These Rh antibodies are able to pass the placenta and assault the blood of the unborn child.
The mother's body will actually behave as though she is allergic to her own child. The baby's red blood cells will be effectively broken down if the mother's Rh antibodies assault it while it is still in the womb, which could cause life-threatening anemia.
Because of this, your first pregnancy will not be harmed by being Rh negative. However, if your subsequent child has Rh-positive blood, the antibodies you developed when you were exposed to it during your first pregnancy may cross the placenta and attack the Rh-positive red blood cells. If the mother has an immune system that is Rh-negative, it will view the fetal cells that are Rh-positive as a foreign substance.
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8. According to the National Center on Elder Abuse, family members
account for a small percentage of abuse against elders.
_True False
Answer:
True
Explanation:
According to the structural model of health behavior, what are the four categories of environmental factors that are critical to shaping health behaviors
Answer:
mind set,
thinking
depression
negative
The availability of protective or hazardous consumer items, physical structures (or product physical attributes), social structures and regulations, media and cultural messaging, and physical structures are all considered to have a significant role in influencing health habits.
What are health behaviors?This psychological paradigm holds that each person has three components, or divisions, called the id, ego, and superego. It is often referred to as a structural hypothesis or approach.
Among the various actions that fall under the category of "health behaviors" include smoking, substance use, food, and physical exercise.
Therefore, sleep, hazardous sexual conduct, seeking out medical care, and following through on prescribed treatments.
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Are tranquilizers used to relieve anxiety and tension?
A medication that is used to treat mental disorders such as anxiety, dread, tension, and agitation. There are two primary categories of tranquilizers: major and minor.
An example of a protective measure as a relief valve for corporal stress is Group of answer choices A prescribed pain-killer A seatbelt A Band-Aid All of the above
Answer: Painkillers
Explanation:
A: Painkillers. Don't take painkillers without a doctor's knowledge! Small amounts ARE fine, but sometimes people don't understand what "small" is, and that's how overdose happens. Always follow the directions with Tylenol and such. Always be careful when taking OTC drugs, and if you feel that anything is wrong, contact a doctor immediately. If slightly severe, call the non emergency line. If severe, call 911.
B: Seatbelt. Used for prevention, not for curing.
C: A band-aid. Used for small scale injuries and usually used with antibodies or such to prevent infection.
D: No.
Which abbreviation represents a certified laboratory professional?
CCU
CLIA
MLS
RN
Answer:
CCU means Coronary Care Unit
CLIA means Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments
MLS means Medical Laboratory Scientist
RN Registered Nurse
Out of all those options MLS is the answer.
Which of the following statements best defines a construct: Question 3 options: a) Operationalized components of a particular theory b) Systematic view of events that specifies relations among variables c) A model of health behavior change that integrates multiple theories d) Theories that apply to a specific problem, audience, and context
Operationalized components of a particular theory statements best defines a construct. Thus, the correct option is A.
What is Operationalization?Operationalization is defined as the process by which researchers conducting quantitative research spell out accurately how a concept will be measured.
For example, if an unobservable theoretical construct such as socioeconomic status is refer to as the level of family income, it can be operationalized using an indicator which asks respondents the question such as what is your annual family income?
Because social science notions are rife with subjectivity and imprecision, We usually use numerous indicators to measure most of those constructs (with the exception of a few demographic constructs like age, gender, education, and income). This method allows us to analyze the accuracy of these indicators by looking at how near they are to one another (reliability).
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Congenital Galactosemia typically appears only in infants because with maturation, most children develop another enzyme capable of metabolizing galactose. Its incidence is about 1 per 18,000 births. If the infant does not receive treatment then there is a 75% chance of death. Thus, in the United States infants are screened for galactosemia. Galactosemia can be confused with lactose intolerance but galactosemia is a considerably more serious condition because consumption of galactose can cause permanent damage to their bodies. What dietary changes should be made
Answer: The dietary changes that should be made is that milk and milk containing products should be avoided in diets.
Explanation:
Congenital Galactosemia is an autosomal recessive disorder due to galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase(Gal-1-PUT).
Galactose is necessary for the formation of cerebrosides, of some glycoproteins and , during lactation, of milk. Excess is rapidly converted into glucose by Gal-1-PUT. The symptoms of galactosemia only become apparent if the infant is taking milk or milk containing products. This will lead to a rise in plasma galactose concentration.
