Answer:
The virus needs a host.
Explanation:
Viruses are tinier than bacteria. In fact, the largest virus is smaller than the smallest bacterium. All viruses have is a protein coat and a core of genetic material, either RNA or DNA. Unlike bacteria, viruses can't survive without a host. They can only reproduce by attaching themselves to cells. In most cases, they reprogram the cells to make new viruses until the cells burst and die. In other cases, they turn normal cells into malignant or cancerous cells.
Also unlike bacteria, most viruses do cause disease, and they're quite specific about the cells they attack. For example, certain viruses attack cells in the liver, respiratory system, or blood. In some cases, viruses target bacteria.
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M
Individuals with schizophrenia display varying degrees of neurocognitive impairments that are evidenced by which factor? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct.
1 Psychosis
2 Disorganized thinking
3 Substance abuse
4 Disorganized personality
5 Disorganized speech
Schizophrenia is a mental disorder that is characterized by a variety of neurocognitive impairments, including psychosis, disorganized thinking, disorganized personality, disorganized speech, and substance abuse.
Psychosis is characterized by delusions, hallucinations, and altered perceptions of reality. Disorganized thinking involves difficulty organizing thoughts and following logical patterns of thought.
Disorganized personality involves difficulty in controlling emotions, forming relationships, and managing daily activities. Disorganized speech is characterized by difficulties in finding the right words, maintaining a conversation, and understanding what is being said.
Substance abuse is often a symptom of schizophrenia and can manifest as the use of drugs to self-medicate. These neurocognitive impairments can vary in severity from person to person, but they can have a significant impact on a person’s functioning and quality of life.
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"CM" at the end of "ICD" stands for clinical modification.
Select one:
Answer:
The ICD-10-CM (International Classification of Diseases, Tenth Revision, Clinical Modification) is a system used by physicians and other healthcare providers to classify and code all diagnoses, symptoms and procedures recorded in conjunction with hospital care in the United States. It provides a level of detail that is necessary for diagnostic specificity and morbidity classification in the
Which clinical manifestations should the nurse anticipate when providing care to a client who is diagnosed with right-sided heart failure? Select all that apply.Weak pulsesDependent edemaDelayed capillary refillJugular vein distentionWheezes noted on lung auscultation
The clinical manifestations that the nurse should anticipate when providing care to a client with right-sided heart failure include dependent edema, delayed capillary refill, jugular vein distention. Weak pulses and wheezes noted on lung auscultation are not typically associated with right-sided heart failure.
Hi! In a client diagnosed with right-sided heart failure, the nurse should anticipate the following clinical manifestations:
- Dependent edema, Jugular vein distentionThese manifestations are directly related to the decreased function of the right side of the heart, which can cause fluid buildup and increased pressure in the systemic circulation. Weak pulses, delayed capillary refill, and wheezes on lung auscultation are more commonly associated with left-sided heart failure or other conditions.
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although many patients benefit from psychopharmacotherapy, it is important to remember that virtually all medications __________.
Although many patients benefit from psychopharmacotherapy, it is important to remember that virtually all medications have side effects that must be weighed against potential benefits.
The paradigm in the field of psychiatry has changed more drastically than maybe in any other branch of medicine. This change can be attributed to three significant technical and conceptual advancements. First, the enormous progress made in neuroscience research has led to an ever-increasing understanding of how the brain develops, how neural systems work, and how cognition works.
The brain is a remarkable plastic organ that demonstrates both functional and anatomical changes as a result of environmental interactions and even mentation itself, which is perhaps the most convincing revelation pertinent to psychiatric diseases. Second, improvements in brain imaging have made it possible to measure the structure, function, and chemistry of the brain at great resolution. Quantitative morphometry has conclusively shown the atrophy of the hippocampus in major depressive illness and posttraumatic stress disorder, for example, as well as the diffuse cortical pathology of schizophrenia.
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a client with diabetes punctured the foot with a sharp object. within a week, the client developed osteomyelitis of the foot. the client was admitted for iv antibiotic therapy. how long does the nurse anticipate the client will receive iv antibiotics?
The duration of IV antibiotics for osteomyelitis of the foot would depend on the severity of the infection and the type of bacteria causing the infection.
What do you mean by Osteomyelitis?
