Answers
The nurse should inform the patient that there may be a temporary disruption in sexual function following a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP), but that most patients are able to resume sexual activity within several weeks to a few months after surgery.
TURP is a surgical procedure used to treat prostatic hypertrophy, a condition that can cause difficulty with urination and other urinary symptoms. The procedure involves removing excess prostate tissue to improve urinary flow. While TURP can be an effective treatment, it may also cause temporary side effects such as difficulty with erections or ejaculation. The severity and duration of these side effects can vary depending on the individual patient and the extent of the surgery.
However, most patients are able to resume sexual activity within several weeks to a few months after surgery, once the side effects have resolved. It is important for the nurse to provide accurate information to the patient, address any concerns or questions that the patient may have, and encourage open communication between the patient and healthcare providers. This can help to ensure that the patient has a positive surgical experience and optimal recovery.
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Related Questions
17. Order: Humulin R 100 units IVPB in 500 mL NS infuse at 0.1 unit/kg/h
stat. The patient weighs 46 kg. How long will it take for the infusion of
this U-100 insulin to complete?
Answers
17) Calculation of time required for the infusion to complete.
Rate(ml/hr) = Total volume(ml) / Time(hr).
Time(hr) = Total volume(ml) / Rate(ml/hr).
Calculation of volume(ml).
Formula = Desired dose/Dose in hand *Quantity.
Ordered dose = 0.1 unit/kg/hr.
Weight of the patient = 46 kg.
Desired dose(D) for this patient = 0.1 * 46
= 4.6 unit / hr.
Dose in hand(H) = 100 unit
Quantity(Q) = 500 ml.
As per above formula
Volume required = 4.6 / 100 * 500
= 0.046 * 500
= 23 ml.
Rate = 23 ml /hr.
Time(hr) = Total volume(ml) / Rate(ml/hr)
= 500/ 23
= 21.7
= 22 hr (Time required to complete the infusion).
Hope this helps... . *brainliest please?*
A client who has been takin the prescribed does of zolpidem for 5 days return to the clinic for a follow up visit which statement by the client indicate the medication has been effective
Answers
"I have been sleeping much better since I started taking zolpidem."
Taking the prescribed dose of zolpidem for five daysThe client may indicate that the medication has been effective by saying that they are sleeping better, they are having more energy during the day, they are feeling less anxious, or they are having fewer intrusive thoughts.They may also report feeling more alert and able to focus throughout the day. They may also report that they are having fewer nightmares or that they are not waking up as often during the night.Additionally, they may say that they are feeling better overall and that they are better able to cope with stress. All of these statements would indicate that the medication has been effective in helping the client manage their symptoms.A statement from the client indicating that the medication has been effective may include: "I have been taking the prescribed dose of zolpidem for five days and I have been feeling more rested and able to sleep through the night without feeling groggy the next day."The client may also report that they have been able to fall asleep faster and feel more rested during the day. Additionally, the client may report that they have been having fewer episodes of insomnia and have been able to stay asleep longer.This question is asking for an example of a statement from a client indicating that the medication has been effective after taking the prescribed dose of zolpidem for five days.To learn more about the prescribed dose of zolpidem refer to:
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When Alfred starts to dream during sleep, he thrashes around in bed and makes guttural noises. Sometimes he hurts himself because he
hits his arms or legs against the wall. Alfred suffers from:
Answers
The given symptoms are the symptoms of Alfred is the sleeping disorder known as Rapid eye movement or REM.
Rapid eye movement (REM) sleep behavior is a strange phase of sleep in which an individual physically acts out vividity with rapid movements of eyes due to nightmares. In this sleep order various symptoms are present that are:
vocal sounds like guttural noisesviolent arm and leg movements like hitting walls or things nearbyRapid eye movementsthrashes arounddifferent from sleepwalkingREM is also called dream-enacting behavior that is the disorder Alfred suffering from.
