The correct statements about public IPv4 addresses are that public IPv4 address exhaustion is driving the transition to IPv6 and that a public address is required to access a device over the internet.
The question is about public IPv4 addresses and the task is to choose two statements that are correct about them.
a. This statement is incorrect because 192.168.1.10 is a private IPv4 address, not a public one. Private IP addresses are reserved for use within a local network and cannot be routed on the internet.
b. This statement is correct. Public IPv4 address exhaustion is a real issue that is driving the transition to IPv6. As the number of internet-connected devices has grown, the pool of available public IPv4 addresses has been depleted, leading to the adoption of private IPv4 addresses and network address translation (NAT) to allow multiple devices to share a single public IP.
c. This statement is incorrect. Public IPv4 addresses are assigned by internet service providers (ISPs) and are used to identify devices on the public internet. Devices on an organization's intranet typically use private IPv4 addresses that are not accessible from the public internet.
d. This statement is correct. To access a device over the internet, the destination IPv4 address must be a public address that is routable on the internet.
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a tensile specimen with a 12mm initial diameter and 50mm gage length reaches maximum load at 90KN and fractures at 70KN
the minimum diameter at fracture is 10mm
determine the engineering stress at maximum load and the true fracture stress.
Answer:
i) 796.18 N/mm^2
ii) 1111.11 N/mm^2
Explanation:
Initial diameter ( D ) = 12 mm
Gage Length = 50 mm
maximum load ( P ) = 90 KN
Fractures at = 70 KN
minimum diameter at fracture = 10mm
Calculate the engineering stress at Maximum load and the True fracture stress
i) Engineering stress at maximum load = P/ A
= P / \(\pi \frac{D^2}{4}\) = 90 * 10^3 / ( 3.14 * 12^2 ) / 4
= 90,000 / 113.04 = 796.18 N/mm^2
ii) True Fracture stress = P/A
= 90 * 10^3 / ( 3.24 * 10^2) / 4
= 90000 / 81 = 1111.11 N/mm^2
Select the best answer for the question. 4. What's the average value of an AC voltage that has a maximum peak voltage of 80 VAC? O A. 50.96 VAC O B. 160 VAC O C. 56.56 VAC O D. 38.31 VAC O Mark for review (Will be highlighted on the review page) << Previous Question Next Question >> M
Answer:
C. 56.56 VAC
Explanation:
The meaning of "average" is unclear in this context.
If the waveform is sinusoidal, or any other symmetrical shape, its average value is zero.
If the waveform is a full-wave rectified sinusoid, its average value is 2/π times the peak, about 50.93 V.
If you are concerned with the RMS value (not the average), that is 1/√2 times the peak, about 56.57 VAC.
What strategy may help a visual learner process data?
A strategy that may help a visual learner process data is a pie chart or histogram.
It is desired to obtain 500 VAR reactive power from 230 Vrms 50 Hz 1.5 KVAR reactor. What should be the angle of the AC to AC converter to be used? Calculate the THD of the current drawn from the mains (consider up to the 12th harmonic)?
Answer:
14.5° ; THD % = 3.873 × 100 = 387.3%.
Explanation:
Okay, in this question we are given the following parameters or data or information which is going to assist us in solving the question efficiently and they are;
(1). "500 VAR reactive power from 230 Vrms 50 Hz 1.5 KVAR reactor".
(2). Consideration of up to 12th harmonic.
So, let us delve right into the solution to the question above;
Step one: Calculate the Irms and Irms(12th) by using the formula for the equation below;
Irms = reactive power /Vrms = 500/230 = 2.174 A.
Irms(12th) = 1.5 × 10^3/ 12 × 230 = 0.543 A.
Step two: Calculate the THD.
Before the Calculation of the THD, there is the need to determine the value for the dissociation factor, h.
h = Irms(12th)/Irms = 0.543/ 2.174 = 0.25.
Thus, THD = [1/ (h)^2 - 1 ] ^1/2. = 3.873.
THD % = 3.873 × 100 = 387.3%.
