Answers
The nurse also expects this client with an anxiety illness to demonstrate the following behaviour:
BitingScratchingHead banging. Option 2, 4 and 5 are correct.Trichotillomania, often known as hair-pulling disorder, is characterized by an individual regularly pulling out their own hair, most typically from the scalp, brows, and eyelids. Many people twist and play with their hair or bite it, but these are not symptoms of trichotillomania. Hair pulling causes substantial anguish and functional issues. The individual may avoid going to work, school, or other public places. Distress might involve feelings of helplessness, humiliation, and shame.
Hair pulling can be preceded or followed by a variety of emotions, such as growing stress. It might be prompted by worry or boredom. A client suffering from trichotillomania may engage in self-mutilating activities such as biting. A client suffering from trichotillomania may engage in self-mutilating activities such as scratching. A client suffering from trichotillomania may engage in self-mutilating activities such as head bashing.
The complete question is
While caring for a client with psychiatric illness, the nurse finds that the client frequently pulls out hair from the scalp and eyebrows. Which other behaviors does the nurse expect in the client accompanying this behavior? Select all that apply.
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Related Questions
What equipment is generally used to make lyophilized medications suitable for administering to the patient? a) Test tubes or sterile ampules O b) Petri dishes and sterile droppers c) Sterile syringes or graduated cylinders d) Measuring cups and clean, warm water
Answers
In HMIS, Properly describe the hospital triage
Answers
Answer:
In hospital Information management and systems, hospital triage is a simplicity of categorizing patients within the hospital
Black tagged → Critical condition, patient dies even when treatment is undertaken
Red tagged → Critical condition, patient dies if treatment is not immediate.
Green triage → Normal condition, patient stays alive even when treatment is provided lately.
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Answer:
Triage is the summarizing of information to be managed in all hospital sectors
An infertile couple seeks the assistance of a clinic when they are unable to conceive a child. Through in vitro fertilization, (IVF), their dream is realized when they give birth to a baby girl. After some time passes, the baby's features appear to be Asian (the couple is white). Their worst nightmare begins when they learn that the husband is not the biological father of the child. The clinic is ordered to reveal the identity of all donors who could potentially be the father of the child. Whose rights are superior? the child, the mother, the unknown father? As a malpractice case, how do you begin to assess damages?
Answers
1. Rights of the Child: The rights of the child should be a primary concern in such cases. The child has the right to know their genetic identity and biological origins, as this information can be crucial for their well-being and understanding of their own identity. Establishing the truth about their parentage can have significant emotional, psychological, and medical implications for the child. Therefore, the child's rights to genetic information and the truth about their parentage may be considered paramount.
2. Rights of the Mother: The mother's rights may include the right to privacy and reproductive autonomy. However, in a case where there is a discrepancy between the intended father and the biological father, these rights may be weighed against the child's right to know their genetic identity. The extent of the mother's rights and the legal obligations towards disclosing the information can vary based on local laws and specific contractual agreements between the parents and the IVF clinic.
3. Rights of the Unknown Father: The rights of the unknown biological father may also come into consideration. However, since the identity of the biological father is typically unknown, it may be challenging to assess or protect his specific rights. The focus is often on the rights of the child and the legal obligations of the IVF clinic to provide the necessary information to establish the child's parentage accurately.
Assessing damages in a malpractice case related to IVF can involve a variety of factors, such as emotional distress, psychological harm, breach of contract, professional negligence, and any associated medical costs. Legal experts specializing in family law or medical malpractice would typically be involved in evaluating the specific circumstances of the case, the applicable laws, and determining the appropriate course of action for assessing damages.
It is crucial to consult with a legal professional who specializes in reproductive law, family law, or medical malpractice to understand the specific legal principles and regulations that apply to the jurisdiction where the case is being considered. They can provide accurate and tailored advice based on the relevant laws and precedents in that jurisdiction.
2.
Ben visits his doctor because his wife notices that sometimes at night he stops breathing. It only lasts a
few seconds and then he seems to startle himself back into breathing again What medical terms would
you use to describe what Ben is experiencing? Break down the meaning of the terms. Then explain what is
happening in Ben's body to produce these symptoms.
Answers
Apnea:
The “a” in apnea refers to “the absence of” and “pnea” relating to the pulmonary and respiratory system. The whole term “apnea” means the temporary absence or delay of breathing!
