"It's hard to put the diaper between her legs" would lead the nurse to assess the infant for the presence of a skeletal abnormality.
What is Skeletal abnormality?
Skeletal abnormality is a condition in which the shape, structure, or function of the skeleton is unusual. It can be caused by genetic or environmental factors, and it can affect any part of the skeleton. Common skeletal abnormalities include skeletal dysplasias, such as achondroplasia and spondyloepiphyseal dysplasia, and skeletal deformities, such as scoliosis. Symptoms vary depending on the type of abnormality, but can include stunted or deformed limbs, delayed growth, and pain. Treatment options can include medications, physical therapy, or surgery.
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20. An occupational therapist would work with all of the following EXCEPT:
9 year old Pete who has autism.
16 year old Rachel who has muscle dystrophy.
30 year old Tyler who sprained his ankle.
75 year old Sharon who is adapting to living as a widow.
Answer:
I would assume the autistic 9-year-old. They would have a physical therapist, not an occupational therapist.
Explanation:
How many days after treatment can a patient receiving oxaliplatin develop symptoms of chronic peripheral neuropathy
Which instruction would the nurse include when teaching a patient who has been prescribed lamivudine for treatment of chronic hepatitis B ? Do not stop taking abruptly. Avoid going out in the sun. Take the medication on an empty stomach. Take the medication at the same time each day.
Lamivudine is an antiretroviral indicated for human immunodeficiency virus infection and chronic hepatitis B infection that, of these options, patients should take at the same time each day, as the medication is to often to be taken q12hr and compliance should be emphasized.
Abrupt discontinuation can lead to worsening liver disease however, it may be necessary with elevated serum levels that possibly indicate pancreatitis and or lactic acidosis associated with hepatotoxicity causing hepatic steatosis, which could be fatal.
There is no side effect or adverse reaction of lamivudine related to photosensitivity, ruling out the need to avoid the sun.
Lastly, the medication can be taken with or without food, though if taken with food, the medications peak levels can occur at 3.2hrs following administration. It is noteworthy to mention, however, food does not affect the total amount of medication absorbed.
Lamivudine is an antiviral drug that is commonly used in the treatment of chronic hepatitis B. When a patient is prescribed lamivudine, the nurse should provide instructions on how to take the medication, including the following: Take the medication at the same time each day.
When teaching a patient who has been prescribed lamivudine for the treatment of chronic hepatitis B, the nurse would include instructions to take the medication at the same time each day. This helps ensure that the medication is taken consistently and at the appropriate intervals. Abruptly discontinuing the medication is not recommended, as this can lead to the development of drug-resistant strains of hepatitis B virus. Sun exposure is not a concern with lamivudine, and taking the medication on an empty stomach is not necessary.
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Some foods are nutrient-rich, while others are energy-rich yet nutrient-poor. Whole foods are the most nutrient dense because nutrients are left intact, which supports the best satiety cues (for example, an orange vs. orange juice), and overall confer the best outcome physiologically.
Three-day diet records are often used to get an idea of an individual’s overall dietary habits to determine average daily caloric intake and how nutrient-rich the diet is.
For the next three days, select the items that are richest in nutrients. Choose three items for each day’s breakfast.
Day 1 Breakfast Options
Choice
Bacon Butter Grape jelly Maple syrup Orange Orange juice Peanut butter (contains only peanuts) Regular bagels Regular cream cheese Strawberry Pop-Tarts Whole wheat bread Day 2 Breakfast Options
Choice
Banana Frozen waffles Nature Valley granola bars Orange juice Pancakes with syrup Regular bagels Regular cream cheese Scrambled eggs Skim milk Strawberry Pop-Tarts Variety pack of Quaker instant oatmeal Day 3 Breakfast Options
Choice
Box of regular Cheerios Frozen waffles Fruit Loops cereal Fruit on the bottom regular yogurt Nature Valley granola bars Orange juice Packaged roll of Pillsbury cinnamon rolls Plain Greek yogurt Regular bagels Skim milk Strawberry Pop-Tarts Foods provide our bodies with the energy, structural materials, and regulating agents we need to live. Although the body can make some of its own nutrients, it must obtain others through foods. These are essential nutrients called macronutrients, which provide our bodies with energy. They include carbohydrates, protein, and fat.