Step four: angle AC - Ac converter
theta = sin^-1 (1.5 × 10^3/ 12 × 500) = 14.5°.
The Document is automatically shared with support when a ticket is created.
The following statement of the document is false.
What do you mean by document?
A document is a written, drawn, presented, or documented statement of ideas that frequently includes both non-fictional and fictitious content. The term comes from the Latin Documentum, which means "teaching" or "lesson": the verb doce means "to teach." Historically, the term was used to refer to written proof that may be used as evidence of a truth or reality. "Document" in the computer age usually refers to a mostly textual computer file, including its structure and format, such as fonts, colours, and graphics. Given the existence of electronic documents, the term "document" is no longer defined by its transmission medium, such as paper.
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An ideal Otto cycle has a compression ratio of 11 and displacement volume of 3,000 cm. Air pressure and temperature at beginning of the compression stroke is 100 kPa and 27 °C, respectively. The maximum temperature of the cycle is 800°C. Using cold air-standard analysis, calculate: a) Heat addition in the cycle, QH b) Net work, Wnet c) Thermal efficiency, 11. d) Mean effective pressure (MEP) e) Redo the problem using air-standard analysis (variable specific heat capacity)
a) The heat addition in the cycle, QH, is 943.7 kJ/kg.
b) The net work, Wnet, is 356.5 kJ/kg.
c) The thermal efficiency, η, is 0.38 or 38%.
d) The mean effective pressure, MEP, is 0.92 MPa.
e) Redoing the problem using air-standard analysis with variable specific heat capacity, the values obtained are: QH = 926.3 kJ/kg, Wnet = 340.6 kJ/kg, η = 0.37 or 37%, and MEP = 0.89 MPa.
In an ideal Otto cycle, the working fluid is air and the process is assumed to be reversible and adiabatic. The cycle consists of four processes: isentropic compression, constant volume heat addition, isentropic expansion, and constant volume heat rejection.
Using the given compression ratio and displacement volume, the compression and expansion processes can be analyzed to determine the state points and the temperatures at each state point. From there, the heat addition, net work, thermal efficiency, and mean effective pressure can be calculated using the cold air-standard analysis. Alternatively, the problem can be solved using air-standard analysis with variable specific heat capacity, which takes into account the variation of the specific heat with temperature. The results obtained from both methods may differ slightly, but they will provide similar values for the different parameters of the cycle.
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non-BIBO are never used in practice. True/false
Polarization: Unpolarized light passes through three ideal polarizing filters. The first filter is oriented with a horizontal transmission axis, the second one has its transmission axis at 30° from the horizontal, and the third filter has a vertical transmission axis. What percent of the light gets through this combination?
Answer:
the percentage of light that gets through this combination is 9.38
Explanation:
Given the data in the question;
Let us represent the incident unpolarized light with \(I_0\).
So, the amount of light intensity passing through the first polarizer will be;
\(I_1\) = \(I_0\) / 2 ------ let this be equation 1
An the amount of light intensity passing through the second polarizer will be;
\(I_2\) = \(I_1\)cos²θ
given that; the second one has its transmission axis at 30°
so, we substitute;
\(I_2\) = \(I_1\) × cos²( 30° )
\(I_2\) = \(I_1\) × 0.75
\(I_2\) = 0.75\(I_1\)
from equation; \(I_1\) = \(I_0\) / 2
\(I_2\) = 0.75( \(I_0\) / 2 )
\(I_2\) = 0.375\(I_0\) .
