the common shares outstanding by 4,000 and generate cash proceeds of $28,000 ($7 x 4,000). The cash proceeds can be used to buy back some common shares at the market price of $8. The number of shares bought back is 3,500 ($28,000 / $8). The net increase in common shares outstanding is 500 (4,000 - 3,500).

EPS after exercise = ($120,000 - $2,000) / (100,000 + 500)

EPS after exercise = $1.17

Since this is lower than the basic EPS of $1.18, the stock options - B are dilutive and should be included in the diluted EPS calculation.

Convertible Bonds: Each bond can be converted into 40 common shares (40,000 / 1,000). The conversion would increase the common shares outstanding by 40,000 and decrease the interest expense by $50,000 ($1,000,000 x 5%). The interest expense is net of tax, so we need to multiply it by (1 - tax rate) to get the after-tax amount. The tax rate is 30%.

EPS after conversion = ($120,000 - $2,000 + $50,000 x (1 - 0.3)) / (100,000 + 40,000)

EPS after conversion = $1.19

Since this is higher than the basic EPS of $1.18, the convertible bonds are anti-dilutive and should be excluded from the diluted EPS calculation.

3. Ranking of potential dilutors

We need to rank the potential dilutors from the most dilutive to the least dilutive based on their impact on EPS.

The most dilutive security is the convertible preferred with an EPS of $1.16.

The second most dilutive security is the stock options - B with an EPS of $1.17.

The least dilutive security is the convertible bonds with an EPS of $1.19.

4. Step-by-step inclusion of individual dilutors to arrive at reportable EPS with decision making.

We need to include the potential dilutors in order of their dilution until we reach a point where the next security would be anti-dilutive.

The first security to include is the convertible preferred.

EPS with convertible preferred = ($120,000 - $0) / (100,000 + 1,900)

EPS with convertible preferred = $1.16

The next security to include is the stock options - B.

EPS with stock options - B = ($120,000 - $0) / (100,000 + 1,900 + 500)

EPS with stock options

The numeric value of the exponential expression in this problem is given by the following option:

A. 2^12.

The exponential expression for this problem is defined as follows:

8^x/2^y.

8 is the third power of 2, hence:

8 = 2^3.

When a term is elevated to two of it's powers, the powers are multiplied, hence:

(2^3)^x = 2^(3x).

Meaning that the exponential expression is then written as follows:

8^x/2^y = 2^(3x)/2^y.

When two terms of the same base and different exponents are divided, we keep the base and subtract the exponents, hence the expression is given as follows:

2^(3x)/2^y = 2^(3x - y).

As stated in the problem, the numeric value of the expression 3x - y is given as follows:

3x - y = 12.

Hence the entire expression is simplified as follows:

2^(3x - y) = 2^12.

Meaning that the correct option is given by option A.

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Answer:A. 2^12.

Step-by-step explanation:i did it and got it right

Answer:

Associative Property

Step-by-step explanation:

3x + (2x + 4) is equivalent to (3x + 2x) + 4

because there is no change of signs taking place as there is no (-) sign in front of the brackets

3x + (2x + 4) | (3x + 2x) + 4

3x + 2x + 4 | 3x + 2x +4

5x + 4 | 5x + 4

Answer:

Associative Property

Step-by-step explanation:

3x + (2x + 4) is equivalent to (3x + 2x) + 4

because there is no change of signs taking place as there is no (-) sign in front of the brackets

3x + (2x + 4) | (3x + 2x) + 4

3x + 2x + 4 | 3x + 2x +4

5x + 4 | 5x + 4

Answer:

D; y=125.3x2+257.8x+183.3

Step-by-step explanation:

I just took the test

have a good day! :)

Answer:

a. -5

b. -4

c. 4

d. -1 - (-6)

...I think I'm not so sure on d

When 1,493,600 is divided by 8 the quotient is 186,700.

To divide 1,493,600 by 8, you can follow these steps:

We have to write down the dividend (1,493,600) and the divisor (8).

Now start with the largest place value in the dividend (the leftmost digit) and perform the division.

Divide 1 by 8. Since 1 is smaller than 8, you move to the next digit.

Bring down the next digit (4) and combine it with the previous quotient (0). This gives you 04.

Divide 4 by 8. Since 4 is smaller than 8, you move to the next digit.

Bring down the next digit (9) and combine it with the previous quotient (0). This gives you 09.

Divide 9 by 8. The quotient is 1, and the remainder is 1.

Bring down the next digit (3) and combine it with the remainder (1). This gives you 13.

Divide 13 by 8. The quotient is 1, and the remainder is 5.

Bring down the next digit (6) and combine it with the remainder (5). This gives you 56.

Divide 56 by 8. The quotient is 7, and there is no remainder.

Bring down the next digit (0) and combine it with the quotient (7). This gives you 70.

Divide 70 by 8. The quotient is 8, and there is no remainder.

There are no more digits to bring down, and the division is complete.

The quotient is the result of the division. In this case, 1,493,600 divided by 8 is equal to 186,700.

Therefore, the result of 1,493,600 ÷ 8 is 186,700.

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Answer:

15,136 hands off with cards contain exactly three queens and three jacks.

Step-by-step explanation:

The order in which the cards are chosen is not important, which means that the combinations formula is used to solve this question.