Osteomyelitis is a bone infection that is caused by bacteria. It is a serious condition that can cause pain, swelling, and inflammation in the affected bone and the surrounding tissue. The infection usually starts in the soft tissue around the bone, and can spread to the bone itself. If left untreated, the infection can cause permanent damage to the bone and the surrounding tissue. Symptoms of osteomyelitis may include fever, redness and pain in the affected area, swelling, and loss of joint movement.
It depends on the severity of the infection, the type of bacteria causing the infection, the client's overall health, and the client's response to the antibiotics. Generally, the client would likely receive IV antibiotics for a minimum of one to two weeks but could need up to six weeks of IV antibiotics.
What do you mean by IV Antibiotics?
IV antibiotics are antibiotics that are administered through an intravenous (IV) line directly into the bloodstream. This method of administration allows the antibiotic to reach the bloodstream quickly and in a more concentrated form than an antibiotic taken orally. IV antibiotics are typically used to treat more serious bacterial infections, such as those that affect the respiratory system, urinary tract, or bloodstream.
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give gantrisin 400 mg im. on hand is a vial labeled 2 g/5 ml. how many mls should you give?
You should give 2 milliliters (ml) of Gantrisin based on the given concentration and desired dosage.
To determine the number of milliliters (ml) of Gantrisin to give, we can use a proportion based on the concentration of the vial and the desired dosage.
Given:
Gantrisin concentration in vial: 2 g/5 ml
Desired dosage: 400 mg
We need to convert the desired dosage from milligrams (mg) to grams (g) for consistency.
Desired dosage: 400 mg = 0.4 g
Now, we can set up the proportion:
2 g / 5 ml = 0.4 g / x ml
Cross-multiplying:
2 g * x ml = 5 ml * 0.4 g
2x = 2 ml
x = 2 ml
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a lung ventilation perfusion scan is another name for__
A lung ventilation perfusion scan is another name for a V/Q scan. the correct answer is option a) V/Q scan.
A V/Q scan is a nuclear medicine imaging test that is used to evaluate the ventilation (airflow) and perfusion (blood flow) in the lungs. It involves the use of a radioactive tracer that is inhaled or injected into the patient. The tracer is then detected by a specialized camera that captures images of the lungs.
During the V/Q scan, the ventilation component assesses the distribution of inhaled air in the lungs, while the perfusion component evaluates the blood flow to different areas of the lungs. This test is commonly used to diagnose pulmonary embolism, a condition characterized by a blood clot in the lungs.
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Complete Question
A lung ventilation perfusion scan is another name for:
a) V/Q scan
b) CT scan
c) PET scan
d) MRI scan
The
peripheral nervous system (PNS) connects to the brain and spinal
cord by 12 pairs of cranial nerves and 31 pairs of spinal nerves .
What is the ratio of cranial nerves to the total number of nerve
The ratio of cranial nerves to the total number of nerves in the peripheral nervous system is 12:43.
For 12 pairs of cranial nerves, there are 31 spinal nerve pairs, a total of 43 paired nerves together forming the peripheral nervous system.
PNS has both cranial and spinal nerves. 12 pairs of cranial nerves connect directly to the brain, and 31 pairs of spinal nerves emerge from the spinal cord. Together 12 + 31 = 43, so there are 43 total nerves in PNS.
To calculate the ratio:
divide the no of cranial nerves by the total pair of nerves
12(cranial nerves)/43(total nerves)
12/43
The ratio is 12:43
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The ratio of cranial nerves to the total number of nerves in the peripheral nervous system (PNS) is 12:43.
The peripheral nervous system consists of two main components: the cranial nerves and the spinal nerves. The cranial nerves are a set of 12 pairs of nerves that directly connect the brain to various parts of the head, neck, and upper body. These nerves emerge from the base of the brain and are responsible for functions such as vision, hearing, taste, smell, facial expressions, and motor control of the head and neck.
On the other hand, the spinal nerves are a set of 31 pairs of nerves that originate from the spinal cord and extend to different regions of the body. These nerves control sensation, movement, and organ function in the torso and lower body.
When considering the ratio of cranial nerves to the total number of nerves in the PNS, we add the 12 pairs of cranial nerves to the 31 pairs of spinal nerves, resulting in a total of 43 pairs of nerves. Therefore, the ratio of cranial nerves to the total number of nerves is 12:43.
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Review the 4 cases below. Pose the potential condition/s. Consider how a psychologist would analyze the situations. What questions would each ask? What would each be interested in observing? What type of treatment would each be likely to suggest? Choose from the treatment options listed in your book to develop treatment programs for these individuals based on their situations. Elaborate on your responses and include your reasoning for your answers.