Now, the amount of light intensity passing through the third polarizer will be;
\(I_3\) = \(I_2\)cos² ( 90° - 30° )
\(I_3\) = \(I_2\) × cos²( 60° )
\(I_3\) = \(I_2\) × 0.25
we substitute
\(I_3\) = 0.375\(I_0\) × 0.25
\(I_3\) = 0.09375\(I_0\)
∴ \(I_3\)/\(I_0\) × 100 = 0.09375 × 100
⇒ 9.38%
Therefore, the percentage of light that gets through this combination is 9.38
Draw an ERD for each of the following situations. (If you believe that you need to make additional assumptions, clearly state them for each situation.) Draw the same situation using the tool you have been told to use in the course. a. A company has a number of employees. The attributes of EMPLOYEE include Employee ID (identifier), Name, Address, and Birthdate. The company also has several projects. Attributes of PROJECT include Project ID (identifier), Project Name, and Start Date. Each employee may be assigned to one or more projects or may not be assigned to a project. A project must have at least one employee assigned and may have any number of employees assigned. An employee's billing rate may vary by project, and the company wishes to record the applicable billing rate (Billing Rate) for each employee when assigned to a particular project. Do the attribute names in this description follow the guidelines for naming attributes? If not, suggest better names. Do you have any associative entities on your ERD? If so, what are the identifiers for those associative entities? Does your ERD allow a project to be created before it has any employees assigned to it? Explain. How would you change your ERD if the Billing Rate could change in the middle of a project? b. A laboratory has several chemists who work on one or more projects. Chemists also may use certain kinds of equipment on each project. Attributes of CHEMIST include Employee ID (identifier), Name, and Phone No. Attributes of PROJECT include Project ID (identifier) and Start Date. Attributes of EQUIPMENT include Serial No and Cost The organization wishes to record Assign Date—that is, the date when a given equipment item was assigned to a particular chemist working on a specified project A chemist must be assigned to at least one project and one equipment item. A given equipment item need not be assigned, and a given project need not be assigned either a chemist or an equipment item. Provide good definitions for all of the relationships in this situation. c. A college course may have one or more scheduled sections or may not have a scheduled section. Attributes of COURSE include Course ID, Course Name, and Units. Attributes of SECTION include Section Number and Semester ID. Semester ID is composed of two parts: Semester and Year. Section Number is an integer (such as 1 or 2) that distinguishes one section from another for the same course but does not uniquely identify a section. How did you model SECTION? Why did you choose this way versus alternative ways to model SECTION? d. A hospital has a large number of registered physicians. Attributes of PHYSICIAN include Physician ID (the identifier) and Specialty. Patients are admitted to the hospital by physicians. Attributes of PATIENT include Patient ID (the identifier) and Patient Name. Any patient who is admitted must have exactly one admitting physician. A physician may optionally admit any number of patients. Once admitted, a given patient must be treated by at least one physician. A particular physician may treat any number of patients, or may not treat any patient& Whenever a patient is treated by a physician, the hospital wishes to record the details of the treatment (Treatment Detail). Components of Treatment Detail include Date, Time, and Results. Did you draw more than one relationship between physician and patient? Why or why not? Did you include hncnithi ac an antitv type? Why or why not?
Answer:
it wqas red
Explanation:
red
engineering controls can be utilized as one element of hazard control
Engineering controls are an essential element of hazard control in the workplace, providing a means of minimizing or eliminating hazards at their source.
Engineering controls are a type of hazard control that reduces or eliminates the hazard at its source. Engineering controls are used to minimize or eliminate hazards that pose a significant risk of harm or danger to individuals, such as chemical or noise exposure.
These measures are frequently a vital component of an effective occupational health and safety program in the workplace. Examples of engineering controls include the use of ventilation to control fumes, dust, and other airborne hazards, as well as the use of sound barriers to reduce noise levels. In addition, the use of machine guards, interlocks, and other safety devices on equipment and machinery is considered a form of engineering control to safeguard workers from contact with hazardous moving parts.
Other types of engineering controls include changes in the manufacturing process or the substitution of less harmful materials to eliminate the hazard. Engineering controls are an essential element of hazard control in the workplace, providing a means of minimizing or eliminating hazards at their source. These controls, when combined with other forms of hazard control, such as administrative and personal protective equipment, provide a comprehensive approach to worker safety and health.
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2. Discuss the reengineering process in your own words and provide an example.
Reengineering is the process of redesigning and improving business processes to achieve significant performance improvements. It involves challenging traditional methods and leveraging technology for transformative change.
Reengineering is the process of fundamentally redesigning and improving business processes to achieve significant improvements in performance, efficiency, and effectiveness. It involves a holistic approach that rethinks and restructures existing processes, often leveraging technology and innovation to drive transformative change. Reengineering aims to break away from traditional ways of operating and create new, streamlined processes that align with organizational goals and deliver value to customers.
Example: One example of reengineering is the transformation of a traditional paper-based invoicing process into an automated electronic invoicing system. In the traditional process, invoices would be generated manually, printed, and sent through the mail, resulting in delays, errors, and inefficiencies. Through reengineering, the process can be redesigned to leverage electronic invoicing software, where invoices are generated electronically, sent via email or a digital platform, and seamlessly integrated with the organization's accounting systems. This reengineering effort eliminates manual steps, reduces processing time, improves accuracy, and enhances customer satisfaction through faster invoice delivery and streamlined payment processes. The focus is on reimagining the entire invoicing process, identifying pain points, and implementing technological solutions to drive efficiency and effectiveness.
Reengineering projects can vary in scope and scale, but they all involve a critical examination of existing processes, identifying bottlenecks, and finding innovative ways to streamline operations. The goal is to achieve radical improvements in performance and outcomes by challenging traditional assumptions and embracing new approaches to work.
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Explain how the mobile phone can be classified as disruptive innovation.
Answer: The evolution of cell phones to software-centric smartphones has changed the economics of production and competition. The leveraging of economies of scale, scope, and externality effects has powered the evolution of smartphone as disruptive innovation. It has disrupted a number of products and their producers because of the growing underlying natural tendency of convergence and monopoly. It has also been diffusing as growing progressive waves.
Explanation:
The company PureNSafe is designing a portable, solar-powered disinfection system for Army use only. The system is simply an inlet pipe, a pump, a mixing chamber and an outlet pipe. The water is continuously pumped into the chamber where it is irradiated with UV light before it exits through the the appropriate tube into a collection vessel. The disinfection rate constant rate of disinfection with UV light is 7.80 s.1 and the amount of bacteria has to be reduced by 99.9%. be reduced by 99.9%. Since the Army requires an object that can be carried in a backpack, it requires that the chamber of the apparatus must not hold a capacity greater than 2 L. How much water will the system be able to produce during 10 hours of sunshine?
Solution :
The treatment system will operate as the well mixed chamber.
Disinfection rate constant for the UV light, k is 7.80 /s. Number of bacteria in water need to be reduced by 99.9%
Percent reduction of bacteria should be \($(1-10^{0.99}) \times 100 =89.7\%$\)
Volume of the unit chamber is fixed at 2L
Assume the inlet concentration, \($C_0$\) as 1000
The outlet concentration of bacteria, C should be \($1000-\left(1000 \times \frac{89.7}{100}\right)$\)
= 103
The well mixed chamber will then follow a completely mixed flow reactor model.
Compute the time required :
\($t=\frac{1}{k}\left(\frac{C_0}{C}-1\right)$\)
\($t=\frac{1}{7.8}\left(\frac{1000}{103}-1\right)$\)
= 1.115 s
Flow through the system is \($\frac{2 \ L}{1.115 \ s}$\) = 1.79 L/s
The amount of water treated during the 10 hours of sunlight is 1.79 x 10 x 60 x 60 = 64440 L
A fan is to be selected to ventilate a bathroom whose
dimensions are 2 m × 3 m × 3 m. The air velocity is not to
exceed 7 m/s to minimize vibration and noise. The combined
efficiency of the fan–motor unit to be used can be taken to
be 50 percent. If the fan is to replace the entire volume of air
in 15 min, determine (a) the wattage of the fan–motor unit to
be purchased, (b) the diameter of the fan casing, and (c) the
pressure difference across the fan. Take the air density to be
1.25 kg/m3
and disregard the effect of the kinetic energy correction factors.