Its incidence is about 1 per 18,000 births. Since it's a condition that occurs at or before birth, infants are screened by identification of galactose with thin layer chromatography and by demonstrating a deficiency of Gal-1-PUT activity in erythrocytes.
If the infant does not receive treatment then there is a 75% chance of death. Therefore, dietary changes should be made which is that milk and milk containing products should be avoided in diets.
A patient is prescribed Keflex 0.5 g by mouth twice a day for 7 days. How many capsules should be
provided for the entire week if each table contains 500 mg/capsule?
Answer:
Keflex 0.5 g is equivalent to 500 mg. The patient is prescribed 500 mg twice a day for 7 days, which is a total of 14 doses. Since each capsule contains 500 mg, the patient will need 14 capsules for the entire week.
Answer:
To determine the number of capsules needed for the entire week, we need to calculate the total dosage required and divide it by the dosage strength per capsule.
The patient is prescribed Keflex 0.5 g (or 500 mg) by mouth twice a day for 7 days. Therefore, the total dosage required for the week is:
Total dosage = Dosage per dose × Number of doses per day × Number of days
Total dosage = 0.5 g × 2 × 7 = 7 g
Since each capsule contains 500 mg (0.5 g), we can calculate the number of capsules needed by dividing the total dosage by the dosage strength per capsule:
Number of capsules = Total dosage / Dosage per capsule
Number of capsules = 7 g / 0.5 g = 14 capsules
Therefore, for the entire week, 14 capsules should be provided.
Catapres(R) decreases stimulation of the GI tract and acts as a mild sedative. It is known as the only alpha-receptor drug used to treat
a. Crohn's disease.
b. GERD
c. ulcerative colitis
d. vertigo
Answer:
C. Ulcerative colitis
Explanation:
I calculated it logically
Which of the following is not part of Fick's Law of Diffusion? a. tissue area b. tissue thickness c. tissue elasticity d. difference in gas pressures QUESTION 6 Airflow only depends on the diameter of the airway . True Or False
Tissue elasticity is not part of Fick's Law of Diffusion.
The statement "Airflow only depends on the diameter of the airway" is False.
Tissue elasticity refers to the ability of tissues to deform and then return to their original shape and size when a force is applied and removed. It is a property of biological tissues that allows them to stretch or compress in response to mechanical stress or strain. Elasticity is dependent on the composition and structure of the tissue, including the presence of elastic fibers and the arrangement of collagen fibers.
Fick's Law of Diffusion includes factors such as tissue area, tissue thickness, and the difference in gas pressures to describe the rate of diffusion.
Airflow is influenced by various factors including the diameter of the airway, airway resistance, and pressure differentials. The diameter of the airway is one of the important factors, but it is not the sole determinant of airflow.
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A client is in a metabolic acidosis from severe diarrhea. What assessment finding would be most concerning
A client in a metabolic acidosis from severe diarrhea would have a higher risk of a decrease in blood pH, which is a state of acidosis.
A pH of less than 7.35 is considered to be acidosis. Hence, the assessment finding that would be most concerning would be pH.
What is metabolic acidosis? Metabolic acidosis is a condition that occurs when the body produces too much acid, absorbs too little base, or fails to remove the acid from the body efficiently. A decrease in pH is seen when the amount of acid in the blood rises.
Metabolic acidosis occurs when the body loses too much base or gains too much acid, leading to an excessive accumulation of acid in the body. There are numerous causes of metabolic acidosis, including severe diarrhea that can lead to a decrease in blood pH. In such cases, the assessment finding that would be most concerning would be pH.
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Which pair of structures would provide positive identification of an animal cell under a microscope? NEED HELP ASAP!!!!!
a) the plasma membrane, endoplasmic reticulum
b) Golgi apparatus, mitochondrion
c) cell wall, chromatin
b) lysosome, flagellum
Answer:
b) Golgi apparatus, mitochondrion
Explanation:
Golgi makes it eukaryote
Mitochondria is used in cellular respiration, but plants use a different organelle for that so this one is for animals.
so the answer is B.