Vitamins do not provide the body with energy, but are essential for every function in your body. Without vitamins, many actions in the body would be impossible. Like vitamins, minerals do not provide energy, but play significant roles in the body.
Match the nutrient term that corresponds with the description of the nutrient given below. (Note: Each word can only be used once.)
Description
Nutrient
The macronutrient least used for fuel Number of vitamins The most nutrient-dense Number of kcals in a gram of carbohydrate Contained in orderly arrays in the bones and teeth Interferes with growth, maintenance, and repair of the body even though it is an energy source People have many different motivations for their dietary choices. Some people eat more when bored or alone, while others will only eat full meals during social interactions. Other factors include convenience, price, cultural influences, work day schedules, stores available for purchase (convenience store versus grocery store), and so on.
What is the likely motivation for a person giving up soup after an extended illness?
Negative associations
Habit
Values
Social interactions
Positive associations
Behavior change is a modification in human behavior. Changing unhealthy nutrition behaviors to healthy ones can be difficult due to a variety of reasons. Incorporating nutrient-dense foods into your meal plan is the recommended outcome. Consider your breakfast consumption. What would you have to change to include fruits, whole grains, and low-fat dairy in your meal?
Choose the radio button below the image that depicts an individual making a change in nutrition behavior that increases the nutrient richness of his/her diet.
Instead of ...
© atmoomoo/Shutterstock.com
Ordering fast food from a drive-thru
Deciding to switch to ...
© Ditty_about_summer / Shutterstock.com
Buying fresh food at a grocery store
Instead of ...
© atmoomoo/Shutterstock.com
Ordering fast food from a drive-thru
Deciding to switch to ...
© Lestertair/Shutterstock.com
Ordering food from a restaurant Instead of ...
© wavebreakmedia/Shutterstock.com
Drinking 100% juice
Deciding to switch to ...
© Nenad Milosevic/Shutterstock.com
Drinking fruit drink that is not 100% juice
To include fruits, whole grains, and low-fat dairy in breakfast, a person would likely need to change their current breakfast choices to more nutrient-dense options.
This could include swapping out processed foods like Pop-Tarts and regular bagels for whole wheat bread and oatmeal, choosing a banana or fresh orange instead of orange juice, and switching to plain Greek yogurt or skim milk instead of regular cream cheese.
How important is it to eat healthy foods with grains?
Eating healthy foods that include grains can be important for overall health and well-being. Grains, such as whole wheat, oats, quinoa, and brown rice, provide a variety of essential nutrients, including dietary fiber, vitamins, and minerals.
Dietary fiber, which is found in whole grains, is important for maintaining regular bowel movements and can also help lower cholesterol levels and reduce the risk of heart disease. Whole grains are also a good source of B vitamins, such as thiamine, niacin, and folate, which are essential for energy metabolism and the maintenance of healthy nerve and red blood cells.
Whole grains also contain minerals such as iron, zinc, and magnesium. Iron is essential for the formation of red blood cells, zinc is important for a healthy immune system, and magnesium plays a role in maintaining normal nerve and muscle function.
Additionally, consuming whole grains has been linked with a lower risk of chronic conditions such as heart disease, type 2 diabetes, and certain cancers. Whole grains also provide a good source of carbohydrates which is the body's main source of energy.
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INDICATIONS FOR SURGERY: The patient is an 82 year-old male with biopsy-proven basal cell carcinoma of his right lower eyelid extending to the upper part of the cheek. I marked the area for rhomboidal excision and I drew my planned rhomboid flap. The patient observed these markings in a mirror, he understood the surgery and agreed on the location and we proceeded.
DESCRIPTION OF PROCEDURE: The area was infiltrated with local anesthetic. The face was prepped and draped in sterile fashion. I excised the lesion as drawn into the subcutaneous fat. Hemostasis was achieved using Bovie cautery. Modified Mohs analysis showed the margin to be clear. I incised the rhomboid flap as drawn and elevated the flap with a full-thickness of subcutaneous fat. Hemostasis was achieved in the donor site, the Bovie cautery was not used, hand held cautery was used. The flap was rotated into the defect. The donor site was closed and flap inset in layers using 5-0 Monocryl and 6-0 Prolene. The patient tolerated the procedure well. The total site measured 1.3 cm x 2.7 cm.