Answer:
18 000 liters
Explanation:
Mass flow rate = volumetric flow rate x density of air at that elevation
M = 0.3m3/min x 0. 7kg/m3 = 0.21kg/min
min diameter of fan = 0.063m
the velocity V must not exceed 95m/min,
Using Q = AV
A is the surface area of the fan
Q = 0.3m3/min, from above
A = Q/V = 0.3/95 = 0.003157m2
But A = (¶d^2)/4
d^2 = 4A/¶ = 4 x 0.003157/3.142
d^2 = 0.004019
d = 0.063m
The combined efficiency of the fan–motor unit to be used can be taken to be 50 percent. If the fan is to replace the entire volume of air in 15 min, determine the wattage of the fan–motor unit to be purchased.
Mass flow rate = volumetric flow rate x density of air at that elevation
M = 0.3m3/min x 0. 7kg/m3 = 0.21kg/min
min diameter of fan = 0.063m
the velocity V must not exceed 95m/min,
Using Q = AV
A is the surface area of the fan
Q = 0.3m3/min, from above
A = Q/V = 0.3/95 = 0.003157m2
But A = (¶d^2)/4
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Your team were task to design a network structure for a four storey building. The building will be used as a start-up. Floor plan was given and to your team to allocate different department (see allocation below). Each department manager wishes to have their own room. The company requested to have two small conference room for at least 30sqm size, one big room for presentation of their product and a canteen with at least 70sqm size. Also, you have to take into consideration that the company might expand 30% in the future. The company gave your team the freedom to combine rooms to make space for the number of people who will accommodate the room. Your team need to come-up with requirement analysis and design recommendation. Below are the denominations of the rooms/department. o Receptionist - 3 staffs o Accounting - 10 staffs o Marketing - 25 staffs o 2 Admin officer for each department o Human Resource – 10 staffs 0 Technical support - 15 staffs Software Developer team – 30 staffs o Design team - 30 staffs o 2 - Training rooms with 20 computers Requirement: Part I. Physical Layout 1. Planning a. Plan how the physical network will be designed according to the requirements above. Take into consideration the network load of each floor. b. Plan where to locate your network main distribution facility, while keeping security in mind. c. Plan how many intermediary devices would you use and where you place them.
The router should be placed in the network distribution room- Each floor should have a network switch and an access point
Part I. Physical Layout
1. Planning. Plan how the physical network will be designed according to the requirements above. Take into consideration the network load of each floor.
Since the building has four floors and each floor has a different department. It is recommended to create a star topology to cater for each department.
The central device for this topology would be a network switch. In addition, installing Wi-Fi access points will make it easier for employees and customers to connect to the network regardless of their location within the building.The distribution of each floor:
Floor 1: Accounting and MarketingFloor
2: Human Resources, Technical Support and Training RoomsFloor 3: Software Developers Team and Design TeamFloor
4: Presentation Room, Canteen and Reception
The following are the recommended network devices for the four-floor building:- Access Points - 12 devices- Network Switches - 12 devices- Modems - 4 devices- Routers - 1 device- Patch Panels - 1 deviceb. Plan where to locate your network main distribution facility, while keeping security in mind.
The ideal location for the network main distribution facility is the ground floor or the first floor. It is recommended to have a separate room for the distribution facility to avoid interference from other electronic devices.
The security of the distribution facility should be taken into consideration by installing an electronic lock to prevent unauthorized access.c. Plan how many intermediary devices would you use and where you place them.
The following are the recommended intermediary devices for the four-floor building:- Access Points - 12 devices- Network Switches - 12 devices- Modems - 4 devices- Routers - 1 device- Patch Panels - 1 device
The following is the placement of intermediary devices:- The modem should be placed on the first floor to receive internet connection from the Internet Service Provider (ISP)- The router should be placed in the network distribution room- Each floor should have a network switch and an access point.
