Answers
The best response by the nurse when a client who has had an ST segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) asks about the resumption of sexual activity would be to inform the client that they should discuss this with their healthcare provider.
After a STEMI, it is important for the client to follow their healthcare provider's instructions for post-STEMI care. This may include recommendations for resuming sexual activity. The nurse should not give specific recommendations about when to resume sexual activity, as this is a decision that should be made by the client and their healthcare provider based on their individual circumstances and medical history. Therefore, the best response by the nurse would be to encourage the client to discuss this with their healthcare provider.
Related Questions
3. A Medical Assistant's friend, who is a patient where she works, asks her to bring home some
antibiotics for her because she cannot afford to pay for them at the pharmacy. Is this a personal or
professional ethical conflict? Provide possible ways the Medical Assistant could reconcile this
conflict. What impact would this have?
Answers
Answer:This is a personal ethical conflict because not only would The medical assistant may lose her his/her job but they can also be charged with a crime the Medical Assistant could reconcile this by telling his/her friend that they would love to help but that is against the law but he/she can go to the pharmacy and help the friend sign up
Explanation:
THIS CAME STRAIGHT FROM MY HEAD AND MY TEACHER SO I HOPE THIS HELPS
Which substance would be most important for the nurse to determine if the client is taking due to it intensifying the serious adverse effect of acetaminophen?
Answers
Alcohol would be most important for the nurse to determine if the client is taking it as an administration due to it intensifying the serious adverse effect of acetaminophen.
Acetaminophen as AntitussiveAs an antitussive, hydrocodone/acetaminophen is frequently employed. To help healthcare professionals guide patient therapy and get the best results, this activity describes the indications, mechanism of action, routes of administration, notable adverse effects, contraindications, monitoring, and toxicity of hydrocodone/acetaminophen.
Hydrocodone is one of the most frequently specified painkillers by doctors and nurses as one of the most commonly abused by patients.
It is a probably potent medication for controlling pain starting from moderate to severe pain in postoperative patients, trauma patients, or cancer patients.
Numerous randomized trials through the nurses have shown that combining acetaminophen and hydrocodone is significantly more effective while maintaining the same level of side effects.
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Correct Question
A nurse is caring for an older adult who is taking acetaminophen (Tylenol) for the relief of chronic pain. Which substance is most important for the nurse to determine if the client is taking because it intensifies the most serious adverse effect of acetaminophen?
1) Alcohol
2) Caffeine
3) Saw palmetto
4) St. John's wort
To assign an ICD-10 code to a diagnosis in the medical chart, first you must identify and locate
the
which describes the condition, disease, reason for a visit or eponym.
Answers
ICD-10 diagnosis code is used for medical claim reporting. When assigning the ICD-10 code one must identify and locate the correct documentation with details of condition, disease and reason for the visit.
Why to assign an ICD-10 code?ICD0-10 coding enhance the quality of data for tracking public health condition, improve data for epidemiological research etc. It also supports the medical need for the service and inform the payer about the services performed.
Thus, to assign ICD-10 code it is necessary to identify and locate the correct documents describing the condition, disease and reason for the visit.
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To assign a ICD-10 code it is necessary to describe the condition, location, disease and the reason for the visit.
ICD stands for International Statistical Classification of Disease and Health related problems. It provides information about the extent, causes and consequences of the human disease and death worldwide by the data which is coded with ICD code.
ICD-10 code contains all the codes about the signs, symptoms, health problems, circumstances, abnormalities and external causes of the injuries or diseases.
Assigning of the ICD 10 code increases the quality of the data. It become easier to track the health condition of the people and epidemiological researches. This allows the data to be shared and compared between the countries consistently and standardly.
Thus, to assign a ICD-10 code it is very important to know about the condition, location and reason for visit.
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What were the main reasons German forces aggressively expanded into neighboring countries in the late 1930s? Check all that apply.
to unite German-speaking peoples
to gain access to natural resources
to stop Polish expansion into the Sudetenland
to reclaim lands lost after World War I
to bring European Jews to Germany
Answers
Answer:
to reclaim lands lost after World War I
Explanation:
True or False - Using secured and encrypted laptops is one way to deter an impermissible use or disclosure that could result in a breach.
Answers
Answer:
True.
Explanation:
The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) of 1996 was a bill enacted by the 104th U.S Congress and was signed in 1996 by President Bill Clinton. It is a federal law that protects sensitive patient health information from being disclosed without their knowledge, approval or consent and payment of health care insurance for employees.
e-PHI is an abbreviation for electronic protected health information and it can be defined as the health information of a patient which must be generated, stored, transfered or received only in a digital (electronic) format.
