Which of the pairs below are matched correctly for these clostridial pathogens involved in food poisoning?
A) C. botulinum: must grow in the body to produce toxin
B) C. perfringens: produces enterotoxin
C) C. botulinum: produces endotoxin
D) C. perfringens: requires only a small number of cells to produce toxin
Answers
D) C. perfringens: requires only a small number of cells to produce toxin and hence option D is correct
Pathogens are those organisms which are capable of releasing toxins in the body.
What are toxins?
Toxins are those dangerous substances which are capable of causing damages in the body. They may be released by pathogens.
The organism Clostridium botulinum is a harmful pathogen and produces toxins that are poisonous to the human body.
The microorganism which is commonly reputed to cause food poisoning is Clostridium perfringens which must be contained in the meat which Mike ate.
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Related Questions
PLS HELP ME
Which type of reproduction provides organisms with the following disadvantages? Organisms must grow until mature enough to produce sex cells. Finding a mate uses energy and takes time.
A. Asexual Reproduction
B.Sexual Reproduction
Answers
Answer:
Sexual Reproduction is the answer
1.Bacteria, mitochondria and chloroplasts have the following in common:
a) splitting into 2 during reproduction
b)dna
C)do not have a nucleus
D) all of the above
2. Tuble organelles supported marguils endosymbiotic hypothesis is
a) organelles reproduce and are passed from parent-offspring
b) organelles Dna code similar to free-living bacterial relative
c) candidates for organelles precursors inside the cell
d) organelles have genetic material.
3.mitochondria like ______ shares an essential complex trait of using oxygen and breaking food molecules.
a) bacillus anthracis
b)clostridium botulinum
c)bacillus atrophaeus
d)bacillus atrophaeus and bacillus anthracis
Answers
12. What would be the other strand of DNA?
-A T C C G A A GTC C GA G-
Answers
Answer:
TAGGCTTCAGGCTC
Explanation:
The complementary base of Adenine is Thymine in a DNA strand but it is Uracil if it's a Mrna strand
then the complementary base of cytosine is therefore guanine
Classify each cell as haploid or diploid. 1. microspore:
2. first polar body:
3. spermatid:
4. ovum:
5. secondary oocyte:
6. primary spermatocyte:
7. microsporocyte:
8. oogonium:
9. megaspore:
10. spermatogonium:
Answers
Answer:
microspore: haploid
2. first polar body: haploid
3. spermatid: haploid
4. ovum: haploid
5. secondary oocyte: haploid
6. primary spermatocyte: diploid
7. microsporocyte: diploid
8. oogonium: diploid
9. megaspore: haploid
10. spermatogonium: diploid
Your answer
Explanation:
1. Microspore is a haploid spore produced by mostly ferns. They give rise to male gametophytes, which in turn produces sperm cell.
2. Polar body is one of the haploid cells that forms during the process of oogenesis (gametogenesis), specifically when the primary oocyte undergoes an unequal division.
3. A spermatid is an haploid cell that arises from the second meiotic division of the spermatogonia.
4. The ovum is the female gamete of most sexual reproducing organisms. It is also called the EGG CELL. It is haploid.
5. Secondary oocyte are haploid cells that results from the meiotic division of the primary oocyte.
6. Primary oocyte is the diploid cell that starts the meiotic division during oogenesis. It arises from the mitotic division of the oogonium.
7. The microsporocyte is the diploid cell that undergoes meiotic division to produce microspores in ferns and other land plants.
8. Oogonium are the diploid stem cells that initially starts the oogenesis process. It undergoes mitosis to form the primary oocyte, which divides meiotically till the ovum is formed.
9. Megaspore is a haploid spore that gives rise/germinates to the female gametophyte in ferns. The female gametophyte produces the haploid eggs.
10. Spermatogonium are undifferentiated stem cells that produces the sperm cells in males via the process of spermatogenesis. The spermatogonia is diploid in nature
A student observes a cell through a microscope. She notices that it does not have a nucleus but it does have a cell wall, a cell membrane, and numerous ribosomes. Which of the following best describes the type of cell the student is observing?