There are two types of sleep apnea, obstructive and central. With obstructive sleep apnea the muscles that keep the airway open relax and your airway narrows causing you to breath more shallowly or to stop breathing. In central sleep apnea your brain feels to transmit signals to your “breathing muscles” and the muscles do not contract or function causing you to stop breathing
In this case Ben is suffering from sleep Apnea and the symptoms are snoring loudly and feeling tired. These are the symptoms of sleep apnea.
What is sleep apnea?
Sleep apnea has a serious health issue and in that case potential serious disorder of sleep has been breathing repeatedly that stops and starts at time. There are several risk factors that include the age as well as obesity and it has been the most common in the men.
The main problem of parents are that they are comparing their child with other children living nearby them but they have to understand that every child is unique and every child is special. God has given different talent as well as different personality to every child and comparing them with others is not at all a good symbol for their bright future.
Try to teach the children about their good and bright future, try to make them learn about living a good and valuable life. Teach them to learn not to memorize the things only given in books and give them some practical knowledge.
Therefore, In this case Ben is suffering from sleep Apnea and the symptoms are snoring loudly and feeling tired. These are the symptoms of sleep apnea.
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Describe the different structures of the oral cavity that the dental laboratory technician requires from a final impression for a removable prosthodontic appliance, and compare these with the requirements for a fixed- prosthesis case.
Answers
Answer:
Both the methods used in making conventional impressions and digital impressions are shown in this presentation. The various impression materials are described and their suitability for fixed prosthodontic impressions is discussed. Materials described include irreversible hydrocolloid, reversible hydrocolloid, polysulfide, condensation reaction silicone, addition reaction silicone, polyether, and alginate substitutes. The design principles and methods for making custom impression trays are described. Impression methods are demonstrated in detail and are supplemented with a video demonstration.
Explanation:
The oral cavity is the initial phase of the digestive tract. Its major purpose is to act as the entry to the alimentary canal, allowing salivation and the propelling of the food substance into the pharynx to begin the digestion process. The oral cavity is enclosed by:
the lips and two flexible muscle folds that stretch from the edge of the mouthThe different structures of the oral cavity include:
Upper Jaw,Lower Jaw,Gums, and;Tooth.A dental laboratory technician is an experienced individual with a dental team who manufactures customized therapeutic and restorative dental appliances on prescription from a dental practitioner.
Removable prosthodontics focuses on the teeth replacement, in conjunction with soft tissues with a removable non-permanent prosthesis.
Removable prosthodontics appliances can be used for standard removable partial dentures for replacing missing teeth and this can help to avoid further surgery.
On the other hand, Fixed prosthodontics is the practice of repairing teeth with restorations that are permanently affixed to the patient's mouth. They're usually created in a laboratory by a dental laboratory technician who takes impressions to work with.
The difference between a removable prosthodontic appliance and a fixed prosthesis case is as follows:
removable prosthodontic fixed prosthesis case
It can be easily removed by It requires a dental practitioner to
from the mouth when required remove it.
Can lead to further jaw bone It makes the jaw bone firm and intact
deterioration
Its cost is usually affordable but, The cost is higher and it is a longtime
it has limited longetivity value.
From the above, explanation, we can conclude that we've understood what the different structures of the oral cavity are and how to make a comparison between the removable prosthodontic appliance and the fixed prosthesis case.
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After the nurse counsels a primiparous, breastfeeding client about diet and nutritional needs during the lactation period, which client statement indicates a need for additional teaching?
Answers
Answer:
The correct answer or statement would be - "I should drink at least five glasses of fluid daily."
Explanation:
For the breastfeeding patient, drinking 8 to 10 glasses of liquid daily is suggested anyhow. Breastfeeding ladies need an increased level of nutrient D intake for calcium absorption.
A breastfeeding lady requires an additional 500 cal/day over the prescribed nonpregnancy admission to deliver quality breast milk. Breastfeeding ladies need sufficient calcium for blood coagulating and solid bones and teeth.
Thus, the correct answer or statement would be - "I should drink at least five glasses of fluid daily."