In the United States of America, the management of e-PHI is governed by HIPAA Security Rule. Thus, electronic protected health information guarantees confidentiality and the integrity of a health facility and its staffs with respect to a patient.
Encryption is a form of cryptography and typically involves the process of converting or encoding informations in plaintext into a code, known as a ciphertext. Once, an information or data has been encrypted it can only be accessed and deciphered by an authorized user.
Hence, using secured and encrypted laptops is one way to deter an impermissible use or disclosure that could result in a breach, as it requires verifying the identity of an individual or electronic device through authentication.
The following test have all been ordered at the same time on different inpatients. There is
only one phlebotomist on duty. Which one would the phlebotomist collect first?
Answers
I need help on my ethical dilemma paper about comfort care in terminally ill patients. Can someone help me?
Answers
what’s the potential role of inflammation in atherosclerosis progression?
Answers
Answer:
Explanation:
Inflammation plays a very important role in atherosclerosis progression, due to the fact that it separates and identifies the stage of the plaque. Stable plaques are characterized by a chronic inflammatory infiltrate, while on the other hand vulnerable and ruptured plaques are represented by an ongoing inflammation which causes the fibrous cap to thin out and may lead to that plaque rupturing.
which condition is often misdiagnosed in the older adult patient with acute glomerulonephritis?
Answers
The condition is often misdiagnosed in the older adult patient with acute glomerulonephritis is Congestive heart failure.
Glomerulonephritis may result from a number of illnesses, including infections, inherited genetic conditions, or autoimmune diseases.The diagnosis is made through blood and urine testing, as well as occasionally imaging studies, a kidney biopsy, or both.Until kidney function recovers, people may need to limit their protein and salt consumption and take diuretics or antibiotics.Justification: Older persons are more prone to have acute glomerulonephritis, which has a rarer presentation.Circulatory congestion frequently predominates in the clinical picture of the patient.Congestive heart failure and acute glomerulonephritis are frequently mistaken conditions.
Complete question:Which condition is often misdiagnosed in the older adult patient with acute glomerulonephritis?
A) Aortic aneurysm
B) Congestive heart failure
C) Cerebrovascular accident
D) Transient ischemic attack
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Acupuncture, homeopathy, reflexology, naturopathy, yoga, and biofeedback are what forms of therapies? a. complementary and matriarchal b. alternative and medical c. biomedical and natural d. complementary and alternative
Answers
d. complementary and alternative
Of the controlled substances, which schedule of drugs is the average person most likely to have in their homes? How are the controlled substances in this group different from those in the other schedule levels?
Answers
The schedule of drugs is the average person most likely to have in their homes are Schedule III, IV, and V.
The controlled substances in this group different from those in the other schedule levels as they lower potential for abuse.
What is a controlled substance?Generally speaking, a controlled substance is a drug or chemical whose production, possession, and use are governed by a government, such as illegally used drugs or legally prescribed medications.
Schedule III, IV, and V controlled substances are the most likely to be found in the average person's home. These schedules include drugs that are commonly prescribed for medical conditions, such as certain painkillers, sedatives, and stimulants. These drugs have a lower potential for abuse compared to Schedule I and II drugs and have an accepted medical use. They have a lower potential for addiction, but still, have some potential and have a higher risk of dependence compared to Schedule V drugs.
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why does a blood pressure reading include two different numbers?
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A physical therapist assistant uses a subjective pain scale to assess pain intensity that consists of a 10 cm line with each end anchored by one extreme of perceived pain intensity. The patient is asked to mark on the line the point that best describes their present pain level. Which pain scale is being used here?
Answers
The pain scale being used here is the Visual Analog Scale (VAS).
VAS is a simple and commonly used pain assessment tool that measures the intensity of pain by using a straight line that ranges from 0 to 10 cm in length.
One end of the line represents no pain, while the other end represents the worst pain imaginable. The patient is asked to place a mark on the line at the point that best represents their current level of pain.
VAS is considered to be a subjective pain scale as it relies on the patient's perception of their own pain. It is used to assess the intensity of pain in a variety of clinical settings, including hospitals, clinics, and rehabilitation centers.
VAS is useful because it is easy to use, quick to administer, and provides a numeric score that can be used to track changes in pain intensity over time.
Physical therapist assistants often use VAS to assess pain levels in their patients, especially those who are recovering from injuries or undergoing rehabilitation.
By measuring pain levels, they can adjust treatment plans and monitor progress more effectively.
Overall, the use of the VAS is a reliable and valid tool for assessing pain intensity and is a valuable addition to any healthcare provider's toolkit.