What CPT® code(s) should be reported?
The appropriate documentation should be completed to support medical necessity, coding and billing, as well as patient care.
Based on the description of the procedure, the appropriate CPT® code to report would be 14041 for the excision of the basal cell carcinoma. In addition, the repair of the defect using a rhomboid flap would be reported using CPT® code 14041 with modifier -52 (reduced services) since only a portion of the planned procedure was completed. It is important to note that the use of the Mohs analysis and the type of hemostasis achieved were not separately billable. It is also important to ensure that the medical necessity for the procedure is documented in the medical record. It is recommended to append a diagnosis code that supports the medical necessity of the procedure, such as ICD-10-CM code C44.129 (basal cell carcinoma of skin of unspecified eyelid, including canthus).
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Which of these actions is legally required when dealing with medical records?
NADH: Oxidized: Physical Activity pyruvate reduced Risk factors eating satiety Skin calipers Strength Thermic effect of food Transition reaction Underwater weighing Waist to hip ratio Weight loss What would the approximate weight gain be in one month for a person who consistently consumes 1200 calories in excess of their daily needs
Answer:
3.6 pounds.
Explanation:
If a person consumes 1200 calories more than their daily needs so in a month he will gains about 3.6 pounds weight because these extra calories stored in the body in the form of fats. According to a research, if a person consumes 1000 calories extra than their daily needs so the person will gain 3 pounds of weight which is equals to 1.4 kilograms so on the basis of this study we can conclude that the person gains about 3.6 pounds of weight which is equals to 1.6 kilograms.
It is a realistic goal to move your audience from a negative 3 position to a plus 1 position on the continuum. True false
It is a realistic goal to move the audience from a negative 3 position to a plus 1 position on the continuum. In the context of communication or persuasion, the continuum refers to a range of attitudes or opinions that individuals hold regarding a particular topic. So the statement is True.
When an audience holds a negative opinion or attitude (represented by a negative 3 on the continuum), it is possible to influence and shift their perspective towards a more positive position (represented by a plus 1 on the continuum). This can be achieved through effective communication, providing compelling arguments, presenting evidence, and addressing any concerns or objections.
However, it is important to note that moving the audience's position on the continuum is not always guaranteed or easy. It depends on various factors, including the nature of the topic, the audience's existing beliefs and attitudes, their openness to change, and the effectiveness of the communication strategies employed. It requires careful planning, persuasive techniques, and the ability to connect with the audience on an emotional and intellectual level.
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which of the following diseases is thought to be an autoimmune disease? cancer of the bone marrow insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus measles and mumps duodenal ulcer
Insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus (IDDM) is thought to be an autoimmune disease, option B is correct.
Insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus, also known as Type 1 diabetes, is characterized by the destruction of insulin-producing cells in the pancreas due to an autoimmune response. The immune system mistakenly attacks and destroys the beta cells in the pancreas, leading to a lack of insulin production. This results in high blood sugar levels and requires lifelong insulin therapy.
Research suggests that both genetic and environmental factors contribute to the development of IDDM. While cancer of the bone marrow can involve immune dysregulation, it is not an autoimmune disease. Measles and mumps are viral infections, and a duodenal ulcer is primarily caused by Helicobacter pylori bacteria or excessive use of NSAIDs, option B is correct.
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The complete question is:
Which of the following diseases is thought to be an autoimmune disease?
A. cancer of the bone marrow
B. insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus
C. measles and mumps
D. duodenal ulcer
Which of the following studies is linked most directly to the establishment of the National Research Act in 1974 and ultimately to the Belmont Report and Federal regulations for human subject protectionThe Public Health Service Tuskegee Study of Untreated Syphilis in the Negro Male
The correct answer is study titled "The Public Health Service Tuskegee Study of Untreated Syphilis in the Negro Male"
Between 1932 and 1972, the U.S. Public Health Service (USPHS) Syphilis Study in Tuskegee tracked the progression of the disease naturally. Researchers failed not get patients' informed consent for the trial and did not provide treatment, even after it was publicly available. The goal of the study was to document the syphilis natural history in Black individuals. The Tuskegee Study of Untreated Syphilis in the Negro Male was the name of the investigation. There were no effective treatments for the condition at the time the study was started.