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Consider a NACA 63-210 airfoil being tested in a low-speed wind tunnel. The tunnel test section measures 3 ft tall and 4 ft wide. The airfoil has a 1.2-ft chord and stretches the 4-ft width of the tunnel test section. Upstream of the test section, the air is at standard sea level conditions. In the test section, the velocity of the air is 80 ft/s. The airfoil has a drag coefficient of 0.009. Consider a point on the upper surface of the airfoil at the chordwise location with the maximum thickness. What can be said about the pressures at that point
Consider the NACA 63-210 airfoil being tested in a low-speed wind tunnel. The tunnel test section measures 3 ft tall and 4 ft wide. The airfoil has a 1.2-ft chord and stretches the 4-ft width of the tunnel test section.
Upstream of the test section, the air is at standard sea level conditions. In the test section, the velocity of the air is 80 ft/s. The airfoil has a drag coefficient of 0.009. At a point on the upper surface of the airfoil at the chordwise location with the maximum thickness, the pressure can be characterized as a lower value compared to the free-stream pressure, owing to the presence of the boundary layer.The upper surface of the airfoil experiences a reduced pressure due to the Bernoulli principle. The fluid speed is greater over the upper surface than it is over the lower surface of the airfoil, resulting in a reduced pressure in accordance with Bernoulli's equation.
Because of the viscosity of air, the pressure over the upper surface is less than it would be if the air was an inviscid fluid. This suggests that the air's viscosity has an impact on the pressures acting on the airfoil's surfaces, with a lower pressure being found on the upper surface compared to the free-stream pressure, owing to the presence of the boundary layer.
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Before a rotameter can be used to measure an unknown flow rate, a calibration curve of flow rate versus rotameter reading must be prepared.
a. True
b. False
Suppose we have a byte-addressable computer using direct mapping with 16-bit main memory addresses and 32 blocks of cache. If each block contains 8 bytes, determine the size of the tag field.
a 4 b. 8 c. 3 d. 2 e. 10
The size of the tag field is byte-addressable computer using direct mapping with 16-bit main memory addresses and 32 blocks of cache. If each block contains 8 bytes, determine the size of the tag field is 8 bits.
a 4 b. 8 c. 3 d. 2 e. 10.
What is the size of the tag field in a byte-addressable computer using direct mapping with 16-bit main memory addresses, 32 blocks of cache, and 8 bytes per block?The paragraph describes a scenario where we have a byte-addressable computer using direct mapping and we need to determine the size of the tag field given the number of blocks of cache, the block size and the size of the main memory addresses.
In this scenario, since we have 32 blocks of cache and each block contains 8 bytes, the total size of the cache is 32 * 8 = 256 bytes.
To determine the size of the tag field, we need to find the number of bits needed to uniquely identify each block in the main memory.
Since the main memory addresses are 16 bits, we can use log base 2 of the number of blocks to determine the number of bits needed for the index field, which is log2(32) = 5 bits.
The remaining bits will be used for the tag field.
Therefore, the size of the tag field is 16 - 5 - 3 = 8 bits (where 3 bits are used for the byte offset).
So the answer is (b) 8.
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consider an automobile dealership with three locations. Data fields exist for stock number, vehicle identification number, make, model, year, color, and invoice cost. Identify the possible candidate keys, the likely primary key, a probable foreign key, and potential secondary keys.
Possible candidate keys for this automobile dealership include the stock number and the vehicle identification number (VIN), as they are unique identifiers for each vehicle in the dealership's inventory.
The likely primary key would be the stock number or VIN, as they are both unique and can be used to easily search and retrieve information about a specific vehicle.A probable foreign key could be the invoice number, as it may be used to link vehicle information with the dealership's accounting system. For example, a sales transaction for a specific vehicle may reference the invoice number, which can be used to retrieve the invoice cost and other financial information.Potential secondary keys could include the make, model, year, and color of the vehicle. These fields can be used to search and filter the inventory based on specific criteria, such as finding all vehicles of a certain make or year.
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Which of the following defines an array local variable consisting of 50 signed words?
A. LOCAL wArray[50]:SWORD
B. LOCAL wArray:SWORD[50]
C. LOCAL SWORD[50]:wArray
D LOCAL SWORD:wArray[50]
When declaring an array local variable, it is important to specify the variable name, data type, and array size in the correct order. In this case, option B follows the correct syntax and defines an array local variable consisting of 50 signed words.