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78. A 35-year-old female with progressive exertional shortness of breath was sent to echocardiographic examination. Coronary sinus dilation was found. Which of the following is most common cause of this finding? A. Aortic dissection B. Coronary artery disease C. Hypertrophy of the left ventricie D. Pulmonary hypertension 90. A 58-year-old man presents to physician complaining of periodic, tightness and burning pain in the chest deep to the sternum. A nuclear imaging stress test shows decreased perfusion of the myocardium forming the anterior surface of the heart and anterior portion of the interventricular septum. Which of the following coronary arteries is most likely occluded in this patient? A. Right coronary artery B. Acute marginal branch C. Left main coronary artery D. Left anterior descending coronary artery E. Left circumflex coronary artery 94. A 61-year-old male comes to the doctor's office complaining of exertional chest pain. Coronary angiography reveals severe stenosis of the right coronary artery, left anterior descending, and circumflex coronary arteries. He is referred to a hospital for coronary artery bypass surgery. During the procedure, a portion of his great saphenous vein is harvested and grafted to one of his diseased coronary arteries to bypass the atherosclerotic narrowing. The great saphenous vein should be best taken from which of the following sites? A. Superior to the inguinal ligament B. Inferior to the anterior superior iliac spine C. Inferolateral to the pubic tubercle D. At the midline of the popliteal fossa E. At the lateral aspect of the foot
Answers
The most common cause of coronary sinus dilation in a 35-year-old female with progressive exertional shortness of breath is pulmonary hypertension.
The occlusion of the left anterior descending coronary artery (LAD) is most likely responsible for the decreased perfusion of the anterior surface of the heart and anterior portion of the interventricular septum.
The superior region, above the inguinal ligament, is the best location for harvesting the great saphenous vein during coronary artery bypass surgery, as it minimizes the risk of nerve injury and is far from the femoral artery and vein.
Question 78:
The most common cause of coronary sinus dilation, found by echocardiographic examination of a 35-year-old female with progressive exertional shortness of breath, is D. Pulmonary hypertension. Causes of pulmonary hypertension include chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), obstructive sleep apnea, pulmonary fibrosis, pulmonary hypertension, left ventricular failure, and congenital heart disease. The most common cause of coronary sinus dilation is pulmonary hypertension.
Question 90:
In this scenario, decreased perfusion of the myocardium forming the anterior surface of the heart and anterior portion of the interventricular septum is observed on nuclear imaging stress testing. The left anterior descending coronary artery (LAD) is the most likely occluded in this patient. The LAD supplies blood to the anterior wall of the left ventricle, apex, and interventricular septum. It is also known as the "widowmaker artery" because its blockage can cause sudden death.
Question 94:
A portion of the patient's great saphenous vein is removed and grafted to one of his diseased coronary arteries to bypass the atherosclerotic narrowing during coronary artery bypass surgery. The best location for harvesting the great saphenous vein is A. Superior to the inguinal ligament. This region is the best place to harvest the great saphenous vein because the risk of nerve injury is low, and it is far from the femoral artery and vein.
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which situation demonstrates proper application of client confidentiality requirements for the health insurance portability and accountability act (hipaa)?
Answers
A proper application of client confidentiality requirements under the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) would be when a healthcare provider refrains from discussing a patient's medical condition with a colleague in a public area.
HIPAA regulations are designed to protect the privacy and confidentiality of individuals' health information. In this situation, the healthcare provider demonstrates proper application of client confidentiality requirements by refraining from discussing a patient's medical condition in a public area. By avoiding such conversations in a public space, the provider ensures that the patient's health information remains private and confidential.
This practice adheres to the principles of HIPAA, which emphasize the need to protect sensitive health information from unauthorized disclosure. It demonstrates respect for the patient's privacy rights and upholds the provider's responsibility to maintain confidentiality in their professional practices.
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cardiovascular system disorder questions with multiple choices
Answers
Answer:
You have to put the questions and their answers for people to be able to answer your questions.
Explanation:
If there's a prescription that calls for 28 mg of medication, and the pharmacy has 40mg/2mL solution in stock, how many mL will the patient need to receive to get the correct dose?
Answers
40/2 = 28/x
Cross multiply
40x = 56
divide both sides by 40
x = 1.4
What are two ways that genetic material can move from one species to another ?
Answers
Mrs. Forbes is a 69-year-old lady being discharged from the hospital after complications following a cosmetic surgical procedure. She is basically in good health. She has a history of hypothyroidism for which she takes levothyroxine daily, and mild osteoarthritis which is controlled with only prn nonsteroidal use. Her blood pressure is 148/90 mm Hg. The AGACNP knows that in accordance with the most current guidelines published in JNC 8 the appropriate action is to:
Answers
the nurse would intervene when which step is performed by a student nurse when preparing a sterile field
Answers
To have as few microorganisms as feasible present, a sterile field must be established.