Case #11 – Avery. A 32-year-old woman and a high-powered stock broker, Avery is frustrated by her inability to quit smoking. She has tried several times and has been successful for brief periods, but she always starts smoking again when her life becomes stressful.
Case #4 – Margo. Margo, 28, has been experiencing periods of extreme sadness which makes it difficult for her to cope with life, coupled with extreme anxiousness about literally everything. She experiences panic attacks about driving, going to certain stores, doing her banking, and various other daily life activities. These periods are followed by times where she feels she is bursting with energy and is on top of the world.
Case #1 – Edward. Edward, 53, has been having difficulty since a car accident which killed his wife and three children two years ago. He has difficulty in day-to-day activities, and has been questioning his very existence. He has stopped going to work, lost his home, and has been staying with his elderly parents, unable to return to the house that reminds him of his former life.
Case #10 – George. In his mid-thirties, George finds that he is having difficulty establishing an intimate relationship with the woman he is dating. He cares for her and would someday like to get married, but he is reluctant to make a commitment.
A. Case #: Case #11 – Avery
Considerations:
Possible Diagnosis/diagnoses:
Recommendations for treatment (include multiple treatment approaches):
B. Case #: Case #4 – Margo
Considerations:
Possible Diagnosis/diagnoses:
Recommendations for treatment (include multiple treatment approaches):
C. Case #: Case #1 – Edward.
Considerations:
Possible Diagnosis/diagnoses:
Recommendations for treatment (include multiple treatment approaches):
D. Case #: Case #10 – George
Considerations:
Possible Diagnosis/diagnoses:
Recommendations for treatment (include multiple treatment approaches):
Psychological follow-up is nothing more than seeking an emotional balance to deal with the work routine and life's obstacles.
A. Case #: Case # 11 - AveryConsiderations: compulsive smokerPossible diagnoses/diagnoses: nicotine addictionRecommendations for treatment (include various treatment approaches): follow-up and nicotine treatmentB. Case nº: Case nº 4 - MargoConsiderations: need psychiatric follow-upPossible diagnoses/diagnoses: bipolarRecommendations for treatment (include various treatment approaches): anti-bipolarsC. Case #: Case #1 – Edward.Considerations: need psychiatric follow-upPossible diagnoses/diagnoses: post-traumatic depressionRecommendations for treatment (include various treatment approaches): follow-up and anti-aciolyticsD. Case nº: Case nº 10 - GeorgeConsiderations: need psychiatric follow-upPossible diagnoses/diagnoses: affectivity disorderRecommendations for treatment (include various treatment approaches): follow-up and anti-aciolytics.With this information, we can conclude that During psychological counseling, what you should do is just be yourself without worrying about judgments or invasion of privacy.
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Stacy, one of your coworker's friends, is admitted to the hospital. You accidentally see your coworker reviewing Stacy's medical file to determine why Stacy was admitted to the hospital. Your coworker is a secretary who works in the same hospital, so she has no need to locate this information. What would you do?
You will definitely inform your coworker that she is violating the hospital policies, patient's rights, and HIPAA rule of medical healthcare.
What are the patient's rights?According to the patient's right, no one is legally authorized to go through or read a medical file without the proper consent of a particular patient.
Hospital policies may also deal with the same aspects of the patient's rights. Anyone is not allowed to read or visit any documented medical file or test reports of the patient secretly.
Therefore, it is well described above.
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A client is prescribed a histamine (h2)-receptor antagonist. the nurse understands that this might include which medication(s)? select all that apply.
A client is prescribed a histamine (h2)-receptor antagonist. This nurse understands that this include the H2 blockers
Generally, H2 blockers simply refers to those groups of medications used to reduce the amount of acid produced by the cells in the lining of the stomach.
HealthcareHealthcare can simply be defined as an organized medical care given to a person, organization or even a community either by a doctor, nurse or any other licensed healthcare professional
However, healthcare-associated Infections, are those infections patients can get during their treatment for another condition due to bacteria, viruses, fungi, and other pathogens.
And for a good reason, the fundamental purpose of healthcare is to enhance healthy living and quality of life by giving quality healthcare services.