In December, a 19-year-old college student experiences a severe headache, nausea, vomiting, and fever. The student suspects a case of flu and goes to the health center for a diagnosis. By the time he arrives, he is feeling worse, with neck stiffness and disorientation. The doctor immediately prepares to perform a spinal tap. I. What disease does the doctor suspect
Answers
Answer: meningitis
Explanation:
Lack of the spleen in 48-years-old male is typical for
Answers
Answer:
lack of blood supply
Explanation:
An ER doctor is examining a burned patient and notices that the patient's burn has destroyed all three layers of skin.
What type of burn does the patient most likely have?
a sunburn
a first-degree burn
a second-degree burn
a third-degree burn
correct answer: third-degree burn. because only a third degree burn can destroy all three layers of skin.
Answers
Answer:
D. :)
Explanation:
Drugs & Alcohol
4.1 Assignment
Refusal Skills Role Play
Name:
Date:
Directions: Find a partner to role play with parent, sibling, or classmate). Read each scenario below
aloud and discuss the best way to respond. Then role play the scenario with your partner. After each
scenario, describe your role play response to each situation.
1. You are having trouble sleeping at night because you have so much on
your mind. You mention it to a friend, and he suggests using some
prescription pills his mother uses. He offers them to you. (5 points)
2. Your teammates on the basketball team like to get high before games.
They encourage you to show your team unity by getting high with them.
They are convinced they play better when they are high, and they want you
to play your best game too. You don't want to disappoint your teammates.
15 points)
Answers
What is the difference is Licensure, Regulation, and Accreditation?
Answers
Answer:
Licensure is about getting the legal right to practice or serve in a specific role. Accreditation is about enabling a facility to have the respect of its industry peers. Another critical distinction between licensing and accreditation is who they apply to. A license applies to a single individual looking to practice
Answer:
Licensure is the act of granting authority by the state. Each state has agencies responsible for issuing and renewing licenses to health care professionals.
Registration means that you have graduated from an accredited school and have passed a standardized national exam administered by a nongovernmental agency.
Accreditation is an educational institution that is recognized by an outside agency, such as national board or commission, as having standards that qualify graduates for professional practice.
Explanation:
. Your friend has a great sense of humor. However, sometimes his jokes involve making fun of others in inappropriate ways. You feel uncomfortable when your friend does this. Do you say something or just laugh along with him?
Answers
If the jokes are making you uncomfortable, it would be best for you to communicate with them and explain why you feel the way you do instead of just going along with it. Hope this helps you :)
38. A pregnant client experiences persistent severe headaches and unexplained spells of dizziness during training, what should the trainer do?
Answers
Answer:
The coach should immediately stop physical activity and then take your blood pressure.
Explanation:
Many pregnant women tend to suffer from preclampcia, which is high blood pressure during pregnancy, which is very careful since it is risky for the mother and the baby.
High blood pressure in pregnant women can cause detachments of the placenta, interruption of pregnancy or spontaneous abortion.
It is very risky not to perceive these signs or said pathology, those pregnant women who are diagnosed with high blood pressure should do strict rest and monitoring.
Pregnant women bear the weight and physiological conditions of the baby and child. The trainer should immediately halt the training and check for the vitals of the women.
The trainer should do the following:
1. The trainer should immediately stop the training if the woman is experiencing dizziness and persistent severe headaches.
2. The symptoms could indicate the cause of preeclampsia, which is one of the most common complications of pregnancy. It has symptoms of high blood pressure, damage to the organ systems, and dizziness.
3. The trainer should immediately check for the vitals and measure the blood pressure of the pregnant women. The trainer should immediately contact the medical physician for monitoring and checking of the pregnant women.
Thus, the trainer should stop exercising and check the blood pressure.
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Donna has depression and was prescribed an SSRI by her doctor. What will this drug do inside of her brain?
Prevent serotonin in the synapse from being moved back into the neuron.
Trigger increased production of serotonin in the nucleus of the neuron.
Strengthen the effect of a serotonin by mimicking it at the receptor site.
Block effects of serotonin by binding to receptors without activating them.
Answers
An SSRI will A. prevent serotonin in the synapse from being moved back into the neuron.
SSRIs, or selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, are a class of antidepressant drugs commonly prescribed for individuals with depression. When Donna takes an SSRI, the drug works by preventing the reuptake of serotonin in the synapse, the small gap between neurons in the brain.
