The nurse would likely respond that a pregnant client can continue to work until it is no longer comfortable or safe for them and their baby, taking into consideration their specific health conditions and job demands.
The nurse would then provide an explanation that factors such as the nature of the job, any health complications, and the overall comfort level of the client should be taken into consideration when deciding how long to continue working during pregnancy. The nurse may also suggest consulting with a healthcare provider for further guidance.
Depending on the individual's pregnancy, health, and type of work. Generally, a healthy pregnant woman can work until her due date or close to it, as long as there are no complications or contraindications. However, it is crucial to consult with a healthcare provider for personalized recommendations based on the client's unique situation.
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How many grams are in 200ml of 20% solution
Answer: The answer I have concluded for this question would be \(\textbf{200g}\) (grams).
Explanation: Hope this helps! Have a wonderful day <3!
There are 40 grams in 200 mL of a 20% solution.
To determine the number of grams in a solution, you need to know the percentage concentration and the volume of the solution.
In this case, you have a 20% solution and a volume of 200 mL.
To calculate the number of grams, you multiply the volume by the percentage concentration and divide by 100.
Number of grams = (Volume in mL * Percentage concentration) / 100
Number of grams = (200 mL * 20%) / 100
Number of grams = (200 mL * 0.20)
Number of grams = 40 grams
Therefore, there are 40 grams in 200 mL of a 20% solution.
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Who most likely qualifies for government health insurance? Check all that apply.
hospital administrator
soldier in the US military
seventy-year-old retired farmer
famous actress
The individuals who most likely qualify for government health insurance are B. seventy-year-old retired farmer and C. soldier in the US military
Seventy-year-old retired farmer: In many countries, including the United States, government health insurance programs such as Medicare or Medicaid often provide coverage for elderly individuals. Medicare is a federal health insurance program that primarily serves people aged 65 and older, while Medicaid is a joint federal and state program that provides health coverage to low-income individuals, including some older adults.
Soldier in the US military: Active-duty military personnel and their families typically qualify for government health insurance through the Department of Defense's TRICARE program. TRICARE provides comprehensive healthcare coverage for service members and their dependents.
It is important to note that eligibility for government health insurance programs can vary based on specific criteria, such as income level, employment status, and military service. The hospital administrator and famous actress mentioned in the options may or may not qualify for government health insurance based on their individual circumstances, such as their income level or access to employer-sponsored health insurance. Therefore, Option B and C is correct.
The question was incomplete. find the full content below:
Who most likely qualifies for government health insurance? Check all that apply.
A. hospital administrator
B. soldier in the US military
C. seventy-year-old retired farmer
D. famous actress
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Hilda is being admitted to the hospital for open heart surgery. She reports being diagnosed with hypertension and Type 2 Diabetes, and taking medication for both disorders. Hilda is 65 years old. She reports her usual weight is 320 pounds. Hilda is able to provide a typical day of food intakes prior to admission that you enter into diet analysis software. During your assessment, you obtain a current weight of 290 pounds and height of 5 feet 6 inches. You observe physical signs of edema in her limbs. She is currently NPO in preparation for surgery.
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Which labs would be most helpful to use with your physical exam to identify her fluid status?
Which labs would be most helpful to use with your physical exam to identify her fluid status?
Serum electrolytes
Serum proteins
Red Blood Cell count
Glycated hemoglobin (HA1C)
The labs would be most helpful to use with the physical exam to identify Hilda's fluid status will be serum proteins.
What is Diabetes?When your blood glucose, also known as blood sugar, is too elevated, you develop diabetes. Your primary energy source is blood glucose, which is obtained from the food you consume. The pancreas produces the hormone insulin, which facilitates the entry of food-derived glucose into your cells for energy production. Your body occasionally produces insufficient or no insulin, or it uses insulin poorly. After that, glucose remains in your circulation and does not enter your cells.
What is Edema?When too much fluid is confined in the body's tissues, it causes swelling, or edema. Any area of the body is susceptible to edema. But the legs and feet are more prone to exhibit it.
What are Serum Proteins?Total protein, another name for serum total protein, is a clinical chemistry measure that indicates the level of protein in serum. Serum includes a wide range of proteins, including serum albumin and numerous globulins.
The quantity of protein in your blood is determined by a total protein test. The health and development of the body's cells and organs depend on proteins. The exam can aid in the diagnosis of several medical conditions.
In this question, the labs which would be most useful with our physical exam to identify her fluid status will be Serum Proteins.
