which of the following would be least likely to produce an acquired immune deficiency? question 9 options: a) radiation treatment b) malnutrition c) stress d) bacterial infection e) pregnancy

Answers

Answer 1

Pregnancy would be least likely to produce an acquired immune deficiency compared to the other options. Acquired immune deficiency can be caused by factors such as radiation treatment, bacterial infections, malnutrition, and stress. However, pregnancy itself does not necessarily lead to acquired immune deficiency.

Acquired immune deficiency is a condition that occurs when the immune system is weakened, making an individual more susceptible to infections and diseases. The most well-known example of acquired immune deficiency is HIV/AIDS, but there are many other factors that can contribute to a weakened immune system.

Radiation treatment, malnutrition, stress, and bacterial infections are all factors that can potentially weaken the immune system. Radiation and chemotherapy treatments for cancer can weaken the immune system by killing off rapidly dividing cells, including immune cells. Malnutrition can also weaken the immune system by depriving the body of key nutrients needed for proper immune function. Stress can suppress immune function, leading to a weakened immune system, while bacterial infections can directly attack and damage the immune system.

However, pregnancy is not typically associated with acquired immune deficiency. In fact, pregnancy is often associated with a heightened immune response, which can lead to inflammation and potential complications during pregnancy. While some immune system changes do occur during pregnancy to protect the growing fetus, these changes are not typically associated with acquired immune deficiency.

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Related Questions

What if I test positive?

Answers

Stay home for a week and keep out of reach from others .

Does hydroxychloroquine work?

Answers

Answer:

yes

Explanation:

Yeah, it does work,

Functions of patient care depending on lighting and appliances of the life safety and critical branches shall be connected to the essential electrical system alternate power source so that all functions supplied by these branches are automatically restored within ? seconds.

Answers

Functions of patient care depending on lighting and appliances of the life safety and critical branches shall be connected to the essential electrical system alternate power source so that all functions supplied by these branches are automatically restored within 10 seconds 517.32(B).

What is the meaning of patient care in medical terms

It begins by explaining what “patient” means and what medical practice is. Medical practice is the act of providing health services to those in need. There are different types of health services practiced. One is the medical diagnosis and another is the treatment or health service itself. In the medical field, the patient is one of the most important people involved.

Patient care ensures that the patient is kept happy and comfortable with their wellbeing in mind. It is their right to be treated with dignity and care, and they have the right to have their privacy maintained. All the records regarding the treatment should be maintained so that when the patient needs to consult the doctor he can produce his records. The staff should be aware of the different procedures that are to be followed and they should be trained to execute them properly.

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Research the federal policies currently in existence in healthcare that will affect the development and running of the clinic. Make a list of these with the policy number and citation for use in later developing community policy. Be thorough. Think about all levels of health policy including access, safety, quality of care, staffing, financing, and any that apply to non-profits.

Answers

Key federal policies impacting clinics: ACA for access to health insurance, PSQIA for patient safety, MACRA for quality of care, Title VIII for nursing workforce, MACPAC for Medicaid/CHIP, and IRS 501(c)(3) for non-profit status.

There are a number of federal policies in healthcare that can impact the development and operation of a clinic. Some of the key policies that apply to different aspects of healthcare are as follows:

Access:

Affordable Care Act (ACA) (2010) - This law provides access to health insurance to more individuals by mandating insurance coverage for all individuals and making it easier to sign up for coverage.

Safety:

Patient Safety and Quality Improvement Act (PSQIA) (2005) - This law established a framework for reporting and analyzing patient safety events, with the goal of improving the overall safety of healthcare services.

Quality of Care:

Medicare Access and CHIP Reauthorization Act (MACRA) (2015) - This law established a new framework for rewarding providers for high-quality care, with a focus on value-based payments.

Staffing:

Nursing Workforce Development Programs (Title VIII) (1964) - This program provides funding for education and training of nurses, with the goal of increasing the number of nurses available to provide care.

Financing:

Medicaid and CHIP Payment and Access Commission (MACPAC) - This commission provides analysis and recommendations to Congress on Medicaid and CHIP payment and access issues.

Non-profits:

Internal Revenue Service (IRS) Code 501(c)(3) - This code provides tax-exempt status to qualifying non-profit organizations, including healthcare organizations.