The correct answer is B. This statement defines an array local variable consisting of 50 signed words. The syntax for declaring an array local variable is as follows: LOCAL :[]. In this case, the variable name is "wArray," the data type is "SWORD" (a signed word), and the array size is 50. Therefore, option B correctly defines an array local variable consisting of 50 signed words.
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M2. 28. Pwm rms voltage if a certain pwm waveform with a 40 % duty cycle has an rms voltage of 3 , what will be the rms voltage if the duty cycle changes to 60 %?
Assuming the waveform has a constant amplitude, the rms voltage of a pulse width modulation (PWM) waveform with a 40% duty cycle and an rms voltage of 3 can be calculated as follows:
Vrms1 = Vmax * sqrt(D where Vmax is the maximum amplitude of the waveform and D is the duty cycle expressed as a decimal (40% = 0.4).So, Vrms1 = Vmax * sqrt(0.4) = Vmax * 0.632We can rearrange this equation to solve for Vmax:Vmax = Vrms1 / 0.632Using this value for Vmax, we can calculate the new rms voltage for a duty cycle of 60% as follows:Vrms2 = Vmax * sqrt(D)where D = 0.6 Pwm rms voltage if a certain pwm waveform with a 40 % duty cycle has an rms voltage of 3 , what will be the rms voltage if the duty cycle changes to 60 %.
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Summarize the differences between applied science and basic science.
Answer:
basic would be more of how it works such as cells where applied is to fix like medical
Explanation:
from internet
Basic science, such as understanding how cells work, is research aimed at understanding fundamental problems. Applied science, such as the medical field, is the application of basic scientific knowledge to solve practical problems. Applied science uses and applies information obtained through basic science.
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What aspects of descriptr are not required to be considered during the architectural engineering design process
In the architectural engineering design process, the aspects of descriptr that are not required to be considered are those that do not directly relate to the physical construction and functionality of the building.
For example, the cultural significance of the building or its impact on the surrounding community may not be a primary concern during the design process. Similarly, the emotional response of users or the building's aesthetic appeal may not be given as much weight as practical considerations like safety and sustainability. Additionally, some aspects of descriptr may be more relevant to the interior design or landscaping of the building rather than the architectural engineering design process.
For instance, the choice of colors, textures, and furnishings may not fall under the purview of the architectural engineer. Instead, these decisions may be made by an interior designer or decorator. Overall, the focus of the architectural engineering design process is on creating a safe, functional, and efficient building that meets the needs of its occupants and users.
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A rectangular classroom is to be designed so that it has a total volume of 4000 cubic feet. It must be designed to minimize heat loss. Since warm air rises the heat loss throught the ceiling is 4 times the heat loss through the floor. Th heat loss through any interior wlave is tiwce the heat loss throguh the lfoor. The loss through the outer walls is 3 times that throguh the floor the ceiling must be 10 feet high according to the local building coeds.
Required:
Find the dimensions of the room that minimzie the heat loss assume the room justs out form the rest of the building.
Answer:
10 ft
Explanation:
please i want to paraphrase this paragraph please helppppppppp don't skip!!!!!!
According to Ref. 213/91, fire extinguishing equipment can be frozen True or False
False. Fire extinguishing equipment cannot be frozen according to Ref. 213/91.
According to Ref. 213/91, fire extinguishing equipment cannot be frozen. Fire extinguishers are essential safety devices designed to combat fires effectively. They contain pressurized agents that are specifically formulated to extinguish different types of fires. Freezing temperatures can significantly impair the functionality of fire extinguishers and render them ineffective in emergency situations.
When fire extinguishing equipment freezes, several issues can arise. First, the contents of the extinguisher may expand as they freeze, potentially leading to ruptures or leaks in the container. This can cause the extinguisher to malfunction or become hazardous when used. Second, freezing temperatures can affect the performance of the extinguishing agent itself. Certain agents, such as water-based solutions, can solidify or lose their effectiveness when exposed to extreme cold.