Which procedures must the nurse prepare for in order to be sterile?
-As directed, administer a prophylactic antibiotic before the surgery. -Use sterile techniques throughout the procedure. -Before the process, make sure to wash your hands well. -Teach the patient about the operation to reduce movement and conversation while it is being done.
What should be done as soon as possible before creating a sterile field?
To guarantee that the goods are sterile, the nurse must examine the packaging for expiration dates before setting up the sterile field. Before you open any sterile things, you must do this. The work surface needs to be situated at Check the expiration dates and open any sterile containers from waist level.
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The pH of blood can fluctuate from a pH of 5 to a pH of 9 with very little consequence to a Person
True False
Answers
Answer: Answer choice, True
Explanation: Hope this helps! Have a terrific day! <3
While explaining to a group of nursing students what the function of the first mucosal
layer of the lower two thirds of the esophagus, the pathophysiology instructor mentions
which of the following functions? Select all that apply.
A) Secretion of mucus to lubricate and protect the inner surface of the alimentary
canal
B) Smooth muscle cells that facilitate movement of contents of the GI tract
C) Holding the organs in place and storage of fats
D) Barrier to prevent the entry of pathogenic organisms
E) A cushioning to protect against injury from sports or car accidents
Answers
holding your organs in position and fat storage while describing the purpose of the initial mucosal to a gathering of student nurses.
What role does the bottom three quarters of the esophagus' first mucosal layer play?The esophageal mucosa is crucial in defending the muscle layer underneath. The lower esophagus uses it as its initial line of defense against stomach acid. Luminal acids clearance and cell resistance are the main mucosal defenses of the esophageal squamous mucosa against acid.
The end of the esophagus sphincter is made up of what?The intrinsic sphincter, which is made up of the oblique sling muscle and the semicircular clasp muscles, makes up the lower esophageal sphincter, or LES, in its anatomical form.
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What steps do you think you as a medical insurance
specialists should take to ensure Medicare and Medicaid fraud does
not occur in the practices where you are employed?
Answers
As a medical insurance specialist, there are several steps you can take to help prevent Medicare and Medicaid fraud in the practices where you are employed.
Here are some key measures you can implement:
1. Stay updated on regulations: Keep yourself informed about the latest regulations and guidelines set forth by Medicare and Medicaid. This will help you understand the proper procedures and requirements for billing, coding, and documentation.
2. Conduct regular audits: Perform routine audits to ensure compliance and identify any potential fraudulent activities. This can involve reviewing medical records, claims, and billing practices to detect any discrepancies or irregularities.
3. Educate staff: Provide comprehensive training to all staff members, including doctors, nurses, and administrative personnel, on Medicare and Medicaid rules and regulations. Emphasize the importance of accurate documentation, coding, and billing practices to avoid any fraudulent activities.
4. Implement internal controls: Establish internal controls within the practice to monitor and prevent fraud. This can include segregation of duties, dual authorizations for financial transactions, and regular reconciliations of financial records.
5. Utilize technology: Implement electronic health record (EHR) systems and billing software that have built-in fraud detection mechanisms. These systems can help identify potential billing errors or duplicate claims, reducing the risk of fraud.
6. Communicate with payers: Maintain open lines of communication with Medicare and Medicaid payers. Report any suspicions of fraudulent activities and collaborate with them to address any issues that arise.
7. Stay vigilant: Be proactive in identifying potential red flags that may indicate fraudulent activities. This can include unusual billing patterns, excessive billing for services, or unexplained changes in patient demographics.
By following these steps, you can help ensure that Medicare and Medicaid fraud is prevented in the practices where you are employed. Remember, ongoing education and vigilance are key to maintaining compliance and integrity in healthcare billing and reimbursement processes.
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which action would the nurse plan to take with a postpartum client with a negative rubella titer
Answers
The nurse would recommend rubella vaccination and educate the client about its importance for future pregnancies.
In the case of a postpartum client with a negative rubella titer, the nurse would likely plan the following actions:
Education and Counseling: The nurse would provide the client with comprehensive information about rubella, its transmission, and potential risks during the postpartum period.The client should be counseled about the importance of rubella vaccination to protect both themselves and their future pregnancies.