So therefore, a client is prescribed a histamine (h2)-receptor antagonist. This nurse understands that this include the H2 blockers
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Which are lung conditions? Check all that apply.
silicosis
Obyssinosis
anthracosis
sleep apnea syndromes
Cheyne-Stokes respiration
dyspnea
Answer:
all of the above
Explanation:
your welcome my dawg
Answer:
1 silicosis
2 byssinosis
3 anthracosis
Explanation:
the head nurse and a staff nurse are having a conflict over how to use and apply a new procedure for dressings in the medical/surgical area. the staff nurse wishes to use the new procedure based on newly released nursing research. the head nurse wishes to use a protocol that has been used in the department for a number of years. the head nurse later makes comments to other staff on her unit about the credibility of the staff nurse. this behavior is associated with: the head nurse and a staff nurse are having a conflict over how to use and apply a new procedure for dressings in the medical/surgical area. the staff nurse wishes to use the new procedure based on newly released nursing research. the head nurse wishes to use a protocol that has been used in the department for a number of years. the head nurse later makes comments to other staff on her unit about the credibility of the staff nurse. this behavior is associated with: lateral violence. horizontal violence. confrontation. bullying.
Bullying involves aggressive or destructive behavior or psychological harassment of a recipient who is in facture a position of power differential with the perpetrator.
What does psychological mean?adjective. of or relating to psychology. The act or manner of making or doing anything, pertaining to the mind or to mental phenomena as the subject matter of psychology. of, pertaining to, dealing with, or affecting the mind, especially as a function of awareness, feeling, or motivation: psychological play;psychological effect.
What is nature of psychology?The Nature of Psychology- Psychology is the scientific study and practical application of observable behavior and mental processes of organisms.a literary, musical, or pictorial production. Psychology differs from other social sciences such as: Sociology, History, or Economics, because psychology specifically deals with the study of an individual.
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The doctor writes an order to infuse a solution. The order reads: “Infuse 500 mL bag at 20 gtt/min”. The drip factor is 10 gtt/mL. You start the IV infusion at 0500. At what time will the infusion be complete?
Answer:
08:45
Explanation:
you need 2 ml/min to attain 20 ggt/min
500 ml / 2 ml/min = 225 min
0500 + 225 min = 08:45
The doctor writes an order to infuse a solution. The order reads: “Infuse 500 mL bag at 20 gtt/min”. The drip factor is 10 gtt/mL time will the infusion be complete is 08:45 min.
What is the Infuse 500?It is a surprisingly powerful antibiotic that works towards a whole lot of bacteria. Levoflox 500 Infusion one hundred ml is utilized in a whole lot of bacterial infections most significantly acute pneumonia (Lung infection), bronchitis (Inflammation of lung passages), pores and skin infections, in addition to urinary tract infection.
you want 2 ml / l min to reap 20 ggt / m in500ml / 2 * ml / m * in = 225min0500 + 225min = 08:45 min08:45 min.Read more about the infuse solution:
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A client returns to the telemetry unit after an operative procedure. Which diagnostic test will the nurse perform to monitor the effectiveness of the oxygen therapy ordered for the client?.
The nurse will perform pulse oximetry to monitor the effectiveness of the oxygen therapy ordered for the client.
What is pulse oximetry?The oxygen saturation level of your blood can be measured with a non-invasive procedure called pulse oximetry.
It can quickly identify even minute variations in oxygen levels. These levels demonstrate how well blood transports oxygen to your arms and legs, which are the extremities that are farthest from your heart. It looks like a little clip and is called a pulse oximeter. It fastens to a body component, usually a finger.
Pulse oximetry is helpful for postoperative patients, monitoring individuals at risk for hypoxia, titrating oxygen therapy, and monitoring patients receiving oxygen therapy.
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A heart attack is a medical condition that can be diagnosed with the use of an electrocardiogram (ECG) and cardiac enzyme blood tests. The heart attack is best described as:
A heart attack is best described as the occurrence of myocardial infarction. The heart attack results from a blockage in one of the coronary arteries.
Myocardial infarction, often referred to as a heart attack, is a life-threatening event. It occurs as a result of a complete blockage of blood flow to a section of the heart. This blockage usually results from a buildup of plaque in the coronary arteries that supply blood to the heart.The diagnosis of a heart attack includes electrocardiogram (ECG) and cardiac enzyme blood tests.
ECGs record the electrical activity of the heart. Cardiac enzymes are released into the blood following heart damage and can help identify whether or not a heart attack has occurred.A heart attack is best described as the occurrence of myocardial infarction. The heart attack results from a blockage in one of the coronary arteries. The blockage disrupts the normal blood supply to the heart, which can result in damage to the heart muscle and, in some cases, death.
