Which of the following procedures demonstrates repetition?

A.
Marco places a toy car at the top of a ramp. He releases the car and measures how long it takes for the car to reach the bottom of the ramp. Then, he returns the car to the top of the ramp, releases the car again, and makes an additional measurement.
B.
Kasey performs a scientific investigation on the effects of using soda instead of water to hydrate plants. Caleb uses Kasey's procedure and performs the same experiment during the following month.
C.
Jeremiah measures the mass of five different strips of metal. He places the strips in five different test tubes filled with hydrochloric acid. He observes if heat and bubbles are produced after the metal strips and acid are combined.
D.
Cynthia monitors the growth rate of her pet turtle. She measures the length and weight of her turtle every Sunday over the course of six months.

In an atom of O-17, proton and electron is 8, and neutrons is 9.

Learn more about the quantum mechanics with the help of the given link:

https://brainly.com/question/11855107

#SPJ4

The horizontal distance travelled by the football is 3.1 m.

The angle of projection of the football is calculated as follows;

tan ( θ ) = Vy / Vx

where;

tan ( θ ) = 5 / 3

tan ( θ ) = 1.667

θ = arc tan (1.667)

θ = 59⁰

The resultant velocity of the ball is calculated as follows;

v = √ (Vx² + Vy²)

v = √ (3² + 5²)

v = 5.83 m/s

The horizontal distance travelled by the football is calculated as follows;

x = v² sin(2θ) /g

where;

x = [ (5.83)² sin(2 x 59) /9.8 ]

x = 3.1 m

Learn more about horizontal distance here: https://brainly.com/question/24784992

#SPJ1

Answer:

1 Watt

Explanation:

P=W/t

P=10/10

P=1 Watt

AnswerAnswerAnswerAnswerAnswer:0.3571m

Explanation:

Based on the information, the particle is negatively charged.

Magnetic fields exert forces on other moving charge. The force a magnetic field exerts on a charge q moving with velocity v is called the Lorentz force.

It is given by F = qv × B.

To find the direction of the force, use the right-hand rule. Let the fingers of your right hand point in the direction of v. Orient the palm of your hand, so that as you curl your fingers, you can sweep them over to point into the direction of B. Your thumb points in the direction of the vector product v × B. If q is positive then this is the direction of F. If q is negative, your thumb points opposite to the direction of F.

Learn more about magnet on:

https://brainly.com/question/27862911

#SPJ1

June 21-22 is the summer solstice in the Northern Hemisphere and the winter solstice in the Southern Hemisphere. On these days, the daylight hours are the longest at the North Pole and the shortest at the South Pole.

Using online tools or astronomical calculations, we can determine the length of daylight for each of the given latitudes:

90 degrees N latitude (North Pole): 24 hours of daylight (the sun does not set)

40 degrees S latitude: 9 hours and 39 minutes of daylight

40 degrees N latitude: 14 hours and 55 minutes of daylight

0 degrees latitude (equator): 12 hours of daylight (the sun rises at 6:00 am and sets at 6:00 pm)

Note that these values are approximate and may vary slightly depending on the exact location and year.

To know more about daylight of the latitudes :

https://brainly.com/question/30709382?

#SPJ11

Work done on the gas = -1600 J, and Heat flow into the gas = -1600 J . The correct option for both questions is (option 6).

To solve this problem, we can use the first law of thermodynamics, which states that the change in internal energy of a system is equal to the heat added to the system minus the work done by the system:

ΔU = Q - W

where ΔU is the change in internal energy, Q is the heat added to the system, and W is the work done by the system. Since the volume of the gas is held constant during the second part of the process, no work is done on or by the gas, so W = 0.

For the first part of the process, the pressure is constant, so we can use the equation:

W = PΔV

where P is the pressure, and ΔV is the change in volume. We can convert the volumes to cubic meters, and the pressure to Pascals:

P = 2 atm = 2 x 1.0 x 10^5 Pa

V1 = 10 L = 0.01 m³

V2 = 2 L = 0.002 m³

ΔV = V2 - V1 = -0.008 m³ (since the gas is being compressed)

W = PΔV = (2 x 1.0 x 10^5 Pa) x (-0.008 m³) = -1600 J

So, the work done on the gas during the compression is -1600 J.

To find the heat flow into the gas during the second part of the process, we can use the equation:

ΔU = Q - W

Since the internal energy of an ideal gas depends only on its temperature, and the temperature is the same at the beginning and end of the process, ΔU = 0. Therefore:

0 = Q - W

Q = W = -1600 J

So, the heat flow into the gas during the second part of the process is -1600 J.