Normally, after serotonin is released from one neuron, it binds to receptors on the neighboring neuron and transmits signals related to mood regulation. However, in depression, there can be a deficiency of serotonin or impaired signaling. SSRIs inhibit the reuptake process, allowing serotonin to remain in the synapse for a longer duration. This increases the concentration of serotonin available to bind to receptors and enhances neurotransmission.
By blocking the reuptake, SSRIs effectively increase serotonin levels in the synapse, which helps to regulate mood and emotions. Over time, this prolonged presence of serotonin can lead to adaptive changes in the brain, promoting neuroplasticity and potentially alleviating depressive symptoms.
It's important to note that while this is a simplified explanation of how SSRIs work, the exact mechanisms of antidepressant action are complex and not fully understood. Additionally, individual responses to SSRIs may vary, and it's crucial for Donna to work closely with her healthcare provider to monitor the effects of the medication and adjust the dosage if needed. Therefore, Option a is correct.
Donna has depression and was prescribed an SSRI by her doctor. What will this drug do inside of her brain?
A. Prevent serotonin in the synapse from being moved back into the neuron.
B. Trigger increased production of serotonin in the nucleus of the neuron.
C. Strengthen the effect of a serotonin by mimicking it at the receptor site.
D. Block effects of serotonin by binding to receptors without activating them.
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Who most likely qualifies for government health insurance? Check all that apply.
hospital administrator
soldier in the US military
seventy-year-old retired farmer
famous actress
Answers
The individuals who most likely qualify for government health insurance are B. seventy-year-old retired farmer and C. soldier in the US military
Seventy-year-old retired farmer: In many countries, including the United States, government health insurance programs such as Medicare or Medicaid often provide coverage for elderly individuals. Medicare is a federal health insurance program that primarily serves people aged 65 and older, while Medicaid is a joint federal and state program that provides health coverage to low-income individuals, including some older adults.
Soldier in the US military: Active-duty military personnel and their families typically qualify for government health insurance through the Department of Defense's TRICARE program. TRICARE provides comprehensive healthcare coverage for service members and their dependents.
It is important to note that eligibility for government health insurance programs can vary based on specific criteria, such as income level, employment status, and military service. The hospital administrator and famous actress mentioned in the options may or may not qualify for government health insurance based on their individual circumstances, such as their income level or access to employer-sponsored health insurance. Therefore, Option B and C is correct.
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Who most likely qualifies for government health insurance? Check all that apply.
A. hospital administrator
B. soldier in the US military
C. seventy-year-old retired farmer
D. famous actress
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__________ is a branch of medicine that utilizes medical imaging technologies to explore the interior of the body.
Answers
Radiology is a branch of medicine that uses medical imaging techniques to study the inside of the body.
What are the main specialties of radiology?Since the discovery of X-rays in 1895, the application of radiation in medicine has expanded dramatically. In the last 50 years radiology has emerged in three specialties. Specifically, radiodiagnosis, radiotherapy, and nuclear medicine.
What Happens in Radiology?Radiology is a branch of medicine that uses imaging techniques to diagnose and treat disease. Radiology can be divided into two areas: diagnostic radiology and interventional radiology. A specialist in radiology called a radiologist use a variety of imaging techniques such as X-rays, ultrasound, computed tomography (CT), nuclear medicine including positron emission tomography (PET), and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) to diagnose disease.To learn more about Radiology visit:
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When transporting a radiopharmaceutical, it must be place in a -lined delivery container
A. technetium
B. lead
C. thallium
D. tungsten
Answers
Answer:
D is the answer
Explanation:
If a plant cell undergoes 6 loops of the Calvin Cycle, using 6 molecules of CO2, how many ATP will be needed to generate all of the RuBP that was used in the fixation stage?
Answers
Answer:
Explanation:
In summary, it takes six turns of the Calvin cycle to fix six carbon atoms from CO2. These six turns require energy input from 12 ATP molecules and 12 NADPH molecules in the reduction step and 6 ATP molecules in the regeneration step.
Hb types that do not bind 2,3BPG well
Answers
The Hb types that do not bind 2,3-BPG well are fetal hemoglobin (HbF) and carboxyhemoglobin (HbCO).