2.External jugular vein ends by opening into, *
Internal jugular vein
subclavian vein
Brachiocephalic vein
superior venacava
Answer:
External jugular vein ends by opening into
subclavian vein
Joes manager , Claire , has a very busy week at the warehouse. Joe has been places in finding a room to put all the new deliveries but he has some questions to ask Claire. Which shows he respects her time ? A. emailing clair a long list of questions. B. booking a 10 min meeting to ask the most urgent questions. C. booking a two hour meeting for tmr to discuss all the questions at once D. calling claire after work to discuss his questions
Answer:
B. booking a 10 minute meeting
A 34 pound child with epilesy is prescribed tegretol (carbamazepine) 15 mg/kg/day, taken in four doses/ Tegretol suspension is 100 mg/5ml whats the vollume of one dose of medication?
Answer:
volume = 11.56ml
Explanation:
Composition of Tegretol Suspension = 100mg/5ml
This means that:
100mg = 5ml
1 mg = 5/100 ml
1 mg = 0.05ml
prescribed dosage = 15mg/kg/day
weight of child = 34 pounds
1 pound = 0.4535 kg
∴ 34 pounds = 0.4535 × 34 = 15.419 kg
∴ prescribed dose = 15mg/kg
1kg = 15mg
∴ 15.419kg = 15 × 15.419 = 231.285mg
composition = 100mg/5ml
100mg = 5ml
1 mg = 5/100 = 0.05ml
∴231.285mg = 0.05 × 231.285
= 11.56ml
Vitamins a and d are unlikely to cause toxicities unless taken in amounts ___________ times greater than the dri.
Base on some findings, it is discovered that vitamins a and d are unlikely to cause toxicities unless taken in amounts 5 to 10 times greater than the RDA.
What are vitamins?Vitamins are organic compounds that are gotten from plants which cannot be synthesized by the body but it is needed in small amount for body growth and wellness.
Vitamin A and D are fat soluble vitamins because they are soluble in organic solvent . The sources include potatoes, milk , spinach, cheese and so on. Vitamin A and D have low toxicities but if it is taken in large quantity greater than the daily requirement can be toxic to human health.
Therefore, fat soluble vitamin A and D can be toxic to human body if it is taken in large amount.
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Which one of the following statements is most accurate regarding the guidelines for supervision of a PTA or PT aide in a physical therapy setting?
The most accurate statement regarding the guidelines for supervision of a PTA or PT aide in a physical therapy setting is that PTAs must be supervised by a licensed physical therapist (PT) and PT aides must be supervised by a PT or a PTA.
The most accurate statement regarding the guidelines for supervision of a PTA or PT aide in a physical therapy setting is that PTAs must be supervised by a licensed physical therapist (PT) and PT aides must be supervised by a PT or a PTA. The level of supervision required varies based on state laws and regulations, as well as the complexity of the patient's condition and treatment plan. Generally, PTAs require direct supervision, meaning the PT must be physically present and available to give guidance and direction during the treatment session. PT aides may require indirect supervision, meaning the PT or PTA must be available by phone or other means of communication to answer questions or provide guidance as needed. It is important for the PT to establish clear expectations and guidelines for supervision to ensure patient safety and quality of care.
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Examine the issues surrounding Accident Prevention Use and
Control of hazardous materials.
Accident prevention and the control of hazardous materials are critical issues in ensuring the safety of individuals and the environment. Accident prevention involves implementing measures to minimize the occurrence of accidents, while the control of hazardous materials aims to mitigate the risks associated with their handling and storage.
One key aspect of accident prevention is conducting thorough risk assessments. This involves identifying potential hazards, evaluating the likelihood of accidents occurring, and implementing appropriate control measures. These measures can include training employees on safety protocols, providing personal protective equipment, and implementing engineering controls to minimize exposure to hazardous materials.
The control of hazardous materials involves proper handling, storage, and disposal practices. This includes using appropriate containers, labeling materials correctly, and ensuring that employees are trained in the safe handling and disposal of hazardous substances. It is also important to maintain an inventory of hazardous materials and regularly review and update safety procedures to reflect any changes in regulations or best practices.
Regular inspections and audits are essential to monitor compliance with safety regulations and identify any potential issues or areas for improvement. This can help to ensure that accident prevention measures and the control of hazardous materials are effectively implemented.