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The pain scale being used by the physical therapist assistant in this scenario is called the Visual Analog Scale (VAS). This scale measures pain intensity by having the patient mark their current pain level on a 10 cm line with each end representing the extremes of perceived pain intensity.
The Visual Analog Scale is a subjective pain assessment tool that consists of a straight line or bar, usually 10 cm in length, with one end representing "no pain" and the other end representing "worst pain imaginable." The patient is asked to mark on the line or bar the point that best represents their current level of pain intensity. The distance from the "no pain" end to the marked point is measured, typically in centimeters, and used as a numerical representation of the patient's pain level.
The VAS is a reliable and valid pain assessment tool that is widely used in clinical settings. It allows for a quick and easy pain assessment that can be easily understood by patients. Additionally, the use of a visual scale can be particularly useful for patients who may have difficulty communicating their pain verbally, such as young children, individuals with cognitive impairments, or those with language barriers.
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What information concerning disulfiram should you communicate to the patient
Answers
Answer:
flushing (warmth, redness, or tingly feeling);
sweating, increased thirst, swelling, rapid weight gain;
nausea, severe vomiting;
neck pain, throbbing headache, blurred vision;
chest pain, shortness of breath (even with mild exertion);
fast or pounding heartbeats or fluttering in your chest;
confusion, weakness, spinning sensation, feeling unsteady; or
a light-headed feeling, like you might pass out.
More severe symptoms may occur when disulfiram and large amounts of alcohol are used together, such as severe chest pain spreading to your jaw or shoulder, slow heart rate, weak pulse, seizure, fainting, weak or shallow breathing, or slow breathing (breathing may stop). A disulfiram-alcohol reaction can be fatal.
Call your doctor at once if you have:
eye pain or sudden vision loss;
confusion, unusual thoughts or behavior; or
liver problems--nausea, upper stomach pain, itching, tired feeling, loss of appetite, dark urine, clay-colored stools, jaundice (yellowing of the skin or eyes).
Common side effects may include:
skin rash, acne;
mild headache, tired feeling;
impotence, loss of interest in sex; or
metallic or garlic-like taste in the mouth.
You should not use disulfiram if you have recently taken metronidazole or paraldehyde, or if you have consumed any foods or products that contain alcohol (mouthwash, cough medicine, cooking wine or vinegar, certain desserts, and others).
Do not take disulfiram if you have consumed alcohol within the past 12 hours. Do not drink alcohol while taking disulfiram, and for up to 14 days after you stop taking this medicine.
Explanation:
1After the IRB reviews and approves your protocol, informed consent, and associated documents, you should receive:
Answers
After approbation, you should receive written notification of the IRB decision and the approved versions of the protocol and informed consent forms. IRB reviews all research projects involving humans.
The Institutional Review Board (IRB) is a panel of experts designated to review biomedical investigations involving human subjects.
This Board (IRB) reviews all research projects before the step of data collection in order to approve (when appropriated), disapprove or modify them.
The main classes of IRB reviews include exempt, expedited, and full.
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Define consultations:
A) Lab results
B) End of shift transition to next shift
C) Form of discussion whereby one professional caregiver gives formal advice about the level of care of a client to another caregiver.
D) Indication by billing on patients ability to pay.
Answers
The correct answer is C) Consultations refer to a form of discussion or communication whereby one professional caregiver gives formal advice or recommendations about the level of care or treatment of a client to another caregiver.
This type of communication typically occurs between healthcare professionals, such as doctors, nurses, or specialists, in order to exchange information or seek guidance on a patient's diagnosis, treatment plan, or management.
Consultations can also involve seeking advice from other healthcare providers or specialists who may have expertise in a specific area or field.
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Shea is a registered nurse. Which of the given roles would come under her scope of work?
A. Clean the patient’s house regularly
B. Provide emotional and physical support to the patient
C. Purchase groceries for the patient
D. Ensure esthetic requirements are met on client’s request
Answers
Answer:
B
Explanation:
I took the test on Plato/edmentum and got it right
Who prescribes medication the psychiatrist or psychologist
Answers
Answer:
Psychiatrists
Explanation:
Psychiatrists can prescribe medicine, Psychologists can not.
Which assessment finding is most important in determining which client has a higher risk for developing testicular cancer
Answers
Testicular cancer is a rare type of cancer that occurs in the testicles. It is usually detected through a physical examination or a scrotal ultrasound.
An important part of assessing a client's risk for testicular cancer is knowing the assessment findings that are most important in determining which client has a higher risk for developing testicular cancer.