Vaccination Recommendation: The nurse would strongly recommend rubella vaccination to the client. Rubella vaccination is safe and effective, and it is typically administered as the measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) vaccine.The nurse would explain the benefits of vaccination in preventing rubella infection and its potential complications.
Assess Immunization Status: The nurse would review the client's immunization records to determine if they have already received the rubella vaccine. If not, the nurse would schedule the administration of the vaccine as soon as possible. If the client has received the vaccine in the past, the nurse would assess whether they need a booster dose.Family Planning: The nurse would discuss family planning with the client, emphasizing the importance of rubella immunity before attempting to conceive again.The nurse would explain that rubella infection during pregnancy can lead to serious complications such as congenital rubella syndrome, which can cause birth defects in the baby.
Follow-Up: The nurse would schedule a follow-up appointment to ensure that the client receives the rubella vaccination. This would allow the nurse to assess the client's compliance with the vaccination recommendation and address any concerns or questions that may arise.Overall, the nurse's plan of action would involve educating the client, recommending vaccination, assessing immunization status, discussing family planning, and ensuring appropriate follow-up to protect the client's health and the health of future pregnancies.
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The chain of infection is best described as
Answers
Hope this helped :)
Since im studying animals (im training to be a vet) what is the most fragile part of a dogs body?
Answers
Probably their muzzle.
What medicine do you need if someone has cancer
Answers
Answer:
Over-the-counter and prescription pain relievers, such as aspirin, acetaminophen (Tylenol, others) and ibuprofen (Advil, Motrin IB, others)
Weak opioid (derived from opium) medications, such as codeine
Strong opioid medications, such as morphine (Kadian, Ms Contin, others), oxycodone (Oxycontin, Roxicodone, others), hydromorphone (Dilaudid, Exalgo), fentanyl (Actiq, Fentora, others), methadone (Dolophine, Methadose) or oxymorphone (Opana)
Explanation:
Please mark me brailiest there is more thogh
As disease prevention and health promotion initiatives grew since the 1970s, greater attention was directed at helping individuals _____.
Answers
As disease prevention and health promotion initiatives grew since the 1970s, greater attention was directed at helping individuals make changes in their lifestyles, improve their environment and food intake, and develop a sense of personal control over their health.
Since the 1970s, there has been an increasing focus on disease prevention and health promotion initiatives. The aim is to promote better health and wellbeing, as well as to reduce the incidence of chronic and communicable diseases in populations. To achieve these goals, greater attention has been directed at helping individuals make changes in their lifestyles, improve their environment and food intake, and develop a sense of personal control over their health.
Consequently, disease prevention and health promotion initiatives have increasingly focused on these broader factors, as well as on individual behavior change. Overall, the growth of disease prevention and health promotion initiatives since the 1970s has helped to promote better health and wellbeing, reduce the incidence of chronic and communicable diseases, and improve the quality of life for individuals and populations.
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What is competency-based education and how can it help Shawna learn and achieve skills? Why is it important for Shawna to understand how she learns best?
Answers
Answer:
Competency-based education is a system where the student is assessed according to his or her skills within a subject and is not assessed with the mastery of concepts, as in traditional education. This type of education can help Shawna to learn and acquire skills because it allows her to show the areas that she has the most competence and can focus on them, with a specific pace for her, where she can identify which areas she has more ability to learn and in how much time.
It is important for Shawna to understand how she learns best, because this way she optimizes her study time, avoiding elements that she has no affinity with and that hinder her knowledge.
Explanation:
Competency-based education is a very different and innovative educational system. Unlike the conventional educational system, competency-based education allows a specific and comfortable study pace for each student to be adopted, where he / she will have the opportunity to identify the areas of study that have the most skill and competence. In this way, students will be awarded according to the domain of these competencies, and areas in which the student has not shown any competence will be discarded.
Drugs of abuse trigger the release of dopamine within our brain, which allows the user to experience a temporary feeling of pleasure.a. Trueb. False
Answers
True. Drugs of abuse trigger the release of dopamine within our brain, which allows the user to experience a temporary feeling of pleasure.
What do you mean by Drug abuse?