HbF is present in fetuses and has a higher affinity for oxygen than adult hemoglobin (HbA), allowing for the transfer of oxygen from the mother's bloodstream to the fetal bloodstream. It has two alpha and two gamma subunits, and the gamma subunits have a lower positive charge than the beta subunits of HbA, which affects the binding of 2,3-BPG. HbCO is formed when carbon monoxide binds to hemoglobin, which has a higher affinity for CO than oxygen. This reduces the amount of oxygen that can bind to HbCO and can cause oxygen deprivation in the body. CO binding to hemoglobin also reduces the ability of 2,3-BPG to bind to the hemoglobin, resulting in a left shift of the oxygen dissociation curve.
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what is a measure of the health status of people in a population?
Answers
A measure of the health status of people in a population is a population health indicator.
What is a key indicator used to assess the health status of a population?A population health indicator is a measure that provides valuable insights into the overall health of a population. It encompasses various factors and metrics that help evaluate the well-being, disease burden, and quality of life within a specific population.
Population health indicators can include a wide range of measures, such as mortality rates, life expectancy, prevalence of diseases, health behaviors (e.g., smoking rates, physical activity levels), access to healthcare services, and socioeconomic factors (e.g., income, education level).
These indicators provide a snapshot of the health status and can be used to monitor trends, identify health disparities, and guide public health interventions.
By tracking population health indicators over time and comparing them across different regions or demographic groups, policymakers, public health officials, and healthcare providers can gain insights into the health needs and challenges faced by a population.
This information can inform decision-making, resource allocation, and the development of targeted interventions to improve population health outcomes.
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3. Which abbreviation stands for a type of blood collection vacuum tube?
Answers
The abbreviation EDTA stands for a type of blood collection vacuum tube.
What is EDTA?EDTA is a chelating agent that binds to calcium ions, which prevents the blood from clotting. This allows the blood to be collected and transported without clotting, which is important for many laboratory tests.
EDTA is the most common type of blood collection tube used in clinical laboratories. It is used to collect blood for a variety of tests, including complete blood counts, chemistry tests, and blood cultures.
EDTA blood collection tubes are typically lavender in color. They are labeled with the abbreviation "EDTA" and the volume of blood that is required for the test.
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what are tubes that carry blood back to the heart ?
a. arteries
b.veins
c.pipes
d.tubes
Answers
Answer:
arteries and veins
Explanation:
those two are the answers
Answer:
I think it's veins.
Explanation:
Arteries carry the blood away from the heart and the veins carry the blood back to the heart.
(K12) Question 1 (1 point)
How does a fungus get food?
Question 1 options:
A. both autotroph and heterotroph
B. autotroph
C. Neither. It doesn't need food!
D. heterotroph
Answers
Answer:
D. Heterotroph
Explanation:
Fungi can't make their own food/energy like plants, they must extract energy from other living or dead things.
While assessing an older adult client, the nurse detects a bruit over the carotid artery. The nurse should explain to the client that a bruit is
a) heard when the artery is almost totally occluded.
b) associated with occlusive arterial disease.
c) a normal sound heard in adult clients.
d) a wheezing sound.
Answers
The nurse should inform the patient that occlusive vascular disease is linked to bruit.
Occlusive artery disease is indicated by a bruit, a blowing or swishing sound brought on by turbulent blood flow through a constricted conduit.
Due to turbulent, non-laminar blood flow through a stenotic location, a carotid bruit is a vascular sound that is often audible with a stethoscope placed over the carotid artery. An underlying artery occlusive condition that might cause stroke may be indicated by a carotid bruit. In 4% to 5% of people between the ages of 48 and 80, carotid bruits are noted, and 50% of these instances have internal carotid artery stenosis. Increased venous flow, external carotid artery stenosis, and transmitted heart murmur are other reasons of carotid bruits.
An arterial bruit often indicates stenosis at or close to the auscultation site. However, a bruit may not be present in very severe blockage, and in some high-flow situations, bruits may be audible across normal arteries that are not blocked.
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If digoxin has a half life of 35 hours, how long will it take for a toxic plasma concentration of 8 ng/ml to decline to a therapeutic plasma concentration of 2 ng.ml?