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quizlet which term should the nurse use to describe a patient's nonspecific response to noxious stimuli stressor
The nurse should use the term "general adaptation syndrome" (GAS) to describe a patient's nonspecific response to noxious stimuli stressor.
General adaptation syndrome (GAS) is a concept developed by the Canadian endocrinologist Hans Selye in the 1930s. It describes the body's general response to stress, which includes three stages: the alarm stage, the resistance stage, and the exhaustion stage. During the alarm stage, the body reacts to the stressor by activating the sympathetic nervous system, which increases heart rate and breathing rate. The adrenal glands also release adrenaline and cortisol to help the body cope with the stressor.
In the resistance stage, the body continues to try to cope with the stressor, and the parasympathetic nervous system attempts to restore balance. This stage can last for an extended period of time, and the body may start to adapt to the stressor.
Finally, during the exhaustion stage, the body can no longer cope with the stressor, and physiological resources are depleted. If the stressor continues, the body may be at risk for developing physical or mental health problems.
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What are the possible consequences of maintaining the ban on asbestos?
Which of these methods measures fetal hemoglobin or D positive red cells or both to evaluate fetomaternal hemorrhage?
a) Rosette test
b) Kleihauer-betke
c)flow cytometry
d) AHG testing
The rosette test is an FMH screening test that finds fetal D+ red cells in mother's blood that is Rh negative.
In the rosette test, maternal blood is combined with a reagent that contains anti-D as a quick, qualitative tool to help for FMH. D+ "indicator" red cells are introduced after extra anti-D has been removed by washing; these cells will form rosettes surrounding antibody-coated, D+ embryonic red cells. The Rh-negative pregnant venous whole blood test is incubated without anti-Rho(D) immune globulin to conduct the rosette test. Since the maternal cells do not express Rho(D), they are not linked to the anti-Rho(D). A successful KB test indicates fetal blood is present in the mother's bloodstream. The KB test has a 5 mL sensitivity limit, therefore a fetomaternal hemorrhage between the circulation of the pregnant woman and the fetus less than 5 mL may go undetected.
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An adult intravenous dose of zidovudine is 2 mg/kg every four hours six times daily. How many mg will a 180-pound patient receive daily?
Answer:
654.5 mg a day if given QID and 981.8mg if given q4h
Explanation:
What are two common treatments for retinal detachment?.
The two common treatments for retinal detachments are : Freeze treatment (cryopexy) or laser surgery.
what is retina ?
The light-sensitive layers of nerve tissue at the back of the eye that receive images and sends them as electric signals through the optic nerve to the brain
Cryotherapy is a treatment for repairing retinal detachments and retinal tears by freezing the retina back into its correct position. Cryotherapy creates an adhesive scar that seals the retina against the back wall of the eye so that the detachment or tear can begin healing.
The doctor will seal the retina around the tear by placing laser spots around the hole, which then forms scar tissue acting like a barrier to prevent the retina from detaching.
This procedure is called a laser retinopexy. It usually takes about 14 days for the scar tissue to develop.
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TRUE/FALSE. the intensity of scatter in various directions is a major factor in the planning of protection for medical imaging personnel during a radiologic examination.
True, The intensity of scatter in various directions is a major factor in the planning of protection for medical imaging personnel during a radiologic examination.
Scatter radiation is produced when primary x-rays collide with tissues in the patient and are deflected in different protection directions. This scattered radiation can contribute significantly to the overall radiation exposure of personnel in the room during a radiologic examination. The intensity of scatter radiologic examination depends on the energy and direction of the primary x-rays, the patient's anatomy. The intensity of scatter radiation is a major factor that must be considered in the planning of protection for medical imaging personnel, as it radiologic examination determines the amount and direction of scatter that must be shielded.
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Hyperglycemia in individuals with diabetic neuropathy leads to the inhibition of pyruvate dehydrogenase complex in the dorsal root ganglion. Which additional process will be inhibited in the dorsal root ganglion under conditions that cause diabetic neuropathy? A) the glyoxylate cycle B) lactic acid fermentation C) the citric acid cycle D) glycolysis
Answer: (C) The citric Acid Cycle
Explanation:
Night blindness is caused by interference of cone function and vitamin A deficiency.
