Write a letter to your foreign friend describing your culture
Answers
Answer:
Arabic
Explanation:
im not arabian but arabian culture is a really nice and iconic one
ض
In arabic , this letter represents the arabic languge and history
Mark my answer as brainlist if u liked it.plz
Related Questions
Identify the six major nutrient groups and describe a strategy of how your food service operation would be able to balance them.
Answers
Answer:
protein
carbohydrates
mineral salt
fat and oil
the emts physical examination of the responsive medical patient is usually
Answers
The physical examination conducted by emergency medical technicians (EMTs) on a responsive medical patient typically follows a systematic approach to gathering information about the patient's condition.
While the specific steps and protocols may vary depending on the EMT's level of training and local protocols, here is a general outline of the physical examination process:
1. General impression: The EMT assesses the patient's overall appearance, level of consciousness, and any obvious signs of distress or injury.
2. Vital signs: The EMT measures and records the patient's vital signs, including heart rate, blood pressure, respiratory rate, and oxygen saturation if available.
3. Head and neck examination: The EMT inspects and palpates the head and neck for any abnormalities, tenderness, or swelling. They may also assess the patient's level of consciousness, pupil reactions, and neck range of motion.
4. Chest examination: The EMT listens to the patient's lung sounds using a stethoscope and assesses the patient's breathing effort, symmetry, and any abnormal sounds such as wheezing or crackles.
5. Abdominal examination: The EMT palpates the abdomen to check for tenderness, distention, or other signs of abdominal distress. They may also listen for bowel sounds.
6. Extremities examination: The EMT assesses the patient's arms and legs for any deformities, swelling, or signs of injury. They may also check pulses and assess motor and sensory function.
7. Back examination: If relevant, the EMT may conduct a brief examination of the patient's back for any injuries or tenderness.
8. Skin examination: The EMT inspects the patient's skin for color, temperature, and any signs of rashes, bruises, or other abnormalities.
It's important to note that EMTs have limitations in terms of the depth and scope of their physical examination compared to healthcare providers with higher levels of training, such as doctors or nurses.
EMTs are primarily focused on identifying immediate life threats and providing initial care before transferring the patient to a higher level of medical care.
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which of the following is the normal (average) pulse rate for a preschooler?
Answers
what is a minor's legal limit for the amount of alcohol in the bloodstream?
Answers
The legal limit for alcohol in the bloodstream for minors is typically zero tolerance.
How much alcohol can a minor have in their bloodstream legally?The legal limit for the amount of alcohol in the bloodstream varies depending on the jurisdiction and age group. In many countries, including the United States, the legal limit for minors, typically individuals under the age of 21, is significantly lower than that for adults.
In the United States, most states have a "zero-tolerance" policy for underage drinking and driving, meaning any detectable amount of alcohol in the bloodstream can lead to legal consequences.
This zero-tolerance approach aims to discourage underage drinking and prioritize the safety of young individuals by strictly prohibiting any alcohol consumption while operating a motor vehicle.
It is important for minors to understand and comply with the specific alcohol-related laws in their respective jurisdictions to avoid legal issues and promote responsible behavior.
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how many carrier strike groups (csgs) can possibly deploy within 90 days under the fleet response plan?
Answers
The Fleet Response Plan (FRP) of the United States Navy is designed to have two Carrier Strike Groups (CSGs) ready to deploy within 90 days.
The Fleet Response PlanThe FRP aims to maintain a high state of readiness and provide a rapid response capability by ensuring that at least two CSGs are prepared for deployment at any given time.
However, the deployment plans and capabilities may vary and could be subject to changes based on various factors and strategic considerations.
In other words, information regarding deployment capabilities under the Fleet Response Plan may change as time goes by.
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Which of the following is the only 100% effective method for avoiding sexually transmitted diseases
and unintended pregnancy?
Answers
No sex at all :P
Condoms and surgerys can help prevent it at least 80% of the time, however not having sex at all is the only 100% way at avoiding it
Hope this helps ^^
Answer:
Abstinence - not having sex at all
Explanation:
I don't know what your answer choices are, but this ^ is the only 100% foolproof method.
Seventeen-year-old Charlie Baker was pitching during a high-school baseball game when he suddenly experienced a sharp pain in his right shoulder after striking out a player of the opposing team. Because of his intense pain, the coach sent him to the emergency department at Pearson General Hospital. Charlie explained to the emergency department physician that the pain occurred immediately after he pitched the ball to the batter. He was trying to throw a fastball.