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HOW WILL YOU PREVENT ATELECTASIS? SITE NURSING INTERVENTIONS.​

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Answer:

Deep breathing exercises and coughing after surgery can reduce your risk of developing atelectasis. If you smoke, you can lower your risk of developing the condition by quitting smoking before any operation.

Mrs. C was admitted to your hospital for the treatment of an injury sustained from a fall at her home. Upon admission, you conduct a pressure injury risk assessment. T

Answers

To proceed in this scenario of pressure injury risk assessment, you should document the tool score and your additional findings (Option B) and implement interventions that address the risks you have identified (Option D).

Pressure injury risk assessment tools are valuable tools to help healthcare professionals identify patients at risk for developing pressure injuries. However, they should not be used as the sole determinant of patient care. Nursing judgment and additional clinical findings should be considered to ensure comprehensive and individualized care for the patient.In this case, despite the formal, validated tool indicating that Mrs. C is at moderate risk for pressure injury development, your additional finding of a diastolic blood pressure less than 60 and awareness of other risk factors suggest that Mrs. C may be at high risk. These additional risk factors should not be ignored and require appropriate interventions to prevent the development of pressure injuries.Documenting the tool score and your additional findings is important for accurate documentation and communication among the healthcare team. This ensures that everyone involved in Mrs. C's care is aware of the complete risk profile.Implementing interventions that address the risks you have identified is crucial to provide adequate preventive measures. These interventions may include, but are not limited to:Regularly assessing and monitoring the patient's blood pressure to identify any fluctuations or changes that may further increase the risk of pressure injuries.Conducting a thorough skin assessment to identify any existing pressure injuries or areas of compromised skin.Implementing a comprehensive turning and repositioning schedule to relieve pressure on vulnerable areas.Providing appropriate support surfaces, such as pressure-reducing mattresses or cushions, to redistribute pressure and minimize the risk of injury.Educating the patient and their family about the importance of proper nutrition and hydration to maintain skin integrity.Ensuring meticulous hygiene and maintaining clean, dry skin to prevent moisture-related skin breakdown.By following Option B and documenting the tool score along with additional findings, as well as Option D by implementing interventions based on the identified risks, you can provide comprehensive care to mitigate the risk of pressure injury development in Mrs. C.

The probable question could be:

4). Mrs. C was admitted to your hospital for the treatment of an injury sustained from a fall at her home. Upon admission, you conduct a pressure injury risk assessment. The results of the formal, validated tool you used for assessment indicate that Mrs. C is at moderate risk for the development of a pressure injury During your assessment, you find that the patient’s diastolic blood pressure less than 60. This finding, as well as awareness of additional risk factors beyond those included on the risk tool, lead you to believe that the patient is at high risk for pressure injury development. How should you proceed?

A. Document the tool score but ignore your nursing judgment

B. Document the tool score and your additional findings

C. Implement interventions solely based on the tool score

D. Implement interventions that address the risks you have identified

E. A and C

F. B and D

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Which of the following is a common risk factor for endothelial injury?
OA. Atrial fibrillation
OB. High levels of high-density lipoproteins
OC. Hypertension
D. Low levels of low-density lipoproteins

Answers

Answer:

OC. Hypertension

Explanation:

The part of the needle that connects to the syringe is called the:
Select one:
Bevel
Hub
Lumen
Shaft

Answers

The part of the needle that connects to the syringe is called the hub. This is the part that fits onto the tip of the syringe, securing the needle in place. The hub may be made of plastic or metal and is usually color-coded to indicate the needle's gauge or size.

It is important to choose the correct size hub for the syringe to ensure a secure fit and prevent any leakage. The bevel refers to the angled tip of the needle, while the shaft is the long, slender part of the needle that extends from the hub to the bevel. The lumen is the hollow center of the needle through which medication is delivered.

The part of the needle that connects to the syringe is called the "Hub." To provide some context, a needle consists of four main parts: the Bevel, Hub, Lumen, and Shaft. The Bevel is the slanted tip of the needle, which allows for easier penetration of the skin.

The Lumen is the hollow space inside the needle, allowing fluid to pass through. The Shaft is the long, slender part of the needle that connects the Bevel to the Hub.

Finally, the Hub is the part that attaches the needle to the syringe, ensuring a secure connection for proper administration of medication or drawing blood samples.

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The fact that fine motor skills are aided by gross motor skill capabilities underscores the _____.