Overall, addressing accident prevention and the control of hazardous materials requires a proactive and comprehensive approach. By prioritizing safety, implementing appropriate measures, and regularly reviewing and updating protocols, the risks associated with hazardous materials can be minimized, protecting both individuals and the environment.
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What should be Lewis’s immediate concern and action on hearing the emergency tornado warning announcement?
Answer: His first concern should be that there is a tornado, and that it will be dangerous. He should seek shelter and bring unperishable food. Also he should bring some emergency items for help, like flashlights and a whistle and a blanket.
Explanation:
The shelter will obviously protect him from the tornado, and he may need food if his home is damaged and the city is destroyed.
Answer:
Lewis's immediate concern is that there is a tornado and he should decide what to do. The best choice would be to find shelter either beside a wall with his hands over his head, or to go somewhere that is structurally stable.
Blockage of the _____ can reduce blood supply to the brain, causing a stroke
PHPM 407 507 Health Care Economics and Policy
Medicare was created over the protests of doctors who ultimately have benefited from the increased
health care consumption it fuels.
Undergraduate students should complete the first 4 questions.
1) What sort of market failure existed prior
to 1965 which prevented the free market
for health insurance, from satisfying the
need for the elderly to protect against
the risk of catastrophic health events?
2) Explain how this market failure, would
cause harm to individuals.
3) What government agency or program
exists to try to correct this market
failure?
4) What private sector, industry, or group of
individuals would have a financial
incentive to capture this government
agency?
5) Describe which Hallmarks of Regulatory
Capture you see in this area of health
care. (graduate students only)
1) Prior to 1965, the free market for health insurance failed to adequately address the needs of the elderly in protecting against the risk of catastrophic health events.
2) This market failure caused harm to individuals by exposing them to the risk of incurring exorbitant medical expenses that could potentially deplete their savings or push them into poverty.
3) To address this market failure, the U.S. government established the Medicare program in 1965.
4) In the context of Medicare, the private health insurance industry and healthcare providers have a financial incentive to capture the government agency responsible for administering the program.
5) This dynamic raises concerns about regulatory capture, where private interests can exert undue influence over a government agency meant to serve public interests.
1) Prior to 1965, the free market for health insurance fell short of meeting the needs of the senior population in terms of reducing their chance of experiencing catastrophic medical events. This market failure resulted from a number of issues, including the high costs of geriatric healthcare and the inherent unpredictability and uncertainty of medical expenses as people age.
As a result, obtaining comprehensive health insurance was often difficult or prohibitively expensive for senior people, leaving them at risk of facing severe financial hardship in the case of a serious sickness or accident.
2) Individuals suffered harm as a result of this market failure since it put them at risk of expensive medical bills that would exhaust their resources or force them into poverty. Elderly people faced the possibility of shouldering the full financial burden of catastrophic health events if they did not have access to affordable health insurance options that were tailored to their unique needs. This had negative effects such as inadequate or delayed medical care and higher mortality rates among the elderly population.
3) The Medicare program was developed by the American government in 1965 to solve this market failing. Medicare is a government health insurance program that is primarily intended to cover those over the age of 65 as well as some younger people who have impairments or end-stage renal illness. The government wanted to make sure that seniors had access to inexpensive healthcare and were shielded from the financial risks associated with catastrophic medical events through Medicare.
4) The private health insurance sector and healthcare providers have a financial interest to control the government organization in charge of running Medicare. Healthcare providers have an interest in influencing Medicare reimbursement rates and policies to increase their revenue streams, while the private insurance sector stands to gain by providing supplemental insurance plans that fill in Medicare coverage gaps.
5) The private sector has a financial stake in capturing the Medicare program, including insurance firms and healthcare providers. For their own financial interest, they can sway laws, reimbursement rates, and practices. This situation gives rise to worries about regulatory capture, in which corporate interests can have disproportionate influence over a government agency that is supposed to represent the interests of the public.