Answers
Charlie Baker is a 17-year-old who experienced a sharp pain in his right shoulder after striking out a player of the opposing team during a high-school baseball game.
His coach, therefore, sent him to the emergency department at Pearson General Hospital. Baker explained to the emergency department physician that the pain occurred immediately after he pitched the ball to the batter. He was trying to throw a fastball.
Most probably, Baker might have had a rotator cuff injury. Rotator cuff injuries are very common among baseball players because of the repetitive motion required by the sport. Rotator cuffs are a group of tendons and muscles that surround the shoulder joint. Their main function is to keep the shoulder joint stable. An injury to the rotator cuff can cause pain, weakness, and a limited range of motion in the affected shoulder. The pain can be sudden and severe, just like the one Baker experienced.Baker's sudden pain could have also been caused by an acute tear of the shoulder's labrum. The labrum is a rubbery piece of tissue that surrounds the socket of the shoulder joint. A tear in the labrum can cause shoulder pain and instability. A thorough medical evaluation, including imaging, would be required to determine the extent of Baker's injury and the best course of treatment.
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Find your Target Ceiling. MHR x .90 = Target Ceiling Show your calculations.
Answers
162 beats per minute
Step by step solved:
To find the target ceiling, we need to multiply the maximum heart rate (MHR) by 0.90. The formula can be expressed as:
Target Ceiling = MHR x 0.90
Let's say that the person's MHR is 180 beats per minute. We can substitute this value into the formula and solve:
Target Ceiling = 180 x 0.90
Target Ceiling = 162
Therefore, the target ceiling for this person is 162 beats per minute.
The school health clinic treats common health problems, as well as conducting health promotion and illness prevention activities. The clinic provides which level of health care?.
Answers
The clinic presents 0.33 degree of health care.
The third level of the health care gadget is the company that provides infrastructure and different complementary assets to support the work and improvement of care groups and microsystems.
In a few nations, there are 3 levels of healthcare: primary, secondary and tertiary. however in some evolved international locations, some other tier known as quaternary consequences in 4 tiers of healthcare. Healthcare structures have the purpose of improving the fitness status of the population.
Ailment prevention differs from health promotion because it makes a speciality of precise efforts geared toward lowering the improvement and severity of chronic diseases and other morbidities. wellbeing is related to health care and sickness prevention.
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Briefly explain the scope of the Occupational Safety and Health
Act.
Answers
The Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSH Act) is a U.S. federal law enacted in 1970 that aims to ensure safe and healthy working conditions for employees.
It establishes the legal framework for occupational safety and health in the United States and is administered by the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA). The OSH Act covers most private sector employers and their workers, as well as some public sector employers and workers, in all 50 states and certain U.S. territories.
The scope of the OSH Act encompasses several key areas. It requires employers to provide a workplace that is free from recognized hazards that could cause serious harm or death to employees. It sets standards for safety and health, covering areas such as hazard communication, personal protective equipment, machinery guarding, electrical safety, and more. The OSH Act also mandates that employers keep records of work-related injuries and illnesses and provides protections for whistleblowers who report unsafe conditions or violations.
Furthermore, the OSH Act empowers OSHA to conduct workplace inspections, investigations, and enforcement actions to ensure compliance with safety and health regulations. It also encourages employers and employees to work together through training programs, consultation services, and voluntary partnerships to improve workplace safety and health.
In summary, the OSH Act establishes a comprehensive framework for promoting and enforcing workplace safety and health standards, aiming to protect workers from hazards and ensure their well-being on the job.
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8.) The doctor writes an order for an IV bolus. The order says to administer 20 mg IV BID. You're
supplied with a vial that is labeled 40mg/ml. How many ml will the patient receive DAILY (NOT
per dose)?
Answers
That's 40 milligrams each day if the dosage is 20 mg BID. That is 1 mL per day at 40 mg/mL.
What is drug?Drug is defined as anything (apart from food) that is used to cure or relieve the symptoms of an illness or other abnormal state. In addition to altering how the brain and the rest of the body work, drugs may also have an affect on mood, consciousness, thoughts, feelings, or behavior. The advantages of utilizing medications include the positive effects you experience, such as lowering blood pressure, treating infections, or reducing pain.
The word "drug dose" refers to the selection and control of the quantity, frequency, and frequency of administration of a certain quantity of medication. All pharmacokinetic models used for customized drug dosing include the drug dose as a significant variable, and the precision of this variable is essential for the interpretation of TDM results.