Drugs abuse is defined as substances that are taken for non-medical purposes, and in amounts or in a manner that can lead to physical and/or psychological harm. These include illegal drugs such as cocaine, heroin, and marijuana, as well as prescription drugs taken for non-medical purposes such as painkillers and sedatives.
What is Dopamine?
Dopamine is a neurotransmitter that helps regulate movement, emotion, motivation, and pleasure in the brain. It is involved in many important functions, including reward-motivated behavior, such as learning and memory formation. Low levels of dopamine may be associated with depression and other mood disorders.
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The over-the-counter weight loss drug Alli contains the same drug as the prescription weight-loss drug Xenical, but at a lower dose
True
False
Answers
Answer:
I think its false
Explanation:
The nurse in the labor and delivery unit is performing a focused assessment on a client who is 2 hours postpartum. Assessment reveals a headache 3 out of 10 on a scale of 0 to 10. Vital signs: temperature, 99. 1°f (37. 3°c); heart rate, 101 beats/min; blood pressure, 87/58 mm hg; capillary refill time, less than 3 seconds. Client reports a small gush of blood the first time out of bed to ambulate to the bathroom. Three perineal pads have been saturated since birth. Complete the following sentence(s) by choosing from the lists of options
Answers
The correct option is A, Based on the assessment findings, the client may be experiencing postpartum hemorrhage, which is indicated by the small gush of blood and saturation of three perineal pads since birth. The low blood pressure of 87/58 mmHg is also suggestive of hypovolemia, which can occur in postpartum hemorrhage.
Hemorrhage, also known as bleeding, is the abnormal loss of blood from the body. It can occur internally or externally and may be caused by trauma, disease, or a medical condition. Symptoms of hemorrhage vary depending on the location and severity of the bleeding, but can include pain, swelling, redness, and weakness. Treatment for hemorrhage depends on the cause and severity of the bleeding and may include compression, medication, surgery, or blood transfusions.
There are several types of hemorrhage, including arterial, venous, capillary, and petechial. Arterial hemorrhage occurs when blood flows rapidly from an artery and can be life-threatening if not treated promptly. Venous hemorrhage, on the other hand, occurs when blood leaks from a vein and may be slower and less severe than arterial hemorrhage. Capillary hemorrhage involves the slow oozing of blood from small blood vessels, while petechial hemorrhage involves small, pinpoint-sized bleeds under the skin.
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Complete Question:
The nurse in the labor and delivery unit is performing a focused assessment on a client who is 2 hours postpartum. Assessment reveals a headache 3 out of 10 on a scale of 0 to 10. Vital signs: temperature, 99. 1°f (37. 3°c); heart rate, 101 beats/min; blood pressure, 87/58 mm hg; capillary refill time, less than 3 seconds. Client reports a small gush of blood the first time out of bed to ambulate to the bathroom. Three perineal pads have been saturated since birth. Complete the following sentence(s) by choosing from the lists of Options:
a) hemorrhage
b) preeclampsia
c) infection
d) lactation
The rules and regulations for physicians and some other providers can be found in
____________________
Answers
Answer:
medical practice acts
A nurse is reinforcing teaching to a client who has active tuberculosis. Which of the following client statements indicate understanding of the teaching? (Select all that apply.)
Answers
The following client statements indicate understanding of the teaching on active tuberculosis:
I will wash my hands each time I cough.""I will wear a mask when I am in a public area."What is tuberculosis?
Tuberculosis (TB) is a bacterial infection that primarily affects the lungs, but it can also spread to other parts of the body. TB is spread through the air when an infected person coughs or sneezes. It is important for individuals with active TB to understand and follow preventive measures to reduce the risk of transmission to others. These measures include covering the mouth and nose when coughing or sneezing, avoiding close contact with others, taking medications exactly as prescribed.
It is important for the nurse to ensure that the client has a clear understanding of the necessary precautions and measures to prevent the spread of tuberculosis. The nurse should also encourage the client to ask questions and seek clarification on any topics that are unclear.
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Complete question:
A nurse is reinforcing teaching to a client who has active tuberculosis. Which of the following client statements indicate understanding of the teaching? (Select all that apply.)