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5) Scenario: A 75-year old male patient was admitted to the hospital with respiratory failure secondary to
pneumonia. After several days of being treated with steroids and antibiotics, he has stabilized on 2 liters of oxygen via nasal cannula. He has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), congestive heart failure, hypothyroidism, and rheumatoid arthritis, all of which are currently medically managed.The following medications were prescribed for the patient in the scenario. Which ones are used to treat
COPD? (Select all that apply)
A.)Budesonide (Pulmicort)
B.)Tiotropium (Spiriva)
C.)Indomethacin (Indocin)
D.)Levothyroxine (synthroid)
E.)Spironolactone (aldactone)
The medications used to treat COPD from the given list are:
A.) Budesonide (Pulmicort)
B.) Tiotropium (Spiriva)
How is COPD treated?Tiotropium is a long-acting bronchodilator that helps to open up the airways, making it easier to breathe, whilst Budesonide is an inhaled corticosteroid that aids in reducing inflammation in the airways. These two drugs are frequently used to treat the symptoms of COPD.
Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), such as indomethacin, are frequently used to treat pain and inflammation but not COPD.
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1. As the amount of carbon dioxide (CO2) builds up in your bloodstream:
your blood pH increases and your breathing rate decreases.
your blood pH decreases and your breathing rate decreases.
your blood pH increases and your breathing rate increases.
your blood pH decreases and your breathing rate increases.
Answer:
your blood pH increases and your breathing rate increases.
Explanation:
Patients seeking care at the County General emergency room wait, on average, 8 minutes before seeing the triage nurse who spends, on average, 3 minutes assessing the severity of their problem. The most serious cases are seen first and the less serious often have to wait. On average, the wait time before being taken to the examination room is 110 minutes. In the examination room, a nurse spends about 10 minutes taking vitals and making notes on the patient's condition. The patient then waits for the doctor. This wait averages 13 minutes. Treatment times by the doctor average 21 minutes. Following treatment, patients wait 14 minutes for the nurse to come to discuss the post treatment instructions. It takes about 4 minutes to review with the patient these instructions before they leave. Considering any time spent interacting with a nurse or doctor as value-added time. What is the precent value-added time in a trip to the emergency room? Note: Round your answer as a percentage to 2 decimal places.
The percentage value-added time in a trip to the emergency room is 20.67%.
Value-added time is time spent on patient care, diagnosis, and treatment by healthcare providers. Considering any time spent interacting with a nurse or doctor as value-added time, the percentage value-added time in a trip to the emergency room is as follows:
The total time spent by the patient in the emergency room can be found by adding up the wait time, triage time, time with the nurse, time with the doctor, and time reviewing post-treatment instructions.
Total time = 8 + 3 + 110 + 10 + 13 + 21 + 14 + 4
= 183 minutes or 3.05 hours.
Value-added time = time spent on patient care and treatment
= 3 + 10 + 21 + 4
= 38 minutes or 0.63 hours.
The percentage value-added time in a trip to the emergency room = (Value-added time / Total time) × 100%
= (0.63 / 3.05) × 100%
= 20.66% or 20.67%
(rounded to 2 decimal places).
Therefore, the percentage value-added time in a trip to the emergency room is 20.67%.
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the 22-week prenatal client states, "i feel a pulling type of pain around my belly button." which is the best initial response by the nurse?
The best initial response by the nurse to the 22-week prenatal client who stated, "I feel a pulling type of pain around my belly button" would be to ask the client several follow-up questions to further assess the client's condition. The nurse should ask the client about the severity, frequency, and duration of the pain.
The nurse should also ask if the pain is accompanied by any other symptoms, such as vaginal bleeding, fever, vomiting, or diarrhea. If the client reports any of these symptoms, the nurse should advise the client to seek immediate medical attention. The nurse should reassure the client that mild abdominal discomfort is normal during pregnancy, but it's essential to investigate the pain to determine its cause.
The nurse should educate the client on the potential causes of abdominal pain during pregnancy, including round ligament pain, Braxton-Hicks contractions, and gastrointestinal upset. In conclusion, the best initial response by the nurse to the 22-week prenatal client who stated, "I feel a pulling type of pain around my belly button" would be to ask the client several follow-up questions to further assess the client's condition.
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A fellow nurse warns nancy that the next patient she will be observing is notorious for getting agitated and hard to communicate with. Nancy needs to apply critical thinking techniques to prepare for a discussion with the patient. What's the first step she do?
A. establish a clear, attainable goal for her discussion with the patient.
B. Examine both sides of potential arguments between her and the patient
C. enact a solution she feel her and the patient will benefit from
D. Consider ideas for resolving any forseen conflict with the patient.
Answer:
d
Explanation:
Answer: A
Explanation:
What is a central nervous system depressant drug?