The most important assessment finding in determining which client has a higher risk for developing testicular cancer is a testicular mass or lump in the testes. This can be identified by a physical examination or a scrotal ultrasound. A mass or lump in the testes is the most common sign of testicular cancer, and it is usually painless.
Other important assessment findings that can help in determining a client's risk for testicular cancer include swelling or enlargement of the testes, a feeling of heaviness in the scrotum, or a dull ache in the lower abdomen or groin area.
Other risk factors for testicular cancer include a family history of the disease, previous history of testicular cancer, and having an undescended testicle.
In conclusion, a testicular mass or lump in the testes is the most important assessment finding in determining which client has a higher risk for developing testicular cancer.
Other important assessment findings include swelling or enlargement of the testes, a feeling of heaviness in the scrotum, or a dull ache in the lower abdomen or groin area.
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11. ¿Dónde se produce la mucosidad del Recto?
Answers
Answer:
idelxo nimasco lisesajsjsd
Explain the significance of gatekeeping in regards to primary care and keeping health care costs down.
Answers
Gatekeeping is the process of managing access to health care services. It is an important concept in primary care that helps to ensure that health care costs remain low.
Gatekeeping involves the primary care physician making referrals to specialists when needed and determining the best course of action for a patient’s medical care.
By having a primary care physician serve as a gatekeeper, it can help to prevent unnecessary visits to specialists, costly tests, and other treatments that may not be necessary. It also helps to avoid duplications of services and overlapping of care among different providers.
Gatekeeping also encourages preventive care and health education, which can help to reduce long-term health care costs. Gatekeeping can help to keep costs down by ensuring that patients are getting the most appropriate care for their medical needs.
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Personnel issues can contribute to suboptimal cleaning and disinfection in which of the following ways? (NOTE: Please change all question marks to checkmarks for correct answers or empty boxes for incorrect answers.)
check all that apply
Many surfaces are not wiped down by housekeepersunanswered
Variability across housekeeper performanceunanswered
Turnover or shortages of personnelunanswered
Confusion about assigned job tasksunanswered
Area of the countryunanswered
Cultural beliefs of personnelunanswered
Answers
Personnel issues can contribute to suboptimal cleaning and disinfection in the following ways:
✓ Many surfaces are not wiped down by housekeepers
✓ Variability across housekeeper performance
✓ Turnover or shortages of personnel
✓ Confusion about assigned job tasks
Personnel issues can indeed contribute to suboptimal cleaning and disinfection in healthcare settings. Let's look at each option:
Many surfaces are not wiped down by housekeepers: This is a possible issue that can occur if housekeepers fail to thoroughly clean and disinfect surfaces, leading to suboptimal hygiene practices.
Variability across housekeeper performance: If there is inconsistency in the performance and adherence to cleaning protocols among different housekeepers, it can result in suboptimal cleaning and disinfection outcomes.
On the other hand, "Area of the country" and "Cultural beliefs of personnel" are not directly related to personnel issues contributing to suboptimal cleaning and disinfection.
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nurse is planning care for a client with human immunodeficiency virus (hiv). the registered nurse (rn) is delegating responsibilities to a licensed practical/vocational nurse (lpn/vn). which statements by the lpn/vn indicates understanding of hiv transmission? select all that apply.
Answers
The statements by the LPN/VN indicates an understanding of HIV transmission is below
"I will wear a gown, mask, and gloves for all client contact.""I do not need to wear any personal protective equipment because nurses have a low risk of occupational exposure.""I will wear a mask if the client has a cough caused by an upper respiratory infection.""I will wear a mask, gown, and gloves when splashing of body fluids is likely.""I will wash my hands after client care."The human immunodeficiency is a virus that attacks the immune system of the body. AIDS can develop if HIV is not treated (acquired immunodeficiency syndrome). There is currently no effective treatment available.
Human immunodeficiency viruses (HIV) are two types of Lentivirus. Over time, they end up causing acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS), a condition wherein progressive failure of a immune system allows existence opportunistic infections and cancers to thrive. Without treatment, the average HIV infection survival time is estimated to just be 9 to 11 years, depending just on HIV subtype. In most cases, HIV is transmitted through sexual contact or the transfer of blood, pre-ejaculate, sperm, and vaginal fluids.
Non-sexual transmission can occur during pregnancy, during childbirth besides exposure to her blood as well as vaginal fluid, and through breast milk from an infected mother to her infant.