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The client states that prior to exams at school, the client has abdominal cramping and diarrhea. what does the nurse suspect is the trigger for these signs and symptoms?
The nurse should suspect a functional diarrhea disorder as a trigger for the symptoms.
What is functional diarrhea disorder?Functional diarrhea (FD), one of the functional gastrointestinal disorders, is characterized by chronic or recurrent diarrhea not explained by structural or biochemical abnormalities.
The treatment of Functional diarrhea (FD) is intimately associated with establishing the correct diagnosis.
Thus, from the information given we can conclude that the client is describing functional diarrhea disorder where the diarrhea occurs as a result of stress or anxiety.
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Exercise is something that should be __________. A. painful B. inconvenient C. enjoyable D. exhausting Please select the best answer from the choices provided. A B C D
Answer:
C. enjoyable
Explanation:
Hope this helps! :)
Exercise is something that should be enjoyable.
Why exercise is enjoyable?
Physical activity stimulates various brain chemicals and happy hormones that can make you feel happier, more relaxed and reduce anxiety.
By doing exercise regularly, you can feel better about your appearance and feel more confident.
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Imagina que tocas algo muy áspero que te resulta muy doloroso que información envías a tu cerebro ? Qué respuesta crees que dará tu cerebro a esta situación?
If you are very hopeful that you will be very painful, the pain receptors in your skin will send electrical signals through your nerves to your spinal cord and then to your brain to inform it of your painful experience.
This information will be processed by the brain, which will produce an immediate response of withdrawing the awaiting object's hand. Furthermore, the brain will send signals to activate the sympathetic nervous system, increasing cardiac frequency and arterial pressure, and releasing hormones such as adrenalin to prepare the body to respond to a dangerous situation.
To summarize, when you experience pain, your brain receives signals from your nerves and responds with an immediate response to protect your body from harm.
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Translated Question ;
Consider that you are very hopeful that information is being sent to your brain. What response do you think your mind will give to this situation?
some patients whose depression resists drugs have benefited from which experimental treatment?
In context to the given statement, there are numerous experimental treatments for depression that have been studied and tested. These treatments are psychedelic treatments with psilocybin which provides to relieve major depressive disorder symptoms in adults for a month.
Another experimental treatment is transcranial magnetic stimulation which creates good results in treating depression. Plus, an experimental depression treatment called SAINT has been found to be nearly 80% effective in controlled studies.
The full form of SAINT is Stanford accelerated intelligent neuromodulation therapy.
So in comparison to the other type of treatments, SAINT is considered superior in the field of providing a non-invasive treatment.
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A deficiency in __________ is experienced by the majority of children under age 5 in developing countries; this deficiency leads to fatigue, irritability, and difficulty sustaining attention.
A deficiency in iron is experienced by the majority of children under age 5 in developing countries.
What is iron deficiency?Iron deficiency is defined as the lack of sufficient iron in the body leading to a type of anemia called iron deficiency anemia.
The clinical manifestations of this deficiency include;
fatigue, irritability, and difficulty sustaining attention.It is usually experienced by the majority of children under age 5 in developing countries.
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As a Medical Technologist, what would like to contribute in medical field.
Answer:
Hi here goes my answer and I hope this may help you, may you have a successful day. Look down there goes the answer!
Here goes my answer:
The restorative technologist inquiries about and creates modern specialized applications for the healthcare industry, as a rule at a clinic or autonomous restorative research facility. They help restorative experts by analyzing the patient’s natural tests and contribute to the patient’s wellbeing arrange by diagnosing and making a treatment procedure.
Explanation:
Which is an important assessment step to identify risk for HIV?
Answer:
Sexual and drug substance use risks should be determined during a routine health history with every new patient and updated regularly during periodic health care.
Risk assessment helps to identify individuals at risk; support recommendations for HIV, STD, and hepatitis screening; and establish risk reduction education topics and strategies.
Risk assessment can help people who are already infected access treatment
and learn how to avoid transmitting HIV to others.
Explanation:
Patient presents with classic features of metabolic syndrome. As a health care professional, what treatment would you recommend for the patient’s diet, activity and medications, if needed?.
The following are recommend for the patient’s diet, activity and medications taking into consideration that Patient presents with classic features of metabolic syndrome:
eating a “heart-healthy diet” that is low in sugar, fat, and sodium.engaging in regular exercise.avoiding smoking and reducing alcohol intake.What is metabolic syndrome?metabolic syndrome is described as a cluster of conditions that increase the risk of heart disease, stroke and diabetes including high blood pressure, high blood sugar, excess body fat around the waist and abnormal cholesterol levels.