Thus, that's 40 milligrams each day if the dosage is 20 mg BID. That is 1 mL per day at 40 mg/mL.
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Yessina has decided to become a vegetarian, but she is worried that she will not get enough protein because that is found in meat. What is the BEST
response to Yessina?
O A.
She will need to eat meat to have balanced diet.
O B. Carbohydrates are generally found in meat, not protein
O c. Protein is not an essential micronutrient so it is not important.
n D
She can get protein from other sources like beans or peanut butter.
Reset
Next
Answers
Answer:
D
Explanation:
There are many other foods out there that are high in proteins, such as nuts. Nuts are one of the foods with high levels of protein.
which of the following is the best example of a critical thinking strategy in action? A.After missing the first ten minutes of class, you resolve to print off all of the lecture notes for next time.
B.After realizing you watched a full movie every night for the past 5 days, you decide to watch TV shows from now on instead.
C.You ask yourself before opening your biology notes, "What did I learn in class, and how does that apply?"
Answers
Critical thinking strategy involves the skills and techniques used in critical thinking. The use of these skills helps to solve problems, develop sound arguments, and make informed decisions. In this context, critical thinking is the ability to analyze, evaluate, and interpret information in a logical and coherent manner.
Therefore, option C is the best example of a critical thinking strategy in action. Critical thinking strategies are important because they help to develop a rational, logical approach to problem-solving. The ability to think critically is essential in many fields, including biology. When studying biology, critical thinking is essential as it requires you to evaluate, analyze, and interpret information.
Therefore, asking yourself questions like "What did I learn in class, and how does that apply?" before opening your biology notes is a critical thinking strategy that helps to identify the key concepts that you need to understand to solve problems related to biology. In conclusion, the best example of a critical thinking strategy in action is option C, where you ask yourself questions to guide your learning and problem-solving.
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2. What percentage of illnesses are linked to stress? 0 10-20 percent O 50-70 percent O 20-30 percent 40-60 percent
Answers
Answer:
50-70
Explanation:
I chose 20-30 and it was wrong, my lesson says this "Stress is linked to 50 to 70 percent of ALL illnesses!"
Why is power important in basketball and what are some examples..
Answers
Answer:
Power is a combination of strength & speed: Muscular Power = Strength x Speed. In basketball activities, power can be seen when an athlete jumps and is also in the explosive acceleration needed in transition. ... This can be overall speed of a player when sprinting or hand speed when a player is trying to steal a ball.
Explanation:
i hoped this helped!
p.s it would be cool if you gave me brainliest.
A nurse is assessing a newborn's temperature. which reading would the nurse document as normal?
Answers
37.0° C or 98.6° F is normal newborn temperature.
What is the newborn temperature?The normal range for a newborn baby's temperature is typically between 96.8 and 100.3 degrees Fahrenheit, with 98.6 degrees Fahrenheit serving as the average. If your baby's temperature rises over this threshold, to more than 100.4 degrees Fahrenheit, they have a fever. If the reading was obtained using the rectal approach, this is especially true.
The temperature of a baby can be taken in a number of ways. Despite the differences, each value is significant in its own right. Here are a few methods for taking your temperature:
- Temporal artery
- rectum
- Axillary/underarm
- Oral
- Tympanic
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Why do humans have hair?
Answers
Explanation:
Aside from being good for raising, furrowing, and piercing, the hair there keeps the sweat out of your eyes. And the hair on your head shields your noggin from the direct force of the sun. It also leaves an area of air between your scalp and hair's hot surface, so sweat can evaporate and cool things down.
While humans have developed clothing and other means of keeping warm, the hair found on the head serves primarily as a source of heat insulation and cooling (when sweat evaporates from soaked hair) as well as protection from ultra-violet radiation exposure. The function of hair in other locations is debated.
initial of cardiorespiratory endurance
Answers
The initial of cardiorespiratory endurance is "C".
What is cardiorespiratory endurance?
Cardiorespiratory endurance, also known as aerobic fitness, is the ability of the body's circulatory and respiratory systems to supply oxygen to the muscles during prolonged physical activity.
Cardiorespiratory endurance is a measure of how well the heart, lungs, and blood vessels work together to transport oxygen to the working muscles, allowing them to sustain physical activity for extended periods without becoming fatigued.