Therefore, the answers to the questions are Work done on the gas = -1600 J (option 6), and Heat flow into the gas = -1600 J (option 6).

To learn more about the 2nd law of thermodynamics click:

brainly.com/question/30390007

#SPJ1

Answer:

- 30 kW

Explanation:

IDEA:

Power of an object that does work(source) is given by:

\( \boxed{ \mathsf{power = \frac{work \: done}{time} }}\)

where work done is mostly shown as the Force applied on an object to Displace it through some distance in the same direction as the Force.

\( \boxed{ \mathsf{ work = force \times displacement}}\)

___________________

INFORMATION:

In the question,

The source of power is the crane, while the object is a load of 36000N.

Note, what's given is the force, not the mass. Since, the SI unit of mass is kg and that of Force is Newton(N).

[The weight of the load is represented in Newton, since weight of an object is the amount of Force with which the Earth attracts that object]

I) work done

So,

=> Work = 36000 × 50

= 1,800,000 J

(The SI unit of work is Joules(J)).

___________________

II) power

After getting the amount of work done, now we have to place it in the formula for power.

That is:

\( \boxed{ \mathsf{power = \frac{work \: done}{time} }}\)

Note, During calculations, all quantities must be in their SI units.

SI unit for time is Seconds (s)

But the time we have is in minutes.

___________________

Converting time from minutes to Seconds:

1 minute = 60 Seconds.

Hence,

\( \implies \mathsf{power = \frac{1800000}{60} } \: \)

=> power = 30,000 W

(SI unit of power is Watts(W))

To write four zeroes with a 3 and W is a lot of effort. So, we can look for simple expressions like kilowatts(kW) that can express bigger quantities in lesser terms.

1000 W = 1 kW

___________________

Direction and sign:

The crane displaces the load in an upward direction (from the term "lifts")

But, the Force is acting downwards, as the weight of the body is always towards the Earth.

Since, the directions of Force and displacement are opposite, a minus takes its place in front of both Work and power.

___________________

Therefore, the final answer will be:

Answer: D

Explanation: just completed this question on a p e x

The y-component of the vector with 42.2 degrees 101m is 68.2 m. The y-component of the vector can be found using the formula: y = m sin θ.

To find the y-component of the vector with 42.2 degrees 101m, you need to apply trigonometry concepts. The y-component of the vector can be found using the formula: y = m sin θ, where y is the y-component of the vector, m is the magnitude of the vector, and θ is the angle between the vector and the +x axis.

To apply this formula, first, identify the given angle and the magnitude of the vector. The angle is given as 42.2 degrees, and the magnitude of the vector is given as 101m.

Now, plug in these values into the formula and solve for the y-component:

y = m sin θy

= 101m sin 42.2°y

= 68.2 m (rounded to one decimal place)

Therefore, the y-component of the vector with 42.2 degrees 101m is 68.2 m

To know more about vector, refer

https://brainly.com/question/27854247

#SPJ11

Answer:

1305 I think but not sure

The solution to the problems in correct significant figures are;

a. 10.8 g - 8.264 g = 2.536 g

b. 4.75 m - 0.4168 m = 4.3332 g

c. 139 cm x 2.3 cm = 319.7 cm²

d. 13.78 g/11.3 mL = 1.22 g/ml

e. 1.6 km + 1.62 m + 1200 cm =  1,613.62 m

Significant figures are used to establish the number which is presented in the form of digits.

a. 10.8 g - 8.264 g = 2.536 g

b. 4.75 m - 0.4168 m = 4.3332 g

c. 139 cm x 2.3 cm = 319.7 cm²

d. 13.78 g/11.3 mL = 1.22 g/ml

e. 1.6 km + 1.62 m + 1200 cm = 1,600 m + 1.62 m + 12 m = 1,613.62 m

Thus, the solution to the problems in correct significant figures are;

a. 10.8 g - 8.264 g = 2.536 g

b. 4.75 m - 0.4168 m = 4.3332 g

c. 139 cm x 2.3 cm = 319.7 cm²

d. 13.78 g/11.3 mL = 1.22 g/ml

e. 1.6 km + 1.62 m + 1200 cm =  1,613.62 m

Learn more about significant figures here: https://brainly.com/question/24491627

#SPJ1

In simple harmonic motion, an object oscillates back and forth around an equilibrium position with a motion that is periodic and repetitive. The object experiences a restoring force that is proportional to its displacement from the equilibrium position.