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

3

medical prescription: aminophylline 50 mg orally 8/8 hours. available: 5% aminophylline solution - 50ml bottles. how many ml should be given?

Answers

Answer:

To calculate how many mL of the 5% aminophylline solution should be given, we need to use the formula:

(amount of medication needed / concentration of medication available) x volume of medication available = volume of medication to be administered

Using this formula, we can calculate the volume of the aminophylline solution to be given as follows:

(amount of medication needed) = 50 mg (concentration of medication available) = 5% (volume of medication available) = 50 mL

First, we need to convert 50 mg to grams by dividing by 1000:

50 mg / 1000 = 0.05 g

Next, we need to calculate the amount of aminophylline solution required. We can do this by rearranging the formula as follows:

(volume of medication to be administered) = (amount of medication needed / concentration of medication available) x volume of medication available

(volume of medication to be administered) = (0.05 g / 0.05 g/mL) x 1 mL

(volume of medication to be administered) = 1 mL

Therefore, to administer 50 mg of aminophylline orally every 8 hours, 1 mL of the 5% aminophylline solution should be given.

Explanation:

A client is taking glucocorticoids for an extended period of time. The nurse would anticipate the client to display which physical signs upon assessment? (Select all that apply.) Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected.

1. Increased urination
2. Constipation
3. Fat deposits on the shoulders
4. Moon face
5. Buffalo hump

Answers

The nurse would anticipate the client to display Increased urination, Constipation, Fat deposits on the shoulders, Moon face and Buffalo hump are physical signs upon assessment.

All the options are correct.

Glucocorticoids are a type of steroid medication which are often used over an extended period of time for a variety of medical conditions. The long-term use of glucocorticoids may result in physical side effects due to its effects on numerous body systems.

Common physical signs that may be witnessed on assessment that are associated with long-term use of glucocorticoids include increased urination, constipation, fat deposits on the shoulders, moon face, and buffalo hump. Increased urination is caused by disruptions in the body’s salt and water balance, while constipation is brought on due to a disruption in the electrolyte balance.

Fat deposits on the shoulders, moon face, and buffalo hump are caused by hyperadrenalism, which occurs when the body produces excess levels of cortisol. All of these physical signs should be taken into consideration when assessing the client taking glucocorticoids for an extended period of time, and these physical signs can indicate the necessity for further interventions and management.

All the options are correct.

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Blood type A+ indicates

a. The lack of anti-B antibodies
b. The presence of RH (Rhesus factor) antigen on the red blood cells
c. Type A blood that is unusually red
d. A certain determination that the blood is type A

Answers

Blood type A+ indicates the presence of Rh antigen on the red blood cells (specifically type A antigens with the presence of a protein called the Rhesus factor)
the answer is b bc i jus think it is

How can you recognize whether an isolated lung is a right or a lenft lung?​

Answers

Answer:

The right lung is always wider and shorter in any circumstance; separated from the liver; has superior, middle, and inferior lobes. The left lung is narrower and longer; has superior and inferior lobes.

organisms that populate the human body and which protect it from disease are termed normal

Answers

Organisms that populate the human body and protect it from disease are called Lymphocytes

What is an Organism?

An organism is a unit of living things that are composed of a combination of all organ systems that work together so that life functions can be formed in it. In the human body, there are various organisms that have their respective duties. One of them is Lymphocytes.

Lymphocytes are leukocytes that are important for maintaining the immune system. There are two main types of lymphocytes, namely B cell lymphocytes and T cells. B lymphocytes function to make antibodies to fight bacteria, viruses, and poisons that attack the body.

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A resident has the right to all of the following, except: Right to pick which room in the facility they want to live in Right to make phone calls Right to make decisions about what to eat Right to receive guests

Answers

A resident has the right to all of the following, except: right to pick which room in the facility.

What is a Facility?

This is defined as a place or a building which is intended for a particular purpose.

It is owned by the landlord who determines who and where the resident should live hence option A was chosen.

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Maria has recently been diagnosed with breast cancer and isrequesting time off to complete her chemotherapy treatment. She isrequesting two days a week for twenty weeks, Maria's request iscovered under Civil Rights Act of 1964,Fair Labor Standards Act,Family and Medical Leave Act,Not covered due to the lengthof therequested leave

Answers

Some employees in the US are entitled to job-protected leave for particular medical and family-related reasons under the Family and Medical Leave Act. Hence option C is correct.