A central nervous system (CNS) depressant drug is a type of drug that slows down the activity of the central nervous system, including the brain and spinal cord.
These drugs can produce a range of effects, including sedation, relaxation, reduced anxiety, and decreased muscle tension. For example: Benzodiazepines: A class of drugs commonly used to treat anxiety, insomnia, and seizure disorders.
Barbiturates: A class of drugs that act as sedatives and hypnotics. They are used for the treatment of seizures, anxiety, and insomnia. Examples include phenobarbital and secobarbital.
Opioids: A class of drugs that are used to manage pain. Examples include oxycodone, hydrocodone, and morphine.
Alcohol: A legal depressant drug that is commonly consumed for its sedative effects.
CNS depressant drugs can be dangerous if misused or combined with other drugs that also depress the central nervous system, such as alcohol. They can cause respiratory depression, which can lead to coma or death.
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Lithia monson93 years old, came to us yesterday with a fall at the nursing home with a suspected subdural hematoma. She seems stable, difficult to determine her level of confusion as she has dementia. She has a bump on her head. Ms. Monson is cooperative, direct-able, and we do not see any changes. Vital signs are stable -temp 97. 2, bp 96/74, p 82, rr 20, sao2 97%. She is oriented with some direction to time and place. Her speech is clear. She did not recognize her son today when he came to see her, but that is not new for her. Q1 hour nuero assessments and we are watching her closely. We have asked the family to stay with her 100% of the time so she does not fall. Strict i
93-year-old Lithia Monson with dementia had a fall and suspected subdural hematoma. Stable condition, frequent neurological assessments, family support to prevent falls.
Lithia Monson, 93 years old, presented with a fall and suspected subdural hematoma. Despite having dementia, she appears stable with vital signs within normal limits. Her level of confusion is challenging to assess due to her condition. Neurological assessments are being conducted every hour, and no significant changes have been observed so far.
Ms. Monson is cooperative and responsive to direction, though she didn't recognize her son, which is not uncommon for her. To ensure her safety, we've requested constant family presence. Close monitoring will continue to promptly address any changes in her condition. The interdisciplinary team is working together to provide appropriate care and support for Ms. Monson's well-being.
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The complete question is:
Lithia monson93 years old, came to us yesterday with a fall at the nursing home with a suspected subdural hematoma. She seems stable, difficult to determine her level of confusion as she has dementia. She has a bump on her head. Ms. Monson is cooperative, direct-able, and we do not see any changes. Vital signs are stable -temp 97. 2, bp 96/74, p 82, rr 20, sao2 97%. She is oriented with some direction to time and place. Her speech is clear. She did not recognize her son today when he came to see her, but that is not new for her.
Q1 hour neuro assessments and we are watching her closely. We have asked the family to stay with her 100% of the time so she does not fall.
how would you modify the hippocratic oath (modern) using an additional principle?
Answer:
I vow to find out what is best for each patient with integrity and professionalism. If I don't, the process of discovery will be a mutual endeavor between myself and others involved with the care plan. That way, we can all work together to make sure every opportunity is utilized in place of a treatment option taken wholly or by default.
I swear to follow steps one through four before making any decision on a course of action without wearing my humanity as a suit that gives me additional insight into this world's most complex human being's frame of mind.
In charity for all those who have been distressed at some time in their life by different aspects they must face up to now or which they'll need to face as they grow older, but especially those near and dear to me.
I'll do my best to communicate with empathy and understanding first and foremost as a guide and let the knowledge of what I know be taken by others as they will.
I'll listen closely so every patient's voice is heard, not just those who shout the loudest or simply aren't quiet at all.
By taking this oath today, I solemnly swear before God as well as myself that no matter which way I turn, where I go from here, what life gives me to face up to now or in the future…..
….that this oath will always guide me in how I treat each person I come into contact with whom needs my help most.
**ANSWER MADE BY AN AI**
Which nursing’s actions are appropriate to the roles/responsibilities of the LPN/LVN?
Answer:
Uses active listening techniques when in- teracting with a depressed patient 2. Reports changes in vital signs to the health care provider in a timely fashion 3. Takes initiative to create a comprehensive care plan for a newly admitted patient 4. Ensures that the correct medication is giv- en to the correct patient at the correct time 5. Collects data from the patient, the family, and previous medical records