It is crucial to store fire extinguishers in suitable environments that are above freezing temperatures. This ensures that the equipment remains in optimal condition and is ready for immediate use during emergencies. Regular inspections and maintenance are also essential to identify any signs of damage or deterioration that may compromise the functionality of fire extinguishers.
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For a given soil the following are known: Specific Gravity = 2.75 Moist Unit Weight = 19.6 kN/m3 Moisture Content = 14.3% Determine: a. Dry Unit Weight b. Void Ratio c. Porosity d. Degree of Saturation
The Dry Unit Weight of the soil is 17.5 kN/m3, the Void Ratio is 0.347, the Porosity is 0.384, and the Degree of Saturation is 86.7%.
B. The Dry Unit Weight of the soil can be calculated using the formula γd = γw(1-w), where γd is the dry unit weight, γw is the moist unit weight, and w is the moisture content.
In this case, γd = γw(1-w)
γd = 19.6(1-0.143) = 17.5 kN/m3.
The Void Ratio is then calculated using the formula e = (w / (1-w)), where e is the void ratio and w is the moisture content. Plugging in the values from above,
e = (w / (1-w))
e = 0.143/(1-0.143) = 0.347.
The Porosity is then calculated using the formula n = e/[1 + (G•e)], where n is the porosity, e is the void ratio, and G is the specific gravity. In this case,
n = e/[1 + (G•e)]
n = 0.347/[1 + (2.75•0.347)] = 0.384.
Finally, the Degree of Saturation can be calculated using the formula S = w/(1 + (G•e)), where S is the degree of saturation and the other variables are the same as above. Thus,
S = w/(1 + (G•e))
S = 0.143/(1 + (2.75•0.347)) = 0.867 or 86.7%.
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Knowing that the central portion of the link BD has a uniform cross-sectional area of 800 2, determine the magnitude of the load P for which the normal stress in that portion of BD is 50 .
Answer: 50
Explanation:
you are designing an elevator controller for a building with 25 floors. the controller has two inputs: up and down. it produces an output indicating the floor that the elevator is on. there is no floor 13. what is the minimum number of bits of state in the controller?
The minimum number of bits of state in the elevator controller for a building with 25 floors and no floor 13 is 5 bits.
The minimum number of bits of state in the controller for a building with 25 floors (excluding floor 13) can be determined using the following steps:
1. Subtract the excluded floor (floor 13) from the total number of floors: 25 - 1 = 24 floors.
2. Find the smallest power of 2 that is greater than or equal to the number of floors: 2ⁿ >= 24. In this case, n = 5, since 2⁵ = 32.
3. The minimum number of bits of state in the controller is equal to the value of n, which is 5 bits.
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et Obama Enter how many attempts you want: 5 Enter a guess: 10 Guess higher! You have 4 attempt (s) remaining. Enter a guess: 20 Guess higher! You have 3 attempt (s) remaining. Enter a guess: 30 Guces higher! You have attempt (s) remaining. Enter cuess: 40 Guess higher! You have 1 attempt (s) remaining. interques: 50 Tou 10 BENTARE: C:\Users\prajiDesktop\CSE BAVFA3\pa3.py Autott between 1-0 bouicked. Envata powin: 1 Eas: Sean :) elnu ud. EHP Gun 15 pannud. 22 Geen. Q Lower Manete remming. CC Quesnow you have 45 ataupu maining. ID 2:21/ 2.26
The goal is to guess a number between 1 and 100. You mentioned former President Obama in your question, but it doesn't seem relevant to the game.
The game appears to involve making attempts to guess the correct number with feedback provided in the form of "Guess higher!" or "Guess lower!" until you find the correct number or run out of attempts. In the example you provided, you have made several guesses and received feedback on whether to guess higher or lower, along with the number of attempts remaining. Remember to make your guesses based on the feedback and keep track of your remaining attempts to increase your chances of success. Good luck!
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