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which is the best position and instruction for a scoliosis client to strengthen lateral benders of the right side of the trunk
Answers
Answer:
Side-lying over an exercise ball, laterally bend to right
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A. _____ can contaminate raw produce; can cause damage to the liver. B. _____ outbreaks have been associated with raw or undercooked eggs and undercooked poultry; can be prevented by thoroughly cooking foods. C. _____ found in the intestinal tracts of cattle; outbreaks have been linked with raw and undercooked ground beef and fresh produce; can be prevented by thoroughly cooking meat. D. _____ found in soil and water; outbreaks have been traced to untreated garlic-and-oil products and improperly canned foods. E. _____ illness from this pathogen can cause diarrhea, nausea, and vomiting; found in contaminated water.
Answers
Answer:
(A) Hepatitis
(B) Salmonella/Salmonellosis
(C)E-Coil
(D) Botulism
(E)Norovirus
Explanation:
And the explanation is already written above
So, identifying the diseases from their description, we associate them as:
(A) Hepatitis
(B) Salmonella/Salmonellosis
(C)E-Coil
(D) Botulism
(E)Norovirus
What diseases can you get from contaminated food?Making the association and defining each of the diseases, we have that:
Hepatitis can contaminate raw produce; can cause damage to the liver;Salmonella/Salmonellosis outbreaks have been associated with raw or undercooked eggs and undercooked poultry; can be prevented by thoroughly cooking foods;E-Coil found in the intestinal tracts of cattle; outbreaks have been linked with raw and undercooked ground beef and fresh produce; can be prevented by thoroughly cooking meat;Botulism found in soil and water; outbreaks have been traced to untreated garlic-and-oil products and improperly canned foods;Norovirus illness from this pathogen can cause diarrhea, nausea, and vomiting; found in contaminated water;See more about diseases at brainly.com/question/8611708
Tertiary endocrine disorders occur due to a problem in the pituitary glar
O True
O False
Answers
Answer:
True
Explanation:
Mr. Jones is a healthy, active 82-year-old man. He exercises regularly and enjoys a variety of foods. Recently he has started gaining weight. He says he eats exactly the same amount of food he ate when he was 30 years younger. How would you explain to Mr. Jones his weight gain, and what suggestions would you make to prevent any additional unwanted weight gain
Answers
In older adults, a change in metabolism contributes to faster weight gain and slower weight loss.
Why do older people gain weight faster?Fat mass increases as muscle mass declines over time. According to studies, having a high proportion of fat mass increases the risk of impairment, mobility difficulties, and poor physical function in older persons.Even though they are less active, many seniors just eat the same amount of food that they did when they were younger. As a result, it's simple for older people to acquire weight without doing anything else.In older adults, a change in metabolism contributes to faster weight gain and slower weight loss. Our digestive processes become less efficient as we age, resulting in less energy from food being burned as calories and more being deposited as fat.How can the weight be controlled?Obesity and its associated chronic disorders have been demonstrated to be prevented by regular physical activity, even in the extremely old or weak elderly. Physical activity that preserves muscle and bone mass should be prioritized for older persons who are overweight.Getting adequate sleep, believe it or not, can help you burn more calories. You crave more food but feel less full due to hormonal changes that occur when you don't get enough sleep.Sleep deprivation is exacerbated by a lack of sleep, which leads to a need for high-energy foods, which are generally sweet or salty.Protein promotes muscle growth, but if certain forms of protein, such as meat, are difficult to consume, focus on softer sources of protein, such as yogurt.learn more about Weight gain in older people here:
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state three qualities of a good drinking water
Answers
Answer:
Color – pure water is colorless; colored water can indicate pollution.
Turbidity – pure water is clear and does not absorb light.
Taste and odor – pure water is always tasteless and odorless.
Explanation:
Which statement best describes morphology
Answers
EHR systems are becoming extremely popular due to their benefits and advantages. These advantages include better quality of care, more accurate patient info, interoperability, increased efficiency, increased revenue, scalability, accessibility, customization, security, and support.
Based on the above advantages I noted; can you elaborate on one and why you think it is a good advantage for patient care?
Answers
EHR systems' accessibility to precise patient data significantly improves patient treatment. It improves decision making for healthcare professionals, lowers medical errors, and facilitates fast and effective therapeutic actions.
Advantages of EHR systems to patientsThe accessibility of more precise patient data is one benefit of electronic health record (EHR) systems that considerably enhances patient care.
All patient data is kept in one place and made available to authorized healthcare practitioners using EHR systems. This implies that when making treatment decisions for a patient, doctors, nurses, and experts involved in their care can quickly and simply obtain the most current and comprehensive information. They have real time access to test findings, imaging reports, prescription histories, and other important information.
EHR systems frequently come with clinical reminders and decision support tools that can assist healthcare professionals in adhering to evidence-based recommendations and best practices.
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