Answers
Answer:
The cell is a prokaryotic cell
Explanation:
Prokaryotic cells don't have a nucleus or even membrane bound organelles.
An organism has 18 chromosomes in its body cells. Its sex cells have 9 chromosomes.
Which statement correctly explains this?
Answers
For an organism that has 18 chromosomes in its body cells and its sex cells have 9 chromosomes, the correct statement is C, Its sex cells are haploid and a result of meiosis.
What are haploids?Haploid cells have half the number of chromosomes as diploid cells. Mitosis is a type of cell division that produces two identical daughter cells. Meiosis is a type of cell division that produces four daughter cells, each with half the number of chromosomes as the parent cell.
In the organism described, the body cells are diploid (18 chromosomes) and the sex cells are haploid (9 chromosomes). This is because the sex cells are produced by meiosis, which is a type of cell division that reduces the number of chromosomes by half. This allows the sex cells to combine with each other to form a new diploid cell, which is the beginning of a new organism.
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Complete question:
An organism has 18 chromosomes in its body cells. Its sex cells have 9 chromosomes.
Which statement correctly explains this?
Its body cells are haploid and a result of mitosis.
Its sex cells are diploid and a result of mitosis.
Its sex cells are haploid and a result of meiosis.
Its body cells are diploid and a result of meiosis.
Did Atom is the smallest level of organization
Answers
Answer: yes atom is the smallest level of organization
Explanation:
Here is a model of the Sun-Earth system Earth's orbit Earth's axis According to the model, what causes daytime and nighttime on Earth?
O A. The Sun revolves around Earth.
B. Earth revolves around the Sun
C. The Sun spins in space.
D.Earth spins in space
Answers
Answer:
D. Earth spins in space
Explanation:
Day and night are due to the Earth rotating on its axis, not its orbiting around the sun.
5. If Laura rides her bicycle down a straight road for 500 m, then turns around and rides back to where she
started, her distance is
her displacement?
a. greater than
c. the same as
b. less than
d. can't determine
Answers
What are the approximate coordinates of the star Rigel?
5 hours 10 minutes right ascension and -8⁰ declination
5 hours 40 minutes right ascension and -2⁰ declination
5 hours 40 minutes right ascension and 10⁰ declination
6 hours 50 minutes right ascension and 6⁰ declination
Answers
Answer:
5 hours 10 minutes right ascension and -8⁰ declination
Explanation:
The approximate coordinates of the star Rigel are 5 hours 14 minutes right ascension and -8⁰ declination.
(GIVING BRAINLIEST!!!)
Which variable is described as a factor you can change to observe whether or not it has an effect on the outcome variable?
A) Control
B) Hypothesis
C) Test
D) Question
Answers
Answer:
B
Explanation:
Answer:
B) Hypothesis
Explanation:
If the Hemoccult test result is negative, no further testing is done. If the Hemoccult test result is positive, the individual will have a second stool sample tested with the Hemoccult II test. If this second sample also tests positive for blood, the individual will be referred for more extensive evaluation. What is the effect on net sensitivity and net specificity of this method of screening
Answers
Answer:
Hemoccult test sensitivity is 89.3% and specificity is 92.7%
Explanation:
Hemoccult test is a test that is carried out in order to find out the presence of occult blood in your stool. This method is used to detect colorectal cancer in your body. Blue color of the blood indicate that the test is positive while the green color represents that the test is negative. Test sensitivity is the ability of a test which identify the person who is affected with the disease i. e. true positive, whereas test specificity is the ability of the test to correctly identify the patient without the disease. The value of sensitivity of the Hemoccult test is 89.3% the specificity is 92.7%, and the positive predictive value is 2.5%.
Which statement describes a non-native species?
A. It is a poor predator.
B. It increases stability of a community.
C. It has been introduced to a new area.
D. It has no permanent home.
Answers
Answer:
c
Explanation:
a non-native species is a species that isn't familiar/native to the place. if it is introduced or moved to a new area, then it is non-native.
plsss i need helppppppp
Answers
answer: i think the crab
Explanation:
Shredder
Scraper/Grazer
Filter Feeder
Invertebrate Predator
Vertebrate Predator
IIIII
:: Filter water to consume phytoplankton (microalgae) :: Consume leaves and algae and fungi on the leaf surface
:: Consume algae on rocks :: Prey on vertebrates and invertebrates :: Prey on small invertebrates
Match the organism to its proper feeding behavior
Answers
Explanation:
The first organism is a Filter Feeder, which filters water to consume phytoplankton (microalgae).