Patients with metabolic syndrome are advised to avoiding smoking and reducing alcohol intake, engaging in regular exercise and lots more.
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Failure to notice something that is completely visible because of a lack of attention is called
Answer:
inattentional blindness
Explanation: The statement of question is the definition
Using the ICD-10-CM code book, identify the main term in the Alphabetic Index for External Causes of Morbidity for the following diagnosis: Initial encounter for injury sustained due to nightgown catching fire while cooking breakfast in the kitchen of her mobile home. List the main term to report the activity.
The main term in the Alphabetic Index for External Causes of Morbidity for the diagnosis "Initial encounter for injury sustained due to nightgown catching fire while cooking breakfast in the kitchen of her mobile home" would be "Injury," and the activity would be "Cooking and baking."
What is an ICD-10-CM code book?The International Classification of Diseases, Tenth Revision, Clinical Modification (ICD-10-CM) is a system used by healthcare providers to classify and code all diagnoses, symptoms, and procedures recorded in medical records.
The ICD-10-CM code book is a reference manual that contains the complete list of codes, along with guidelines for their use, that healthcare providers use to report medical diagnoses and procedures for billing and research purposes.
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the food and drug administration mandates that all new medications undergo which type of research?
The Food and Drug Administration mandates that all new drugs undergo a type of clinical research.
Clinical research is the branch of health science that determines the safety and effectiveness (efficacy) of medications, medical devices, diagnostic products, and treatment therapies intended for human use.
Clinical research stages are stages in clinical research when scientists conduct health intervention trials to obtain sufficient evidence that the intervention is considered effective as a medical treatment.
For drug development, the clinical stage starts with safety testing on a few people as subjects, then expands to many study participants (potentially up to tens of thousands of participants) to determine whether the treatment is effective. Clinical research is carried out on drug candidates, vaccine candidates, new medical devices, and new diagnostic tests.
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As a young child: Haung was a premature baby who always seemed to be getting sick. Out of fear for their son's health, Haung's parents kept him at home and, for the most part, away from other children. Huang's first grade teacher described his as "a good student, but very shy." Complete the description as an older child and as a young adult.
Answer:
Huang's third grade teacher described him as "a gentle boy with less friends, not too smart and showing signs of depression"
Huang's college lecturer described him as "a very intelligent young adult, who is an introvert, depressed, and not healthy physically"
Research has shown that social isolation of children often results in mental disorders, including depressive disorders, and long-term illnesses. It doesn't have a negative effect on brilliance.
Pain in throat and loss of voice are generally a sign of
Answer:
Laryngitis
Explanation:
Answer:
"Laryngitis is contagious if it is caused by an infection. The most common signs and symptoms of laryngitis are hoarseness, loss of voice, and throat pain. Additional signs and symptoms of laryngitis in adults may include dry, sore throat, pain with swallowing, and a feeling of fullness in the throat or neck."
Is 14/25 greater then 3/5
Answer:
yes although
5
3
is greater than
14
25
Explanation:
medical prescription: aminophylline 50 mg orally 8/8 hours. available: 5% aminophylline solution - 50ml bottles. how many ml should be given?
Answer:
To calculate how many mL of the 5% aminophylline solution should be given, we need to use the formula:
(amount of medication needed / concentration of medication available) x volume of medication available = volume of medication to be administered
Using this formula, we can calculate the volume of the aminophylline solution to be given as follows:
(amount of medication needed) = 50 mg (concentration of medication available) = 5% (volume of medication available) = 50 mL
First, we need to convert 50 mg to grams by dividing by 1000:
50 mg / 1000 = 0.05 g
Next, we need to calculate the amount of aminophylline solution required. We can do this by rearranging the formula as follows:
(volume of medication to be administered) = (amount of medication needed / concentration of medication available) x volume of medication available
(volume of medication to be administered) = (0.05 g / 0.05 g/mL) x 1 mL
(volume of medication to be administered) = 1 mL
Therefore, to administer 50 mg of aminophylline orally every 8 hours, 1 mL of the 5% aminophylline solution should be given.
Explanation:
a one-year post-thyroidectomy patient who had thyroid cancer is coming in for area imaging of the neck and chest to evaluate for metastases. what cpt® code(s) is/are reported for the nuclear medicine exam?