"I will wash my hands each time I cough.""I will wear a mask when I am in a public area.""I need to cover my mouth and nose when I cough or sneeze.""I will avoid close contact with others to prevent the spread of TB.""I understand that I need to take my medicine exactly as prescribed by my healthcare provider.""I will notify my healthcare provider if I experience any adverse effects from my medication.""I need to stay home from work or school until I have been cleared by my healthcare provider."order for dicloxacillin 50 mg p.o. q6h for a patient who weighs 36 lbs. recommended dose is 12.5 mg/kg/day in equally divided doses q6h. is the dosage safe?
Answers
The prescribed dosage of dicloxacillin is 50 mg p.o. q6h for a patient weighing 36 lbs (16.3296 kg) can be considered safe.
To determine if the dosage of dicloxacillin is safe for the patient, let's calculate the recommended dose based on the patient's weight.
The recommended dose of dicloxacillin is 12.5 mg/kg/day in equally divided doses every 6 hours (q6h).
First, we need to convert the patient's weight from pounds to kilograms. Since 1 pound is approximately 0.4536 kilograms, we can calculate:
Weight in kg = 36 lbs * 0.4536 kg/lb = 16.3296 kg
Now, we can calculate the recommended daily dose:
Recommended daily dose = 12.5 mg/kg/day * 16.3296 kg = 204.12 mg/day
The recommended dose is 12.5 mg/kg/day, so for a 16.4 kg patient, the total daily dose would be 205 mg. This would be divided equally into four doses;
204.12 mg/day / 4 doses = 51.03 mg/dose
Comparing the recommended dose of 51.03 mg/dose to the prescribed dose of 50 mg p.o. q6h, we can see that the prescribed dose is very close to the recommended dose. Therefore, based on the information provided, the prescribed dosage of dicloxacillin is 50 mg p.o. q6h for a patient weighing 36 lbs (16.3296 kg) appears to be within the recommended range of 12.5 mg/kg/day in equally divided doses q6h and can be considered safe.
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You are setting up a sterile tray and have already applied your sterile gloves before you realize you forgot to place the suture package on the tray. You have several options. What are they, and what are the advantages and disadvantages of each?
Answers
Studies abbreviations used in text message to identify the author:
forensic linguist
forensic animator
forensic videographer
forensic artist
Answers
Answer:
forensic linguist
Explanation:
From the available options provided the only individual position that does this would be a forensic linguist. The responsibilities of this position include analyzing language on text or recorded documents. They do this in order to understand and uncover different details within the document that may help law enforcement solve a crime. This also involves studying abbreviations used in text messages to identify the author, what the abbreviation means, in what context it is being used, hidden meanings, etc. All of which can be highly valuable in a criminal case.
Mrs. Brown, a 48-year-old woman, is living with a diagnosis of breast cancer. She has just come into the oncology clinic for her third round of chemotherapy. When asked how she is doing. Mrs. Brown starts speaking about how tired she is and how she is feeling burdened with keeping secrets from her daughter. Mrs. Brown has not told her daughter about her cancer diagnosis because she is afraid of how her daughter might react. Mrs. Brown says she is just barely holding on to things at this time, and she cannot take much more. She is also concerned about the chemotherapy and what she can expect, because the side effects are getting more intense.
Questions!!:
1. what should the nurse initially ask Mrs. Brown?
2.what should the nurse refrain from doing.
3.where does the experience lie for nurse guided by the human becoming theory?
4. How does human becoming theory guide the nurse in caring for their parents?
Answers
Alice is 10 years old and over the past few years has had several fractures even though she is not an active child. A recent blood test indicated that her alkaline phosphatase level was highly elevated. What diagnosis is possible with her history and lab values? What are some treatment options if your diagnosis is correct?
Answers
Answer:
Paget's Disease? Order physical therapy and possibly bisphosphonates
Explanation:
Answer:
This can be treated by Increase in her calcium level
Explanation:
This case shows that alice is experiencing decrease in her calcium level and it is what is leading to these fractures. It is what is causing the increasing alkaline phosphatase. To treat this, calcium carbonate and calcium citrates can be used. Also vitamin d can be used for treatment. SERM modulatotors can be used also as treatment.
what happens in the body when you're sleeping which systems are working
Answers
Answer:
Your pulse, body temperature, breathing, and blood pressure rise to daytime levels. Your sympathetic nervous system, which helps with automatic responses like “fight or flight,” gets very active.