Answers
Answer:
It will take seventy hours
1. What two chemical content(s) of mast cells enable them to exhibit their unique property on mesentry spread (slides)
2. What naturally occurring substance shares the properties of and elastic fibre
3. Give one difference between dense and loose connective tissues, which is observable under the microscope
4. Give one difference between regular and irregular dense connective tissues which is observable under the microscope
Answers
Answer:
1. What two chemical content(s) of mast cells enable them to exhibit their unique property on mesentery spread?
Heparin and histamine. Mast cells are commonly found in connective tissue and can be identified under the microscope thanks to their densely-stained granules that contain heparin -a powerful anticoagulant-, and histamine -a substance involved in inflammatory response-.
2. What naturally occurring substance shares the properties of an elastic fiber?
Elastic fibers contain a protein called elastin that allows them to stretch, making them of great importance in tissues such as ligaments.
3. Give one difference between dense and loose connective tissues, which is observable under the microscope.
This classification of the connective tissue relies on how densely packaged are the fibers in it. Loose connective tissue contains small bundles of collagen fibers, separated by the ground substance. Dense connective tissue, on the other hand, is very rich in collagen fibers and has very little ground substance.
4. Give one difference between regular and irregular dense connective tissues which is observable under the microscope.
Irregular dense connective tissue has fibers spreading on multiple orientations, which allows the tissue to lessen the impact of forces coming from multiple directions - this gives this tissue a disorganized appearance under the microscope. Regular connective tissue is the opposite: the fibers are parallel to one another, which makes them capable of resist tension coming from one direction.
Which of the following is considered a contraindication to the administration of succinylcholine?
ARenal failure with a serum potassium of 3.8 mEq/L
BSpinal cord injury sustained one month earlier
CStroke with onset 24 hours prior to arrival
DThird degree burns sustained one hour prior to arriva
Answers
The administration of succinylcholine chloride is contraindicated in patients with known decreased plasma cholinesterase activity, recent burns or trauma within 24 to 72 hours, and muscle myopathies.
Psychological trauma is a response to an event that a person finds highly stressful. Examples include being in a war zone, a natural disaster, or an accident. Trauma can cause a wide range of physical and emotional symptoms.
Not everyone who experiences a stressful event will develop trauma. There are also various types of trauma. Some people will develop symptoms that resolve after a few weeks, while others will have more long-term effects.
A burn is an injury to the skin or other organic tissue primarily caused by heat or due to radiation, radioactivity, electricity, friction or contact with chemicals. Thermal (heat) burns occur when some or all of the cells in the skin or other tissues are destroyed by: hot liquids (scalds).
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What happens if you have too much folic acid during pregnancy?
Answers
If a woman takes too much folic acid during pregnancy, she may experience symptoms such as abdominal cramps, nausea, vomiting, headaches, and fatigue
Too much folic acid during pregnancy can cause serious health issues for both the mother and baby. Excess folic acid can cause anemia, mask the symptoms of vitamin B12 deficiency, and can even be linked to the development of certain birth defects. It is recommended that pregnant women get no more than 1 mg of folic acid per day. Women who have a family history of neural tube defects should consult their doctor before taking any folic acid supplements, as the doctor may recommend higher doses.
If a woman takes too much folic acid during pregnancy, she may experience symptoms such as abdominal cramps, nausea, vomiting, headaches, and fatigue. In extreme cases, too much folic acid can lead to seizures. If these symptoms occur, a woman should immediately seek medical attention.
It is important for pregnant women to get the right amount of folic acid. It is recommended that pregnant women consume 400 micrograms (mcg) of folic acid daily. The best way to get this amount is through a healthy diet that includes green leafy vegetables, fortified grains and cereals, and other foods that are rich in folic acid.
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pain is an unnatural process that serves no purpose except to make people suffer.
Answers
hi! im chimken and i have your answers!
pain is a natural process to tell the body whether it is rotting, burning, melting. as your brain sends signals to your body, your body tells you to STOP and to MOVE AWAY from this pain, or else your heart and brain will stop and die.
praise bingus :))
A client with a diagnosis of liver cirrhosis secondary to alcohol abuse has a distended abdomen as a result of fluid accumulation in his peritoneal cavity (ascites). Which pathophysiologic process contributes to this third spacing
Answers
Answer:
A
Explanation:
A client with a diagnosis of liver cirrhosis secondary to alcohol abuse has a distended abdomen as a result of fluid accumulation in his peritoneal cavity (ascites). Which of the following pathophysiologic processes contributes to this third spacing? A) Abno…
✓ A.