The CPT® code(s) reported for the nuclear medicine exam of a one-year post-thyroidectomy patient with thyroid cancer to evaluate for metastases would depend on the specific procedure performed.
To accurately determine the CPT® code(s) for the nuclear medicine exam you described, more specific information is needed, such as the type of imaging procedure being performed. However, I can provide you with some commonly used CPT® codes for nuclear medicine imaging procedures related to evaluating metastases after a thyroidectomy. Please note that the specific code(s) will depend on the procedure performed and the documentation provided by the healthcare provider. It's always recommended to consult the official CPT® coding manual or seek guidance from a certified medical coder or healthcare professional for accurate coding. Here are a few possible CPT® codes for nuclear medicine imaging related to metastatic evaluation:
1. Whole body nuclear medicine imaging:
- CPT® code 78815: Whole body PET imaging, with concurrently acquired CT for attenuation correction and anatomical localization.
2. Specific region nuclear medicine imaging:
- CPT® code 78812: Planar imaging, single area (e.g., neck, chest), without tomographic imaging.
- CPT® code 78813: Planar imaging, multiple areas (e.g., neck, chest), without tomographic imaging.
3. SPECT (single-photon emission computed tomography) imaging:
- CPT® code 78801: SPECT, single study.
- CPT® code 78803: SPECT, multiple studies.
Please note that these are just examples of CPT® codes commonly used for nuclear medicine imaging. The specific code(s) will depend on the specific procedure performed and the documentation provided by the healthcare provider. It is essential to consult the official CPT® coding manual or seek guidance from a certified medical coder or healthcare professional for accurate coding specific to the patient's situation.
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which surgery do you think would have the most profound effect on digestion
-removal of the stomach (gastrectomy)
-removal of the pancreas (pancreatectomy)
-removal of the gallbladder (cholecystectomy)
Answer:
Removal of the pancreas would have the most severe effects on absorption because most chemical digestion occurs in the small intestine. Absorption requires the action of pancreatic enzymes, making the pancreas the most important.
Hope this helps! :))
Explanation:
What agencies typically manage incidences involving hazardous materials?
Agencies that typically manage incidents involving hazardous materials include the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA), and local emergency responders such as fire departments and hazardous materials (HAZMAT) teams.
The EPA is responsible for protecting human health and the environment by enforcing regulations and providing guidance on handling hazardous materials. They ensure proper cleanup and disposal of hazardous substances and work closely with other agencies during emergency response situations.
OSHA focuses on worker safety and health, creating and enforcing standards for handling hazardous materials in the workplace. They provide training and resources to help employers and employees minimize the risks associated with handling hazardous substances.
Local emergency responders, such as fire departments and HAZMAT teams, are usually the first on the scene during incidents involving hazardous materials. They assess the situation, identify the hazardous substances, and take appropriate actions to contain and mitigate any potential hazards.
In summary, the EPA, OSHA, and local emergency responders are the primary agencies responsible for managing incidents involving hazardous materials, with each agency focusing on specific aspects such as environmental protection, workplace safety, and emergency response.
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What equipment is generally used to make lyophilized medications suitable for administering to the patient? a) Test tubes or sterile ampules O b) Petri dishes and sterile droppers c) Sterile syringes or graduated cylinders d) Measuring cups and clean, warm water
Answer: Petri dishes and sterile droppers
Explanation:
A nurse weighs a newborn as 3545g. The nurse knows that this the equivalent of how many pounds and ounces. Round ounces to the nearest tenth pounds and ounces
Rounding the ounces to the nearest tenth, we get 13.0 ounces. So, the weight of the newborn is approximately 7.8 pounds and 13.0 ounces.
To convert the weight of the newborn from grams to pounds and ounces, we can use the following conversion factors:
1 pound = 453.59237 grams
1 ounce = 28.34952 grams
First, we need to convert the weight from grams to pounds. We divide the weight in grams by the conversion factor for pounds:
3545 g / 453.59237 g = 7.814699 lb
Next, we need to convert the remaining decimal part (after converting to pounds) from pounds to ounces. We multiply the decimal part by 16 (since there are 16 ounces in a pound):
0.814699 lb * 16 = 13.034786 oz
Rounding the ounces to the nearest tenth, we get 13.0 ounces. Therefore, the weight of the newborn is approximately 7.8 pounds and 13.0 ounces.