Improving cardiorespiratory endurance through regular aerobic exercise can provide numerous health benefits, including reduced risk of cardiovascular disease, improved lung function, and increased overall fitness and energy levels.
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The complete question is below:
What is the initial of cardiorespiratory endurance?
8. In the RICE model, what does Rest mean?
using a sling or crutches to allow the injured limb to heal
no exercise or weight-bearing on the affected limb
total bed rest
light exercise or activity that uses the affected muscle without causing discomfort
Answers
Answer:
using a sling or crutches to allow the injured limb to heal
Answer:
light exercise or activity that uses the affected muscle without causing discomfort
Explanation:
just took the quiz!!
Which is the most likely cause of a kitchen fire?
A. Grease
B. Burned food
C. Faulty gas lines
D. Ovens overheating
Answers
Answer:
A.
Explanation:
Answer:
D
Explanation:
Pots and pans can overheat and cause a fire very easily if the person cooking gets distracted and leaves cooking unattended
Explain the characteristics of Francis Turbine, Kaplan Turbine
and Pelton Turbine
Answers
Answer:
A Francis turbine is a mixed-flow hydraulic turbine.
A Kaplan turbine is a type of axial-flow turbine.
A Pelton turbine is a type of impulse turbine.
Francis Turbine
A Francis turbine is a mixed-flow hydraulic turbine that was developed by James B. Francis.
The characteristics of Francis Turbine are:
It is a reaction turbine with a centrifugal impeller and guide vanes. It has a moderate head and flow rate. The water strikes the blades in a radial direction and then exits axially.
Kaplan Turbine
A Kaplan turbine is a type of axial-flow turbine that was developed by Viktor Kaplan.
The characteristics of Kaplan Turbine are:
It is an axial-flow reaction turbine that is adjustable. It is adaptable for high head and low flow rate applications. The flow rate can be controlled by the adjustable guide vanes. The water enters in the axial direction and exits in the same direction.
Pelton Turbine
A Pelton turbine is a type of impulse turbine that was invented by Lester Allan Pelton.
The characteristics of Pelton Turbine are:
It is a high-speed impulse turbine that operates at low pressure. It is efficient for high head and low flow rates. The water jet strikes the blades in the form of an impulse and then exits. The water jet is directed onto the buckets by a nozzle that is shaped like a converging cone.
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In the seven components of wellness, choose five and provide a scenario for each that will clearly show how one differs from the others
Answers
Answer:
There are five main aspects of personal health: physical, emotional, social, spiritual, and intellectual. In order to be considered "well," it is imperative for none of these areas to be neglected.
Explanation:
Wellness has seven component from which mental, physical, social, financial, and spiritual are few. For the complete wellness of a person, all these components or dimensions should be balanced.
What is Wellness?
Wellness can be generally viewed as having the following seven components or dimensions which include mental, physical, social, financial, spiritual, environmental, and vocational wellness.
All these seven components are interdependent and influence each other and the wellness of a person. When even a single component of well-being is out of balance, the other components are affected which will lead to affect the wellness of a person.
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Which of the following is a benefit of cardio training?
Answers
Answer:
Great for Weight Loss. One of the main reasons why people adopt a cardio exercising routine is because it can help you lose weight
Strengthens Your Heart
Reduces the Risk of Several Diseases
Improves Lung Capacity
Naturally Boosts Energy
Great for Mental Health
Better Sleep
Helps the Immune System.
Explanation:
Health-related fitness components include cardiorespiratory endurance, flexibility, ________, and muscular strength. a agility b balance c body composition d reaction time
Answers
Answer:
A agility is the answer
Answer:
the push up test assesses C.) muscular endurance
Explanation:
FILL IN THE BLANK. tissue rejection after an organ transplant is least likely due to the action of _________.
Answers
Answer:
regulatory T cells
Explanation:
The reason that two MMR vaccines at least a month apart are recommended is:
1. The second dose of MMR "boosts" the immunity built from the first dose.
2. Two vaccines 1 month apart is the standard dosing for all live virus vaccines.
3. If the two MMR vaccine doses are given too close together there is a greater likelihood of severe localized reaction to the vaccine.
4. Only 95% of patients are fully immunized for measles after the first vaccine, with 99% having immunity after two doses of MMR.
Answers
The reason that two MMR vaccines at least a month apart are recommended is that "the second dose of MMR 'boosts' the immunity built from the first dose" and "only 95% of patients are fully immunized for measles after the first vaccine, with 99% having immunity after two doses of MMR." Therefore, both the 1 and 4 options are correct as they explain why two MMR vaccines are recommended.