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A nurse is reinforcing teaching about the pacemaker to a client who is preparing to undergo the procedure to have one placed for arrhythmias. What are teaching points the nurse can discuss with the client?
Answer:
A nurse is reinforcing teaching about the pacemaker to a client who is preparing to undergo the procedure to have one placed for arrhythmias. ... Extraneous exercise can be harmful to the function of a pacemaker.
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which air pollutant most contributes to asthma? responses particulate matter particulate matter emissions emissions carbon monoxide carbon monoxide contaminated groundwater contaminated groundwater
The air pollutant which contributes to asthma is called as particulate matter emissions, option A.
The vaporous models air poisons of essential worry in metropolitan settings incorporate sulfur dioxide, nitrogen dioxide, and carbon monoxide; these are transmitted straightforwardly up high from petroleum products, for example, fuel oil, gas, and flammable gas that are scorched in power plants, autos, and other ignition sources. Additionally, ozone, a major component of smog, is a gaseous pollutant; Complex chemical reactions between nitrogen dioxide and various volatile organic compounds (such as gasoline vapors) in the atmosphere lead to its formation.
Particulates—e.g., soot, dust, smoke, fumes, and mists—are suspensions of extremely small solid or liquid particles suspended in the air, especially those smaller than 10 micrometers (m; Due to their extremely harmful effects on human health, micron-sized air pollutants are significant. They are released by automobiles, residential heating systems, power plants that burn coal or oil, and various industrial processes. Lead fumes, which are airborne particles smaller than 0.5 micrometers in size, are particularly harmful and a significant pollutant of numerous diesel fuels.
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Complete question:
Which air pollutant contributes to asthma?
particulate matter emissions
carbon monoxide
contaminated groundwater
Cual ha sido el impacto de la ciencia y las tecnologias para curar el cancer de mama y otras emfermedades del sistema endocrino
Answer:
el desarrollo de terapias hormonales ha permitido enlentecer y/o detener el crecimiento de tumores, incluyendo tumores en tejidos mamarios
Explanation:
La terapia hormonal, también conocida como terapia endócrina, es un tratamiento utilizado enlentecer y/o detener el crecimiento de células y tejidos defectuosos. La terapia hormonal se divide en dos (2) clases de acuerdo a su modo de acción en el cuerpo: 1-terapias con el objetivo de bloquear la capacidad del cuerpo para producir hormonas y 2-terapias que bloquean la función normal de las hormonas en el cuerpo. La terapia hormonal permite controlar el desarrollo de células cancerosas que se dividen formando tumores y aquellas que se desprenden del tumor para viajar a través del cuerpo formando nuevos tumores, es decir, produciendo metástasis. En cáncer de mama, la terapia hormonal posee múltiples beneficios: 1-reduce el riesgo de formación de tumores en otro tejidos mamarios, 2-previene la reaparición de células tumorales, 3-detiene el crecimiento de células tumorales y 4-reduce el tamaño de tumores previamente a la realización de una cirugía, haciendo más fácil la tarea de extirparlo. Por otra parte, diferentes metodologías desarrolladas con el objetivo de matar células tumorales mamarias también incluyen la quimioterapia, la cual usa drogas para reducir el número de células cancerosas, y la radioterapia, que consiste en el uso de altas dosis de radiación para destruir las células tumorales.
When is periodontal disease reversible?
Answer:
it's reversible
it is related to teeth
How can you tell whether a fat contains primarily saturated or unsaturated fatty acids?
a. All plant oils are unsaturated because they are liquid at room temperature.
b. Solid fats that melt at a high temperature are unsaturated.
c. Oils that remain liquid at room temperature are primarily unsaturated.
d. Beef fat is considered unsaturated because cattle eat only plant foods.
e. all fat that is solid at low temperatures is unsaturated.
Heat the fat until it liquefies, then use a gas chromatograph to separate the fatty acids. This is the simplest method for accomplishing this (GC).
What distinguishes a fat as being saturated or unsaturated? Heat the fat until it liquefies, then use a gas chromatograph to separate the fatty acids. This is the simplest method for accomplishing this (GC).At the carbon-carbon double bond, saturated fatty acids will have a distinctive double-bonded carbon atom, whereas unsaturated fatty acids won't.A saturated fat.It is solid when left at room temperature.It can be present in full-fat dairy products, such as yogurt and cheese, as well as high-fat meats like butter and lard.Unsaturated fatAt normal room temperature, this is usually liquid.You can find it in fish, nuts, and vegetable oils.The largest number of hydrogen atoms are found in saturated fats, but there are less hydrogen bonds than the maximum amount at each double bond in unsaturated fats.To learn more about fatty acids refer
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The best way to tell whether a fat contains primarily saturated or unsaturated fatty acids is to look at the physical properties of the fat. Solid fats that melt at a high temperature are unsaturated, while oils that remain liquid at room temperature are primarily unsaturated.
What is fatty acids?Fatty acids are organic compounds that are made up of a carboxylic acid group attached to a hydrocarbon chain. They are found naturally occurring in plant and animal fats, oils, and waxes, and are important components of biological membranes. Fatty acids are essential for the production of energy and for the proper functioning of all cells and organs. In humans, fatty acids are used to make hormones and regulate many bodily processes. They are also important for the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins and the synthesis of lipids.
Fats that are solid at low temperatures are saturated. For example, beef fat is considered saturated because it is solid at low temperatures.
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all the following statements are true about vitamin b12 except that group of answer choices its naturally occurring form is found only in foods from animal sources. it requires intrinsic factor for absorption to occur. the ability to absorb this vitamin increases with age. when deficient, pernicious anemia may result.
The ability to absorb this vitamin increases with age (False)
Actually absorption of vitamin is decreases as the age increases nutrition B12 is an critical nutrient that allows your body maintain your nerve cells and blood cells wholesome. It also allows your frame make DNA, the genetic material in all your cells. Your frame does no longer make diet B12 on its very own, so that you must eat foods and drinks which have vitamin B12 so that you can get it. nutrition B12 is observed in animal products you eat and drink inclusive of meat, dairy and eggs. it can additionally be observed in fortified foods (ingredients that have sure nutrients and nutrients brought to them) which includes certain cereals, bread and dietary yeast.
Adults need round 2.four micrograms (mcg) of nutrition B12 a day, and those who're pregnant or breastfeeding need extra. the amount of diet B12 babies and children need varies based totally on age.
Pernicious anemia: people who have pernicious anemia, a rare medical situation, are not able to make intrinsic factor, a protein made through your stomach. You need intrinsic issue in order that your body can soak up B12 diet. human beings with pernicious anemia have a B12 vitamin deficiency.
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Why in the blood you cant see free iron and copper?
Answer:
It thus seems likely that both iron and copper deficiency can occur in selected populations .
Question 9(1 point)Question 9 options:Melissa Jackson goes to her regular physician complaining ofintermittent chest pain. Dr. Norris does a detailed H&P andhas blood drawn for a CBC with differential (totallyautomated) and an electrolyte panel. These test were done inthe office. He makes a highly complex medical decision toorder additional tests to rule out heart disease. Code for Dr.Norris.
E&M Code?
Procedure Code(s)?
Electrocardiogram (ECG/EKG): CPT code 93000
Exercise stress test: CPT code 93015
Echocardiogram: CPT code 93306
Cardiac catheterization: CPT code 93458
What are the codes?The E&M code for this encounter would depend on the level of complexity of the medical decision-making made by Dr. Norris, as well as the extent of the history and physical exam performed. Based on the limited information provided, it is not possible to determine the specific E&M code.
It's important to note that the specific procedure code(s) would depend on the tests ordered by Dr. Norris, and may vary based on the individual patient's needs and medical history.
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if 1200 mL is used to be infused at a rate of 100 mL/Hr, how long will last
Answer:
5hours
Explanation:
1,200 divide by 100 then the answer is 12 then divide to 60mins u got 5.
5hou:
1200/100=12÷60mins=5
bill, who is 28 years old, comes for his annual checkup. when reviewing his social data sheet, you discover he is now living in an apartment and has a new phone number. he mumbles to you that his wife left him and won’t let him see the kids. how will you respond therapeutically?
What is the ICD-10-CM code for multiple, moderate lacerations of the spleen, initial encounter?
A. S36.030A
B. S36.031A
C. S36.032A
For multiple, moderate spleen lacerations during initial contact, the appropriate ICD-10-CM code would be: B. S36.031A
What is the ICD-10-CM code?As of January 1, 1999, the ICD-10 replaced the ICD-9 as the standard for coding and classifying mortality data from death certificates. ICD-9-CM, volumes 1 and 2, will be replaced by ICD-10-CM as of October 1, 2015.