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Complete question is:
A nurse weighs a newborn as 3545g. The nurse knows that this the equivalent of how many pounds and ounces. Round ounces to the nearest tenth______ pounds and______ ounces
A nurse is explaining the clinical manifestations of diabetic nephropathy (diabetic glomerulosclerosis) to a patient. Which would be the most important information for the nurse to provide?
a. It is not necessary to stop smoking.
b. A decrease in GFR will occur with early alterations.
c. Microalbuminuria is a predictor of future nephropathies.
d. Blood glucose control has no impact on GFR.
The most important information for the nurse to provide to the patient is that microalbuminuria is a predictor of future nephropathies.
Microalbuminuria is an early indicator of diabetic nephropathy and occurs when the kidneys are unable to filter out small amounts of albumin, a protein found in urine. This is usually an indication that the kidneys are already starting to be damaged and that further damage is likely if proactive steps are not taken.
Therefore, it is essential for the nurse to explain to the patient that controlling blood glucose levels and making lifestyle changes, such as stopping smoking, are important in order to prevent further kidney damage.
Monitoring urine albumin levels can help to identify kidney damage before more serious symptoms present. It is also important for the nurse to explain that the decrease in glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is an early alteration of diabetic nephropathy and that it is unrelated to blood glucose control.
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Which of the following statements is FALSE about alcohol?
Blood alcohol concentration slowly increases as it is absorbed from the stomach and the small intestine.
Appears in the blood a few minutes after it has been consumed
BAC levels are identical for all individuals who drink the same amount in a given time
Alcohol concentration slowly decreases until level returns to a zero.
Answer:
BAC levels are identical for all individuals who drink the same amount in a given time
BAC levels are identical for all individuals who drink the same amount in a given time. So, the correct option is (C).
What are BAC level?BAC stands for Blood Alcohol Content. It is also called blood alcohol concentration. It is described as a measure of the intoxication of an alcohol used for legal or medical purposes. It is expressed as mass per volume of alcohol or mass of blood.
Alcohol is the major intoxicant found in many intoxicated drinks. When we drink a beverage that contains alcohol, the stomach and small intestine rapidly absorb the alcohol and mix it into the bloodstream. Alcohol is toxic to the body, so when the liver metabolizes alcohol to filter it from the blood.
Levels can range from 0% (no alcohol) to over 0.4% (a potentially fatal level) which are not identical for all individuals who drink the same amount in a given time.
Thus, BAC levels are identical for all individuals who drink the same amount in a given time. So, the correct option is (C).
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Question content area top
Part 1
Dr. Johnson has just seen 56-year-old Patrick Ghastin. Mr. Ghastin has been experiencing severe headaches and neck pain over the past three months. Dr. Johnson, a doctor of osteopathic medicine, suspects that Mr. Ghastin might have a misalignment of his spinal column, which could be causing the headaches and neck pain. Dr. Johnson has informed Mr. Ghastin that he would like to refer him to a chiropractor. At the end of the visit, Dr. Johnson says goodbye to Mr. Ghastin and informs him that his assistant, Priysha, will be in to go over his paperwork before he leaves.
As Priysha begins to review the doctor's orders with Mr. Ghastin, he interjects, "What is a chiropractor, anyway? I've heard that they aren't real doctors." With a chuckle, Priysha replies, "I HAVE NO IDEA WHAT A CHIROPRACTOR ACTUALLY DOES; YOUR GUESS IS AS GOOD AS MINE."
Mr. Ghastin is less than impressed with Priysha's response. "Well, I don't plan on going to see any chiropractor. I'll just try taking more of my pain medications. That will probably help." Priysha replies, "IT IS UP TO YOU, MR. GHASTIN. JUST BE SURE TO LET US KNOW HOW YOU ARE FEELING."Review the first boldface statement. Was Priysha's response appropriate for explaining the type of practice that is typically provided by a chiropractor?
Part2
Review the second boldface statement. Was Priysha's final response to Mr. Ghastin appropriate?
Priysha's response was not appropriate for explaining the type of practice that is typically provided by a chiropractor. As a healthcare professional, Priysha should have a basic understanding of the services
What is the right approach?Priysha's response to the second boldface statement was generally suitable in terms of upholding Mr. Ghastin's autonomy and letting him decide how he would be treated.
She may have, however, been more proactive in urging Mr. Ghastin to seek additional medical care and consider all of his treatment options.
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some planctomycetes contain membrane-bound structures called annamoxosomes in which ammonia is oxidized. why is a tightly sealed membranous compartment important for this function?