Answer:
if this is a true or false question, it is true
if you were telling us that thanks for the information
hope I was able to help you and others :)
Explanation:
evaluation of unanticipated adverse device effects (uades) must be reported to the fda by the:
In event of the evaluation of unanticipated adverse device effects, they must be reported to the FDA by the sponsor.
What is the FDA?The FDA is the acronym for the Food and Drug Administration. This agency is in charge of the process of production and approval of foods and drugs in the United States.
In event of the evaluation of unanticipated adverse device effects, they must be reported to the FDA by the sponsor.
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How to fear no one
How to be scared of anyone but God?
Answer:
Identify your fears: Understanding what scares you is the first step in overcoming it.Face your fears: Once you have identified your fears, try to face them gradually. Start with small steps and gradually work your way up to bigger challenges.Practice mindfulness: Mindfulness can help you stay present in the moment, reducing anxiety and fear.Challenge negative thoughts: Fear is often the result of negative thoughts. Practice challenging these thoughts and replacing them with positive ones.Seek support: Talking to a trusted friend or seeking professional help can provide you with the support you need to overcome your fears.
a patient with a history of peptic ulcer disease (pud) is hospitalized with symptoms of a perforation. during the initial assessment, the nurse would expect the patient to report
A patient with a history of peptic ulcer disease (pud) is hospitalized with symptoms of a perforation. during the initial assessment, the nurse would expect the patient to report: severe abdominal pain and tenderness.
A perforation occurs when there is a hole or rupture in the wall of the stomach or duodenum, which can be a serious and potentially life-threatening condition.
The patient may describe the abdominal pain as sudden, sharp, and intense. The pain is typically localized to the area affected by the perforation, which is usually in the upper abdomen. The patient may also report worsening pain with movement or certain activities.
In addition to severe abdominal pain, the patient may exhibit other symptoms such as rigidity or guarding of the abdomen, rapid heart rate, low blood pressure, nausea, vomiting (which may be bloody), and signs of systemic infection such as fever and chills.
It is important for the nurse to promptly recognize these symptoms and notify the healthcare team as immediate medical intervention is required for a perforated peptic ulcer.
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a nurse is providing instructions about bowel cleansing with polyethylene glycol-electrolyte solution (peg) for a client who is going to have a colonoscopy. which of the following information should the nurse include?
To prevent dehydration, drink an additional liter of fluid during preparation time."
"Expect bowel movements to begin 3 hr following completion of solution."
---"Abdominal bloating might occur."
"Drink 400 mL every hour until bowel movements are clear."
While PEG is well-tolerated, adverse effects include nausea, bloating, and abdominal discomfort.
What is colonoscopy ?Colon cancer (also known as bowel cancer) and colon polyps, which are growths on the lining of the colon that occasionally become cancerous or have the potential to become cancerous, can both be detected during a colonoscopy. To determine the cause of signs and symptoms including bleeding from the rectum, a colonoscopy may be performed.
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Your team attends an emergency cesarean delivery of a term baby because of chorioamnionitis, meconium-stained amniotic fluid, and getal heart rate decelerations. At delivery, the newborn is ter as expected, wiht very poor tone and heis not breathing. You quickly perfrom initial steps, but the newborn is still not breathing. What is the most appropriate next of resuscitation
Start positive-pressure ventilation and check heart rate response after 15 seconds
Subjective: Here to follow up on her atrial fibrillation. No new problems. Feeling well. Medications are per medication sheet. These were reconstituted with the medications that she was discharged home on. Objective: Blood pressure is 110/64. Pulse is regular at 72. Neck is supple. Chest is clear. Cardiac normal sinus rhythm. Assessment: Atrial fibrillation, currently stable. Plan: 1. Prothrombin time to monitor long term use of anticoagulant. 2. Follow up with me in one month or sooner as needed if she has any other problems in the meantime. Will also check a creatinine and potassium today. What diagnosis code(s) are reported
Diagnosis code(s) are reported :
F03.90M25.511I11.9E11.9Diagnosis codeTo categorize and identify illnesses, disorders, symptoms, poisonings, negative effects of medications and chemicals, injuries, and other causes for patient contacts, diagnostic codes are employed in the medical field. Diagnostic coding is the process of converting textual descriptions of ailments, injuries, and diseases into codes that fall under a certain categorization.
In the clinical coding procedure for medical categorization, diagnostic codes are utilized with intervention codes. A medical classification expert such as a clinical coder or a health information manager assigns the diagnostic and intervention codes.
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