The World Health Organization (WHO)'s statistical classification of diseases, the ICD-10, is the foundation of the ICD-10-CM.
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which of the following is a provider factor associated with low vaccination rates in adults?
Answer: Lack of effective reminder or recall systems.
Do you guys do final exams ?? for veterinarian assistant ?? 400 questions in the matter of 3 hours and 30 min
Yes, final exams are typically conducted for veterinarian assistant programs. These exams may consist of a considerable number of questions, such as 400, which are expected to be completed within a specific time frame, often around 3 hours and 30 minutes.
Final exams are a common component of educational programs, including veterinarian assistant courses. These exams serve as an assessment tool to evaluate students' knowledge and understanding of the subject matter before they complete their studies. While the specific format and duration of exams may vary depending on the institution and program, it is not uncommon for final exams to cover a significant number of questions, such as 400 in this case.
The extensive number of questions is designed to comprehensively test the student's grasp of various topics related to veterinary assistance. It helps assess their ability to apply theoretical knowledge, make informed decisions, and handle practical situations that may arise in a veterinary setting. The time limit, typically around 3 hours and 30 minutes, is set to challenge students' time management skills and their ability to efficiently and accurately respond to a large number of questions within a constrained period.
In summary, veterinarian assistant programs often include final exams as a means of evaluating students' knowledge and skills. These exams commonly involve a significant number of questions, such as 400, which students are expected to complete within a specified time frame, usually around 3 hours and 30 minutes.
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Your patient, Fluffy, has been prescribed Amoxicillin 300 mg orally daily as part of
his treatment for kennel cough. The pharmacy sends up Amoxicillin 600 mg
extended-release tablets. How many tablets do you give Fluffy?
A person eats a candy bar, and the sugar level in her blood gets very high. Her body releases insulin into her blood. The insulin causes extra sugar to be stored in the muscles, and the sugar level in the blood returns to normal. This is an example of
Answer:
Homeostasis
Explanation:
Which of the following best describes the electrolytes that are dissolved in
blood?
Answer:That substances give when dissolved in water are called electrolytes.
Explanation:Substances give when dissolved and divided into acids,salts and they are dissolved in water.
Electrolytes are the dissolved the combination blood and the coordinates all the functions.
Electrolytes are the balance is crucial to the many functions of bloods.
Electrolytes and decreased plasma and magnesium can muscle spasms the extremities.
We intend to save the company $20,000 next month
Answer:
As a team, we have conducted a thorough analysis of the company's financial data to identify potential cost-saving opportunities. Our results indicate that by implementing strategic changes we can expect to save the company no less than $20,000 next month. We believe these savings are not only achievable but essential in securing the long-term financial health of our organization. As professionals committed to our collective success, we will continue to monitor spending closely and make informed decisions aimed at maximizing cost-effectiveness across all areas of the business.
During the atrial systole phase of the cardiac cycle approx what percentage of blood is moved from the atrium to the ventricle ?
A. 100%
B. 25%
C. 75%
D. 50%
Which is the most common disorder found in clients diagnosed with bulimia nervosa?
during inhalation, the diaphragm and intercostal muscles contract, which_____pressure in the thoracic cavity, and air flows into the body.
When the diaphragm and intercostal muscles contract, they create a decrease in pressure in the thoracic cavity.
This decrease in pressure is known as negative pressure and it is the driving force behind inhalation. The decrease in pressure causes air to be drawn into the lungs. This is because the outside atmosphere has a higher pressure than the inside of the lungs, so air flows into the lungs to equalize the pressure.
The Mechanics of Inhalation: How the Body Inhales AirInhalation is a fundamental process of breathing for the human body, and it is essential for the oxygenation of the body’s cells. Inhalation involves the contraction of the diaphragm and intercostal muscles, which in turn creates a decrease in pressure in the thoracic cavity.
This decrease in pressure is known as negative pressure and it is the driving force behind inhalation. The decrease in pressure causes air to be drawn into the lungs. This is because the outside atmosphere has a higher pressure than the inside of the lungs, so air flows into the lungs to equalize the pressure.
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