As a result, the object moves with an acceleration that is also proportional to its displacement, and this leads to periodic changes in its potential energy and kinetic energy.

The speed of the object is greatest when its displacement from the equilibrium position is zero, and when the magnitude of the acceleration is a minimum. This occurs when the object is at the maximum displacement, and is about to change direction, or when the object is at the equilibrium position, where the acceleration and velocity are both zero. At these points, the object has its maximum speed, which is determined by its amplitude and frequency of oscillation.

Learn more about  harmonic motion,

https://brainly.com/question/30404816

#SPJ4

Assuming you are referring to a uniformly charged spherical shell with radius "a", the electric field inside the shell (i.e., for r < a) is zero.

This can be explained by the fact that the shell has a symmetrical charge distribution, and hence, for any point inside the shell, the electric field due to all charges on the shell cancel out exactly. This is a consequence of the superposition principle of electric fields, which states that the total electric field at any point in space is the vector sum of the individual electric fields due to all the charges present. To see why the electric field inside the shell is zero, consider an arbitrary point P inside the shell at a distance "r" from the center of the shell. We can imagine dividing the shell into small elemental areas dA, each of which contains a small amount of charge dQ. The electric field vector due to each of these small charges at point P can be calculated using Coulomb's law as:

\(dE = (1 / 4\pi\epsilon _0) (dQ / r^2)r\)

Since the shell is uniformly charged, we can assume that the magnitude of the electric field due to each elemental charge is the same. Also, since the direction of ȓ is different for each elemental charge, the direction of the electric field vector dE varies as we move around the shell. However, due to the symmetry of the charge distribution, the magnitude of the electric field at point P due to all the elemental charges on the shell is the same, and hence the electric field due to all elemental charges is perfectly cancelled out at point P, resulting in a net electric field of zero.

Therefore, we can conclude that the electric field vector ~e(r) for r < a, where r is the distance from the center of the shell, is zero.

To know more about electric field please refer: https://brainly.com/question/8971780

#SPJ4

The force of magnitude 22N will also be double to a magnitude of 44N when the mass of one of the bodies is doubled.

The gravitational force of any two bodies is given by,

F = GMm/R²

Where,

M and m are the masses of the bodies,

R is the distance between them and G is the universal gravitational constant.

Currently the force of gravitation between two bodies is given to be 22N.

Now, if one of the mass is doubled, let say M = 2M, so the new force will be,

F' = G(2M)m/R²

F' = 2GMm/R²

Putting F = GMm/R²,

F' = 2F

So, the force of gravitation between the two bodies will be doubled. So, the new force will be 44N.

To know more about gravitation, visit,

https://brainly.com/question/557206

#SPJ4

Answer:

I think the answer is B. amount of energy present but I'm not 100% sure

Explanation:

The consequences of an equation involving the rest mass (m0) of a particle and the speed of light (c). It asks about the outcome when a specific condition, denoted by "? 55," is met.

Einstein's mass-energy equivalence equation (E = m0c^2), the rest mass (m0) of a particle and the speed of light (c) are involved. When the condition "? 55" is mentioned, it is unclear what specific comparison or action is being referred to. Without further information, it is challenging to determine the consequences or outcome implied by this condition in relation to the given equation. Additional context or clarification would be required to provide a more specific explanation.

It is important to note that Einstein's mass-energy equivalence equation is a fundamental equation in physics, stating that energy (E) is equal to the product of the rest mass (m0) of a particle and the square of the speed of light (c^2). This equation highlights the profound connection between mass and energy, implying that mass can be converted into energy and vice versa. It forms the basis of concepts such as nuclear reactions, particle accelerators, and the understanding of the immense energy released in processes like nuclear fission and fusion. However, without a clear interpretation of the condition "? 55" in relation to the equation, it is not possible to provide a specific explanation of its consequences.

Learn more about mass:

https://brainly.com/question/11954533

#SPJ11

The speed of an electron with a de Broglie wavelength of 0.11 nm is approximately 2.19 × 10^6 m/s.

When dealing with particles like electrons, we can use the de Broglie wavelength equation, which relates the wavelength of a particle to its momentum. The equation is given by λ = h / p, where λ represents the de Broglie wavelength, h is Planck's constant, and p is the momentum of the particle.

To find the speed of the electron, we need to determine its momentum first. We know that momentum is defined as the product of mass and velocity, p = m × v. Since the mass of an electron is constant, we can rewrite the equation as p = m × (Δx / Δt), where Δx represents the uncertainty in position and Δt is the uncertainty in time.