The tightly sealed membranous compartment, known as annamoxosomes, is important for the function of ammonia oxidation in planctomycetes because it provides a specialized environment for the process to occur.
Ammonia oxidation is a complex reaction that involves the transfer of electrons and the production of energy. By compartmentalizing this process within annamoxosomes, planctomycetes are able to maintain optimal conditions for the reaction to occur efficiently. Additionally, the membrane-bound structure helps to protect the cell from the toxic byproducts that are generated during the reaction. This allows planctomycetes to thrive in environments with high ammonia concentrations, such as marine sediments or wastewater treatment systems. Overall, the annamoxosome is an important adaptation for planctomycetes to carry out ammonia oxidation in a specialized and efficient manner.
The presence of a tightly sealed membranous compartment like annamoxosomes in some planctomycetes is important for the oxidation of ammonia because:
1. Separation of reactions: Annamoxosomes provide a separate space within the cell to carry out the specific process of ammonia oxidation without interference from other cellular reactions.
2. Maintenance of optimal conditions: The membrane-bound structures ensure that the ideal environmental conditions (e.g., pH, concentration of substrates, and other factors) for ammonia oxidation are maintained.
3. Efficient energy conservation: The compartmentalization allows the planctomycetes to generate energy more efficiently by creating a proton gradient across the annamoxosome membrane, which drives ATP synthesis.
4. Protection of cellular components: Ammonia oxidation can produce toxic by-products like hydrazine. A tightly sealed compartment helps in protecting the rest of the cell from these harmful substances.
In summary, annamoxosomes in planctomycetes play a crucial role in maintaining an efficient and controlled environment for ammonia oxidation while protecting the cell from potential harm.
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a mother asks the nurse if her 5-year-old can visit his twin brother in the pediatric intensive care unit (picu) after cardiac surgery. the nurse denies the request because hospital policy states that children younger than 12 years of are not allowed to visit the picu. this illustrates which of benner's states of nursing proficiency?
This illustrates Benner's state of nursing proficiency known as "Novice".
What do you mean by nursing?
Nursing is a profession within healthcare in which nurses use evidence-based practice and critical thinking to assess, plan, implement, and evaluate the care for individuals, families, groups, and communities to promote, maintain, or restore health. Nurses use a holistic approach and collaborate with other healthcare professionals to ensure optimal health outcomes.
Novice nurses are expected to rely heavily on policies and procedures to make decisions. In this situation, the nurse is following the hospital policy and is relying on it to make the decision to deny the request.
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Subjective: Here to follow up on her atrial fibrillation. No new problems. Feeling well. Medications are per medication sheet. These were reconstituted with the medications that she was discharged home on. Objective: Blood pressure is 110/64. Pulse is regular at 72. Neck is supple. Chest is clear. Cardiac normal sinus rhythm. Assessment: Atrial fibrillation, currently stable. Plan: 1. Prothrombin time to monitor long term use of anticoagulant. 2. Follow up with me in one month or sooner as needed if she has any other problems in the meantime. Will also check a creatinine and potassium today. What diagnosis code(s) are reported
Diagnosis code(s) are reported :
F03.90M25.511I11.9E11.9Diagnosis codeTo categorize and identify illnesses, disorders, symptoms, poisonings, negative effects of medications and chemicals, injuries, and other causes for patient contacts, diagnostic codes are employed in the medical field. Diagnostic coding is the process of converting textual descriptions of ailments, injuries, and diseases into codes that fall under a certain categorization.
In the clinical coding procedure for medical categorization, diagnostic codes are utilized with intervention codes. A medical classification expert such as a clinical coder or a health information manager assigns the diagnostic and intervention codes.
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Components of Provision 7
Which part of Provision 7 encourages professional collaboration to promote change?
Contributions through nursing and health policy development
Contributions through research and scholarly inquiry
This action is not addressed in Provision 7
Contributions through developing, maintaining, and implementing professional practice standards
This action of professional collaboration to promote change is not addressed in Provision 7.
What is the Nursing Code of Ethics?The Nursing Code of Ethics is described as a statement of the ethical values, responsibilities and professional accountabilities of nurses and nursing students that defines and guides ethical nursing practice within the different roles nurses assume.
The Provision 7 of the Nursing Code of Ethics summarizes that the nurse, in all roles and settings, advances the profession through research and scholarly inquiry, professional standards development, and the generation of both nursing and health policy.
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