MMR vaccine (Measles, Mumps, and Rubella) is administered in two doses to protect against these viral infections. The initial dose is given around the first birthday, and the second dose is given between the ages of 4 and 6. It is recommended that these two MMR vaccine doses be given at least one month apart.
The initial dose of the MMR vaccine can protect around 95% of people from measles. As a result, the second dose of MMR is recommended as a booster to the first dose. The second dose can improve and prolong immunity and also protect against the 5% of people who were not protected by the initial dose of the vaccine. Therefore, the first option explains that the second dose of MMR "boosts" the immunity developed from the first dose.
The second option is not accurate as not all live virus vaccines are given in two doses with one-month intervals. Some live virus vaccines, such as the yellow fever vaccine, only require one dose. So, option 2 is incorrect. In addition, giving the two MMR vaccine doses too close together can lead to a severe localized reaction to the vaccine, such as a fever or rash. As a result, it is critical that the two MMR vaccines are given at least one month apart. However, it does not imply that it is the reason for the recommended two doses. So, option 3 is incorrect.
As stated previously, option 4 is correct because only 95% of people are fully protected after the first dose of MMR, with 99% of people having immunity after two doses. Therefore, it is important to administer the second dose to ensure the highest degree of immunity possible.
Therefore, both the 1 and 4 options are correct as they explain why two MMR vaccines are recommended.
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what happens to the children if they have vitamin A deficiency
Answers
Vitamin A deficiency is the cause of preventable blindness in children and increases the risk of disease and death from severe infections such as diarrhoeal disease and measles. Vitamin A deficiency may also occur in women during the last trimester of pregnancy in high risk areas.
Does the outcome of a separation depend on the solvent in which your sample is dissolved before applying the compounds in the following? Explain.
a) TLC
b) GC
c) CC
Answers
Yes, the outcome of a separation does depend on the solvent in which your sample is dissolved before applying the compounds in the following techniques:
a) TLC (Thin Layer Chromatography) - The choice of solvent affects the degree of separation and the movement of compounds on the stationary phase. A suitable solvent provides an appropriate balance between the solubility of the compounds and their interaction with the stationary phase.
b) GC (Gas Chromatography) - While the sample is vaporized and not in a solvent during GC separation, the initial solvent used can impact the ease of vaporization and the efficiency of the process. Choosing a suitable solvent can enhance the separation and detection of analytes.
c) CC (Column Chromatography) - The choice of solvent plays a significant role in CC, as it influences the interaction between the compounds and the stationary phase. The selection of the correct solvent helps to optimize the separation and elution of the target compounds from the column.
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Which strategies are effective in dealing with bullying and harassment? Check all that apply.
Act aggressively or passively.
Practice mutual respect in relationships.
Develop positive relationships with family.
Avoid people who are being bullied.
Avoid disrespectful and threatening people and groups.
Practice tolerance of others, and encourage friends to do the same.
Create a personal plan to deal with bullying and harassment.
Answers
Answer:
Practice mutual respect in relationships.
Develop positive relationships with family. Avoid disrespectful and threatening people and groups.
Practice tolerance of others, and encourage friends to do the same.
Explanation:
Here are some effective strategies for dealing with bullying and harassment: Practice mutual respect in relationships, Develop positive relationships with family, Practice tolerance of others, and encourage friends to do the same and Create a personal plan to deal with bullying and harassment
Unwelcome behavior on the basis of race, color, religion, sex (including sexual orientation, gender identity, or pregnancy), national origin, older age (starting at 40), disability, or genetic information (including family medical history) is considered harassment.
Messages that are obscene or sexual. sending explicit or sexually explicit messages, images, or texts. Conversational references to sexuality. physical contact, such as rubbing, touching, or hugging, that is unwelcome or unwarranted.
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A document or file that has a present format
Answers
A type of document or file that has a present format and can be used in a presentation is a PowerPoint file.
What is powerpoint ?PowerPoint, developed by Microsoft, is widely used for making slide-based presentations in various settings such as business and education. Texts, images, videos, animations, and multimedia components are some examples of its features that help speakers to effectively communicate ideas and make convincing arguments.
The application saves files with either .ppt or .pptx extension which can be presented or edited easily on the same or another computer where PowerPoint has been installed.
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