This includes up to 12 weeks of unpaid leave in a calendar year for qualified workers to attend to their own or a member of their immediate family's critical health condition, which may include cancer treatment.

Notwithstanding the fact that the Civil Rights Act of 1964 forbids discrimination on the basis of protected characteristics including race, color, religion, sex, or national origin, it makes no mention of medical leave or time off for medical treatment.

Although it specifies minimum wages, overtime compensation, and other employment regulations, the Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA) does not specifically cover medical leave.

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According to Clevette and colleagues, examples of unsafe, common disciplinary actions reviewed by boards of nursing include all of the following EXCEPT

Answers

Failure to implement safeguards to ensure patient confidentiality of patients protected health information aren't reviewed  by boards of nursing.

Who is a Nurse?

This is a healthcare professional who is involved in taking care of the patient so as to ensure quick recovery.

The nursing board deals with approval of nursing programs and also issues which may arise from direct relationship with the patient  such as abuse so as to ensure the best hands are in the job.

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Developments in medical technology make it possible to:.

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Developments in medical technology make it possible to detect and treat different types of illnesses.

What is medical technology?

The expression medical technology makes reference to the development of new methodologies and devices to enhance heath.

Medical technology has been fundamental for increasing the quality of life of people around the world.

In conclusion, developments in medical technology make it possible to detect and treat different types of illnesses.

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While filling prescriptions one afternoon, Aaron sets one aside because he needs to call the physician to confirm that a refill was prescribed. Hours later, Aaron realizes he had not filled this prescription. He then tells his boss about the mistake, calls the physician’s office, and calls the patient to let her know the prescription is not ready yet and to make sure she has enough medication for the night and the morning. Which professional characteristic does Aaron display when addressing his mistake? dependability precision productivity responsibility

Answers

Answer:

Aaron is displaying Responsibility

Why might hospitals be exempt from the... 25 Why might hospitals be exempt from the ePrescribing core objective? 78 onts Spoed Short Answer Toolbar navigation B I ] Ꭶ SA 63 Print Referenser

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Hospitals may be exempt from the ePrescribing core objective because they may have their own internal electronic prescribing systems in place that do not necessarily meet the requirements of the Meaningful Use program.

Additionally, hospitals may have unique workflows and prescribing needs that make it difficult to conform to the standard ePrescribing requirements. Finally, hospitals may have limited control over the prescribing practices of their affiliated providers, making it difficult to ensure compliance with the ePrescribing core objective.
Hospitals might be exempt from the ePrescribing core objective due to factors like patient safety concerns, technological limitations, or financial constraints. By being exempt, hospitals can address these challenges while still providing quality healthcare to their patients.

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many psychologists believe that our sense of free will is mostly an illusion and that our behavior is mostly determined by external forces. who is the scientist who takes the most extreme version of this position and how does he explain why we do what we do, if not by our own conscious choice?

Answers

The idea that free will is a delusion was first put out by psychologist B.F. Skinner.

He made this statement in an effort to highlight the numerous constraints and pressures that have an impact on how we make decisions because he felt that the notion of complete free will is always subject to a variety of constraints and pressures.

B. F. Skinner has served as their most outspoken and eloquent spokesperson. It is disregarded that ideas like "free will" and "motivation" are just illusions covering up the true reasons of human behaviour. According to Skinner's theory of things, a criminal has little to no control over their actions.

Hence, our behavior is mostly determined by external forces.

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What is the difference between a CBC and a CMP?

A. A CBC checks some components of major cells in the patients blood while a CMP test several different substances mainly metabolism, sugar, and kidney/liver health.

B. A CMP is for heart health testing the function of the arteries and valves while a CBC is a blood test for contents of blood.

C. There is no difference between a CBC and a CMP.

D. A CBC tests the functions of the arteries and valves while a CMP tests the function of different parts of the brain.

Answers

the answer is A.
A CMP is a more targeted test that evaluates sugar, metabolism,kidney, liver
A CBC is mainly the cells in the blood

What are the components of the communication process? ​

Answers

The communication process is made up of four key components. Those components include encoding, medium of transmission, decoding, and feedback. There are also two other factors in the process, and those two factors are present in the form of the sender and the receiver

what is 4(504+69)2 please help me

Answers

Answer:

4584

Explanation:

504+69=573

573x4=2292

2292x2=4584

mark me as brainliest?