Combinations formula:

\(C_{n,x}\) is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

\(C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}\)

Standard deck:

4 queens and 4 jacks.

The other 52 - 8 = 44 cards are neither queens nor jacks.

Wow many hands off with cards contain exactly three queens and three jacks?

3 queens from a set of 4.

3 jacks from a set of 4.

2 other cards(not queens neither jacks) from the other 44. So

\(C_{4,3}C_{4,3}C_{44,2} = \frac{4!}{1!3!} \times \frac{4!}{1!3!} \frac{44!}{2!42!} = 4*4*22*43 = 15136\)

15,136 hands off with cards contain exactly three queens and three jacks.

Answer:

D

Step-by-step explanation:

The amount that would be in the account when Alana is 21  is $2890

We have to know the formula for simple interest.

This is expressed as;

S.I = PRT/100

Given that the parameters of the formula are enumerated as;

From the information given, substitute the values, we have;

SI = 1000 × 9 × 21/100

Multiply the values,

Then, divide by the denominator, we have;

SI = $1890

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Answer:

Mohan kept investing his money for 1 month and 28 days.

Step-by-step explanation:

Since Buddha and Mohan started business with capitals of Rs. 2400 and Rs. 3000 respectively, and of a total gain of Rs. 800, Mohan who had contributed his capital for 4 months received Rs. 500, to find how long Buddha has contributed his capital, the following calculation must be performed:

Buddha = 2,400

500/4 = 125

2400 = 100

125 = X

125 x 100/2400 = X

5.2 = X

Thus, the investment has an interest rate of 5.2% per month.

Mohan = 3,000

3000 = 100

300 = 10

10 / 5.2 = 1.92

0.92 x 30 = 27.6

Thus, Mohan kept investing his money for 1 month and 28 days.

Answer:

0.83

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: 50 min

Step-by-step explanation:

Divide 3000 by 60 because 60 is one minute.

According to the Empirical Rule, 99.7% of the measures fall within 3 standard deviations of the mean in the normal distribution.

The Empirical Rule states that, for a normally distributed random variable, the symmetric distribution of scores is presented as follows:

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Answer:

5

8

20

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Base: 6 units. Height: 4 units. Area: 24 units.

Step-by-step explanation:

To find the base of the parallelogram, it is literally the bottom line of the parallelogram. In this case, it is the line below the x-axis that is also parallel to it. To find the length of the base line, just count the squares between both ends of the line. There are 6 squares, so the base is 6 units long. To find the height of the parallelogram, you count the squares (units) between the bottom and top lines of the parallelogram, both parallel to the x-axis. There are 4 squares between the lines, so the height of the parallelogram is 4 units. To find the area of a parallelogram, multiply the base by the height. 6 * 4 = 24, so the area of the parallelogram is 24 units.

The sample size needed to be 99​% confident that the sample proportion will not differ from the true proportion by more than ​4% is given as follows:

n = 1037.

A confidence interval of proportions has the bounds given by the rule presented as follows:

\(\pi \pm z\sqrt{\frac{\pi(1-\pi)}{n}}\)

In which the variables used to calculated these bounds are listed as follows:

The margin of error is given as follows:

\(M = z\sqrt{\frac{\pi(1-\pi)}{n}}\)

The confidence level is of 99%, hence the critical value z is the value of Z that has a p-value of \(\frac{1+0.99}{2} = 0.995\), so the critical value is z = 2.575.

As we have no estimate, the parameter is given as follows:

\(\pi = 0.5\)

Then the sample size for M = 0.04 is obtained as follows:

\(M = z\sqrt{\frac{\pi(1-\pi)}{n}}\)

\(0.04 = 2.575\sqrt{\frac{0.5(0.5)}{n}}\)

\(0.04\sqrt{n} = 2.575 \times 0.5\)

\(\sqrt{n} = \frac{2.575 \times 0.5}{0.04}\)

\((\sqrt{n})^2 = \left(\frac{2.575 \times 0.5}{0.04}\right)^2\)

n = 1037.

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The surface area of the rectangular prism is 396 square inches

He will need 504 tlles

From the question, we have the following parameters that can be used in our computation:

7 in by 12 in by 6 in

The surface area of the rectangular prism is calculated as

Area = 2 * (7 * 12 + 7 * 6 + 12 * 6)

Evaluate

Area = 396

Hence, the area is 396 square inches

The number of tiles is 7 * 12 * 6 = 504

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Question

wants to tile the surface of a rectangular storage case that is 7 inches​ long, 12 inches​ wide, and 6 inches tall. If he uses all green​ tiles, how many tiles will he​ need?

Answer:

\(528\ cm^2\)

Step-by-step explanation:

1. Approach

The surface area is the two-dimensional space around a three-dimensional object. In other words, if one was going to wrap an object with paper, the surface area is the amount of paper one would need. To find the surface area, one could find the area of each face of the prism and then add up all of the values.

2. Finding the surface area,

To find the area of each face of the prism, one must multiply the length of the face by the width of the face. After doing so, add up all of the resulting values.

10 * 20 = 200

8 * 20 = 160

6 * 20 = 120

\(\frac{1}{2}\) * 6 * 8 = 24

\(\frac{1}{2}\) * 6 * 8 = 24

Add up all of the values,

200 + 160 + 120 + 24 + 24

= 528