The second organism is a Scraper/Grazer, which consumes leaves and algae and fungi on the leaf surface.
The third organism is a Shredder, which consumes algae on rocks.
The fourth organism is an Invertebrate Predator, which preys on small invertebrates.
The fifth organism is a Vertebrate Predator, which preys on vertebrates and invertebrates.
A steady state is associated with which of the following terms
Static system
Open system
Closed system
Non-living system
Answers
What information did you include in your answer?
Check all that apply.
the definition of theory
the definition of hypothesis
a reference to repeated experimentation
when a hypothesis is tested
an example of a theory, such as the cell
theory
a connection between the definitions of
theory and hypothesis
Answers
I characterized the theory as a well-supported clarification and the hypothesis as a proposed clarification for testing. I emphasized rehashed experimentation and gave a case of the cell hypothesis.
What is the information I included in my answerBased on the given alternatives, the data included in my answer include:
The definition of theory.The definition of hypothesis.A reference to rehashed experimentation.When a hypothesis is tried.A case of a theory, such as the cell theory.An association between the definitions of theory and hypothesis.I gave the definitions of hypothesis and theory, clarifying that a hypothesis could be a well-substantiated explanation for a marvel whereas a theory may be a proposed clarification to be tried. I said the importance of rehashed experimentation in approving or negating theories.
I too insinuated the method of testing the hypothesis. Furthermore, I advertised the case of the cell theory as a logical hypothesis. In conclusion, I associated the definitions of hypothesis and theory, highlighting their relationship within the logical strategy where hypotheses are proposed and tried to back or challenge existing hypotheses.
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Explain the anatomical concepts associated with human development
Answers
The anatomical concepts associated with human development deals with the ways and different processes in which the body developed from a zygote which is formed from the fusion of the male and female gamete.
What is Development?This is defined as the prices in which the body grows into maturity from the pregnancy stage to adulthood and it starts with the fertilization process which results in the implantation of the zygote in the uterus.
After some weeks, the parts of the body are formed and are usually visible when a scan is done and the body are formed with adequate supply of nutrients in the body which enhances the process of cell division such as mitosis which is responsible for the growth and repair of worn out tissues.
This concept of growth is how humans develop as a result of organs such as the brain etc being involved in this process also which explains how the anatomical concepts are associated with human development.
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ses/17549/discussion_topics/235908
G
NCCT
L
Log In to Canvas Cengage eTextbook
Receptionist and the Medical Office Environment Ethics:
Chapter 5 discusses the emerging role of the medical receptionist, which includes knowing and understanding a wide
variety of laws and regulations, answering an almost constantly-ringing telephone, reviewing insurance cards, determining
insurance types or managed care plans, entering demographic data into the computer, posting a variety of transactions,
scheduling appointments, and professionalism. In other words, working as a receptionist in a medical office should be a
professionally trained medical assistant who is flexible and prepared for a variety of duties.
Scenario:
You are the patient and enter a medical office. You notice a faint smell of urine and approach the reception desk where the
receptionist is talking on the telephone. She never looks up and you wait at the desk for a few minutes, but finally give up
and sit down. She keeps talking while chewing gum and you notice her blouse is low-cut.
Instructions: For your initial post, answer the following 2 questions:
a. Discuss three (3) possible ways you could respond to her without seeming rude or embarrassing her (in your own
words).
b. How should this behavior be addressed? Who should address this employee?
Cl
Answers
a. Discuss three (3) possible ways you could respond to her without seeming rude or embarrassing her (in your own words):
Approach the situation with empathy: Begin by acknowledging the receptionist's presence and politely express your need for assistance. You can say something like, "Excuse me, I'm sorry to interrupt. I have an appointment and was wondering if you could help me with the check-in process?"Express concern and ask for clarification: In a non-confrontational manner, mention the faint smell of urine and inquire if there is a maintenance issue or if they are aware of the situation. You can say, "I noticed a faint smell and wanted to make sure everything is alright. Is there perhaps a maintenance issue that needs attention?"Provide feedback in a constructive manner: Share your observations about the receptionist's behavior without accusing or being judgmental. Use "I" statements to express how their actions made you feel. For example, you could say, "I noticed you were on the phone and it took me a while to get assistance.b. How should this behavior be addressed? Who should address this employee?
The behavior of the receptionist should be addressed to ensure a professional and welcoming medical office environment. Ideally, the responsibility lies with the supervisor or manager of the medical office.
The supervisor or manager should approach the situation with professionalism and sensitivity, providing clear feedback on the observed behavior and its impact on patients.
The discussion should also provide an opportunity for the receptionist to share any challenges they may be facing or reasons for their behavior, allowing for open communication and the possibility of addressing any underlying issues.
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The traits that are controlled by genes found on an x-chromosome are said to be
A: Autosomal Dominant
B: Autosomal Recessive
C: Codominant
D: Sex Linked
Answers
Answer:
I think the answer is D. Sex Linked.
Explanation:
I hope this helps! Correct me if I am wrong.
Which of the following is NOT a necessary input for the process of cellular respiration? 1. CO2 (carbon dioxide) 2. Glucose 3. Sugar 4. O2 (oxygen)
Answers
Answer:
CO2
Explanation:
Hope this helps :)
CO2 (carbon dioxide) is NOT a necessary input for the process of cellular respiration.
What is cellular respiration ?
A series of chemical reactions known as cellular respiration break down glucose into ATP, which can be used as energy to power numerous body processes. Cellular respiration has three main stages: the citric acid cycle, glycolysis, and oxidative phosphorylation. The citric acid cycle takes place in the mitochondrial matrix, glycolysis takes place in the cytosol, and oxidative phosphorylation takes place on the inner mitochondrial membrane. Glucose, ATP, and NAD+ are the cellular respiration starting reactants, the rate-determining enzymes for cellular respiration are phosphofructokinase-1, pyruvate dehydrogenase, and isocitrate dehydrogenase, and the final products include ATP and water. One or more enzymes involved in cellular respiration, like succinyl-CoA-synthase or pyruvate kinase, are typically disrupted by diseases that affect this process.Glycolysis is the only process that can take place without oxygen, and only two ATP molecules can be produced for each glucose molecule. ATP and H2O are the two final end products of cellular respiration. Glycolysis produces two pyruvate molecules, four ATPs (a net of two ATP), two NADH molecules, and two H2O molecules.One acetyl-CoA, one NADH, and one CO2 are produced for each pyruvate molecule when oxygen is present. One GTP, three NADH, one FADH2, and two CO2 are the products of the TCA cycle. GTP is an energy-rich compound similar to ATP that is typically used in environments with lower pH. The electron transport chain can then use NADH and FADH2 to make more ATP as part of oxidative phosphorylation.
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What process releases
the phosphate minerals?
Answers
Answer: weathering
Explanation:
Please help guys! 10 points
Answers
Answer:
Hello the correct answer is D. Porosity is good for soil for it to absorb all of its nutrients. Hope this helps!
According to Newton's first law, an object in motion
will stay in motion unless:
a. A balanced force acts on it
b. An unbalanced force acts on it
c. It stops
d. It remains at rest
Science 6th grade, pls help
Answers
Unless an unbalanced force is acting on an object, Newton's first law states that it will stay at rest or move in a straight line at a constant speed.
What state does Newton's law claim an object in motion will remain in?Newton's first law states that any object will remain at rest or in uniform motion in a straight line unless compelled to change its state by the application of an external force. Inertia is the propensity to resist changes when things are moving.
Does an object that is moving continue to do so?According to Newton's First Law of Physics, moving objects continue to move in the same direction unless they are affected by an imbalanced force. Things moving include among others, the US dollar, rates, inflation, and oil.
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After the discovery of conjugation researchers discovered that they could introduce DNA into some types of bacteria without relying upon this process. Which of the following scenarios illustrates how the researchers could determine which of two types of bacteria exhibit "natural competence"? The different types have different antibiotic resistance genes.
a. Incubate together then check their antibiotic resistance.
b. Incubate together then check for different alleles of a chromosomal gene.
c. Incubate alone then check their antibiotic resistance.
d. Incubate the bacteria with double stranded DNA that contains different alleles of a chromosomal gene.
e. Incubate each alone with double stranded DNA that contains different alleles of a chromosomal gene.
Answers
The scenario that illustrates how the researchers could determine which of two types of bacteria exhibit "natural competence" is option (e): Incubate each alone with double-stranded DNA that contains different alleles of a chromosomal gene.
Which shows natural competence?In this scenario, the researchers would incubate each type of bacteria alone with double-stranded DNA that contains different alleles of a chromosomal gene.
If one type of bacteria takes up the DNA and incorporates it into its genome, then it should display the genetic characteristics of the introduced DNA, including different alleles of the chromosomal gene. This would demonstrate that the bacteria is naturally competent, i.e. capable of taking up DNA from the environment without the need for any special treatment or processes.
By comparing the results from both types of bacteria, the researchers can determine which bacteria exhibit natural competence and are capable of taking up DNA from the environment, which can be useful for genetic manipulation and other research purposes.
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15. What did people use for energy before fossil fuel and electrical power
energy was harnessed?
They used whale oil and steam power to run machines.
O Humans had only their own muscles and a knowledge of levers and
pulleys for power.
Humans used muscle power and direct wind and water power.
Humans burned wood to power their machines.
Answers
Before fossil fuel and electrical power energy were harnessed, Humans used muscle power and direct wind and water power.
The correct option is C.
What is muscle power?Muscle power refers to the power generated by humans during the contraction and relaxation of their muscles.
Muscle power can be used to accomplish a variety of tasks such as lifting objects, walking, running, etc.
Before the discovery of fossil fuels, humans use muscle power as well as wind and water power to accomplish tasks such as driving of motors, sailing ships, cutting trees, etc.
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1. Protists are able to make their own food through photosynthesis.FalseTrue
Answers
Protists have the ability to get food similar to fungi, plants or animals. They gain the sunlight's energy by way of photosynthesis. Protists can photosynthesize.
Answer - True
Which three of the items below are inputs of the photosynthesis.
Answers
The questions provide a list of substances involved in photosynthesis, some are products and some are inputs.
Let's take a look at the photosynthesis equation. On the left, there are the reactants and on the right , anproducts:d in thethe
We can see that on the left side there is carbon dioxide and water, and that light is over the arrow, indicating that is needed for the reaction to occur.
So, the three inputs of photosynthesis are carbon dioxide (b), light (c), and water (f).
In a certain species of plant, the allele to produce green melons (G) is dominant over the allele to produce yellow melons (g). A student performed a cross between a plant that produced green melons and a plant that produced yellow melons. When the student observed the next generation, the 94 seeds that were produced from the cross matured into 53 plants with green melons and 41 plants with yellow melons. Calculate the chi-squared value for the null hypothesis that the green-melon parent was heterozygous for the melon-color gene.
Answers
Answer:
4.26
Explanation:
Let the green-melon parents be Gg, then we expect the cross with the yellow-melon plant gg so as to produce 50% Gg and other 50% of gg offspring. What we observed was that 53 green and a 41 yellow. Based on the total number of 94 offspring , we expected half and a half ratios to be 47 of each color.
Observed(o) Expected(e) (o-e) \($(o-e)^2$\) \($(o-e)^2/e$\)
Green-melon plant 53 47 6 36 0.766
Yellow-melon plant 41 47 -6 36 0.766
Therefore the chi-square value is 1.53 which is less than the critical value of 3.84. Therefore, the null hypothesis is accepted.
why does grass grow on trees
Answers
Answer:
because of something called mossillization
Answer:
Because they ran out of money,JK!
Tbh I have no idea except that maybe the tree needs some nutrition and it might be dying. Or that it combined with the grass roots and they grew into each other.
Explanation:
Hope this helps:)!