Answer:

278208

Explanation:

a client with a sacral pressure ulcer has had a urinary catheter inserted. as a result of this new intervention, the nurse should prioritize what nursing diagnosis in the client's plan of care? question 6 options:

Answers

The nursing diagnosis that the nurse should prioritize in the client's plan of care, is b. Risk for infection related to the presence of an indwelling urinary catheter.

To drain urine from the bladder, a urinary catheter, a soft, hollow tube, is placed. Some people may need catheters if they are unable to discharge urine into a toilet or urinal to empty their bladder for a variety of reasons. The risk of infection associated with the presence of an indwelling urine catheter is the nursing diagnostic that the nurse should give priority to in the client's care plan when taking into account the placement of a urinary catheter.

A urinary tract infection (UTI) can result after an insertion of a urinary catheter because it increases the possibility of bacteria entering the urinary tract. In order to prevent infection in patient, it is necessary to give monitoring and other actions top priority.

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Complete Question:

A client with a sacral pressure ulcer has had a urinary catheter inserted. As a result of this new intervention, the nurse should prioritize what nursing diagnosis in the client's plan of care?

a. Increase fluid intake so that the patient can excrete 2,500 to 4,000 mL every day,

b. Risk for infection related to the presence of an indwelling urinary catheter

c. Maintain skin and stoma integrity

What is a the gram stain test?

Answers

Answer:

its a method of stainging used to distinguish and classify bacterial species into two large groups

True/False. because of the physical differences between the genders, physical ability tests should be carefully validated on the basis of the essential functions of the job.

Answers

The statement "Physical ability tests should be carefully validated based on the essential functions of the job because physical differences between genders may affect test results." is true.

These differences may result in gender bias in testing, which can lead to discrimination and legal challenges. Employers should ensure that physical ability tests are necessary for the job and are reliable, valid, and nondiscriminatory.

The tests should measure only job-related functions, not gender-related differences in physical ability. This ensures that all qualified individuals, regardless of gender, have an equal opportunity to perform the job duties.

Proper validation and selection of physical ability tests can help to promote fairness and diversity in the workplace, and minimize the risk of legal challenges.

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Which sentences make correct use of adverbs and adjectives? Select all that apply. Select one or more: a. Alma scored highest in the customer feedback table. b. Alma’s customers responded more enthusiastically than Tom’s. c. Tom’s sales pitch was received good. d. Tom was really pleased with his results.

Answers

The sentences that make correct use of adverbs and adjectives are as follows:option a ) Alma scored highest in the customer feedback table. option b) Alma’s customers responded more enthusiastically than Tom’s. option d) Tom was really pleased with his results.

The correct use of the adverbs and adjectives are as follows:The sentence “Alma scored highest in the customer feedback table” uses the adjective "highest" to describe Alma’s score. In this sentence, the adjective is modifying the noun "score".

The sentence “Alma’s customers responded more enthusiastically than Tom’s” uses the adverb "enthusiastically" to modify the verb "responded". The sentence compares Alma’s customer response with that of Tom’s.The sentence “Tom was really pleased with his results” uses the adverb "really" to modify the adjective "pleased".

The adverb "really" is used to intensify the meaning of the adjective "pleased". Hence the correct sentences are:A. Alma scored highest in the customer feedback table.B. Alma’s customers responded more enthusiastically than Tom’s.D. Tom was really pleased with his results.

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Which of the following is a risk of skipping health screenings?
O Late diagnosis
O Early diagnosis
Illnesses unidentified
O Receiving treatment

Answers

a. late diagnosis is the right answer
simple, hope i helped :)
Late diagnosis should be correct happy to help

write down a spoken word touching on call for unity which when give chance you can perfom to an audience.

Answers

"United We Stand" is a spoken word performance that calls for unity, breaking down barriers, and embracing diversity for a harmonious world.

The spoken word performance titled "United We Stand" aims to convey a powerful message of unity and inclusivity. Through poetic expression, the performer emphasizes the importance of setting aside differences and coming together as a collective force. The piece highlights the need to overcome prejudices, promote compassion, and celebrate diversity. By urging the audience to embrace unity, the performance seeks to inspire positive change and foster a sense of togetherness in the face of division and discord.

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