In this case, we are given the de Broglie wavelength (λ = 0.11 nm) and want to find the speed of the electron. Using the equation λ = h / p, we rearrange it to p = h / λ. Substituting the values of Planck's constant (h = 6.626 × 10^-34 J·s) and the wavelength (λ = 0.11 nm = 0.11 × 10^-9 m), we can calculate the momentum.

Once we have the momentum, we can find the speed by using the equation v = p / m, where v is the speed and m is the mass of the electron. The mass of an electron is approximately 9.11 × 10^-31 kg.

Therefore, plugging in the values, we get v = (h / λ) / m = (6.626 × 10^-34 J·s) / (0.11 × 10^-9 m) / (9.11 × 10^-31 kg) ≈ 2.19 × 10^6 m/s.

Learn more about wavelength

brainly.com/question/32900586

#SPJ11

An engine moves a boat through the water at a constant speed of 15 m/s. The engine must exert a force of 6.0 kN to balance the force that the water exerts against the hull. Power is the measure of how fast work can be done. The unit of power is watts (W), which can be defined as the amount of work done in one second.

For such more question on measure

https://brainly.com/question/25770607

#SPJ8

To assign a value to the variable "gradage" that is 4 more than the value of the variable "matricage," you can use the statement "gradage = matricage + 4."

In programming, the assignment operator (=) is used to assign a value to a variable. In this case, we want to assign a value to the variable "gradage" based on the value of the variable "matricage." To add 4 to the value of "matricage," we use the addition operator (+). By writing "gradage = matricage + 4," .

We are instructing the program to calculate the sum of "matricage" and 4, and then assign the result to the variable "gradage." This way, "gradage" will hold a value that is 4 more than the original value of "matricage."

To learn more about variable.

Click here:brainly.com/question/19154947

#SPJ11

Answer:

see below

Explanation:

a wave means one complete wave which is 1 period

so a) 5 complete waves

wavelength is the shortest distance between any two points in phase

so wavelength = 1 CM

amplitude of a wave is the maximum displacement of a particle from its rest position

so amplitude = 3 CM

hope this helps

The mutual inductance (M) between the solenoid and the inner coil can be calculated using the formula M = μ₀ * N₁ * N₂ * A / L, where μ₀ is the permeability of free space, N₁ is the number of turns in the inner coil, N₂ is the number of turns per meter in the solenoid, L is the length of the solenoid and A is the cross-sectional area of the solenoid.

To calculate M, you need to know the values of N₁, N₂, length of the solenoid and the cross-sectional area of the solenoid. Since you have only provided the values of N₁ and N₂, we can calculate M by multiplying these values together.
Therefore, the mutual inductance (M) between the solenoid and the inner coil is given by the equation M = μ₀ * n * n * A / L
Please note that we cannot calculate the exact value of  the mutual inductance without knowing the cross-sectional area and length  of the solenoid.

Learn more about a solenoid: https://brainly.com/question/21842920

#SPJ11

Answer:C

Explanation: I studied, and C is correct

Answer:

D

Explanation:

Acceleration due to gravity is 9.8 m/s² then the book weighs 3.06 kg in total.

where d denotes the separation between the object's and the earth's centers. The acceleration of gravity is denoted by the symbol g in the first equation above. Its value on Earth is 9.8 m/s2. Alternatively put, the acceleration of gravity at sea level on earth's surface is 9.8 m/s2. Weight of a body on the moon is calculated as follows: mass of the body x lunar gravitational acceleration (30 x 1.62 = 48 N).

Mass times Gravitational Acceleration equals weight.

Weight plus gravitational acceleration equals mass.

mass = 30N ÷ 9.8 m/s²

mass = 3.06 kg

To know more about Acceleration visit:-

https://brainly.com/question/30660316

#SPJ1

The acceleration of the plane is obtained to be  1393 m.

Let us recall that the term acceleration is used to describe the change in the velocity of the object with time. We must now turn to the equations of the uniformly accelerated motion.

Now we have;

s= ut + 1/2at^2

s = distance covered

a = acceleration

t = time taken

u = initial velocity

Assuming that the airplane started from rest then;

s = 1/2at^2

s = 0.5 * 2.30 * (34.8)^2

s = 1393 m

Learn more about acceleration:https://brainly.com/question/12550364

#SPJ1

Answer:50 gC/m2/year

Explanation: