which of the following is not a duty of ECG physician 

Answers

Answer 1

The one that is not the duty of the ECG physician is to tell the patient about the results of the test.

What does an ECG physician do?

ECG stands for electrocardiogram, which is a medical test used to monitor the activity of the heart and determine if there are any abnormalities based on the heart's electrical activity.

Due to this, an ECG is in charge of performing the electrocardiogram and as part of the process attaching the electrodes. However, it is not common that the ECG physician to discuss the results with the patient.

Note: This question is incomplete; here are the options:

Attaching the electrodes

Telling the patient the results of the test

Performing the electrocardiogram

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Related Questions

joe smith, age 52, has a blood pressure of 145 mm hg over 95 mm hg. this is considered

Answers

Joe Smith, age 52, has a blood pressure of over 95 mm Hg at 145 mm Hg. This is known as high blood pressure or hypertension.

What are the 3 types of high blood pressure?

Because blood pressure can fluctuate, the American Heart Association recommends measuring blood pressure at least three times to accurately diagnose high blood pressure. different types of high blood pressure: Isolated systolic hypertension. Malignant hypertension. Resistant hypertension.

What is high blood pressure?

Elevated blood pressure is defined as a systolic pressure of 120-129 and a diastolic pressure of less than 80. Hypertension is defined as a systolic blood pressure of 130 or higher or a diastolic blood pressure of 80 or higher.

What are the symptoms of high blood pressure?

Blurred vision or double vision.

Lightheadedness/fainting

Malaise. headache.

Palpitations.

nosebleed.

Difficulty breathing.

Nausea and/or vomiting.

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2. Hard boiled eggs can be left out of refrigeration for only 3-4 hours.

True or false

Answers

Answer:false

Explanation: this is because the bacteria in the egg has to stay at a certain temperature to stay good so therefore they will go bad

hope this helped

True but only if they have plastic wrap or something to keep them from rotting

Where in the gastrointestinal track do drugs delivered orally have their highest absorption?

Answers

Answer: The small intestine

Explanation:

what is the standards wbc for a 52 year old female? ​

Answers

Answer:

7.50

Explanation:

From a report that presents normative data for white blood cell (WBC) counts and differential leukocyte counts, based on findings from NHANESI.

what questions do I need to ask a patient about hypertension?

Answers

What is my blood pressure?
What should my blood pressure be?
What kind of diet should I follow to help control my blood pressure?
How much should I weigh?
Can you recommend a diet or eating plan to help me reach that weight?
How much exercise should I be doing?

A registered nurse with an associate degree in nursing (adn) is found by the bon to have violated npa section 301.452(b)(5) after the bon obtains evidence that the nurse falsely claimed to have a master of science in nursing (msn) degree on an application for employment in a nursing position. this conduct by the rn would also be considered a violation of

Answers

The Position Statements, rules, and other publications in the portion of the BON website devoted to nursing practise are meant to direct nurses.

What of the following elements does the bon consider when deciding whether a nurse's prior criminal activity is relevant?

When considering eligibility for licensure and disciplinary cases involving criminal conduct, the Board will take the following factors into account, among others: The kind, gravity, and scope of the person's prior criminal behaviour.

What justification does a nurse's licence get revoked or suspended for the most frequently?

A nurse's licence may be revoked by the nursing board for a number of reasons. DUI convictions, poor patient care techniques, and egregious negligence, such as giving out medications without a legal prescription, are some of the most typical causes.

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Question 1
2 pts
You are allowed into the classroom only if you have antibodies for the virus. Choose all statements that are logically equivalent to the above statement. [More than one of the choices may qualify.]
✔You do not have antibodies for the virus, and you are not allowed into the classroom.
Having antibodies for the virus is a necessary but not necessarily sufficient condition for being allowed into the classroom.
✔If you are allowed into the classroom, then you have antibodies for the virus.
The following statement is not true: You are allowed into the classroom, and you do not have antibodies for the virus.
Next ▸

Answers

The statement  is logically equivalent to the following statements:

1. You do not have antibodies for the virus, and you are not allowed into the classroom.

2. If you are allowed into the classroom, then you have antibodies for the virus.

3. The following statement is not true: You are allowed into the classroom, and you do not have antibodies for the virus.

The main answer consists of three statements that are logically equivalent to the given statement. Let's break down each statement to understand their logical equivalence.

Statement 1: "You do not have antibodies for the virus, and you are not allowed into the classroom."

This statement reflects the same condition as the original statement. It states that if a person does not have antibodies for the virus, they will not be allowed into the classroom. It directly correlates with the given condition, making it a logically equivalent statement.

Statement 2: "If you are allowed into the classroom, then you have antibodies for the virus."

This statement reverses the condition of the original statement. It asserts that if a person is allowed into the classroom, it implies that they must have antibodies for the virus. This reversal still maintains the logical equivalence because it establishes a direct relationship between being allowed into the classroom and having antibodies.

Statement 3: "The following statement is not true: You are allowed into the classroom, and you do not have antibodies for the virus."

This statement employs negation to establish logical equivalence. It states that the combination of being allowed into the classroom and not having antibodies for the virus is false. In other words, if a person is allowed into the classroom, it means they must have antibodies for the virus. This negation aligns with the original statement and represents the same condition.

In summary, all three statements are logically equivalent to the given statement because they express the same condition in different forms, either directly or through negation.

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What does the acronym RACE stand for, as it pertains to fire safety?

Answers

Answer:

Remove, Alarm, Confine, and Extinguish/Evacuate

What body landmark does the ACL start from?
O Intercondylar notch
0 Tibial tuberosity
O Medial condyle
0 Fibular head

Answers

Answer:

The ACL originates from deep within the notch of the distal femur. Its proximal fibers fan out along the medial wall of the lateral femoral condyle. There are two bundles of the ACL: the anteromedial and the posterolateral, named according to where the bundles insert into the tibial plateau.

Which abbreviation is related to inflammation of multiple joints that results in crippling deformities

Answers

Answer:

RA (Rheumatoid arthritis)

Explanation:

A client with chronic heart failure is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin), 0.25 mg by mouth daily, and furosemide (Lasix), 20 mg by mouth twice daily. The nurse instructs the client to notify the physician if nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, or abdominal cramps occur because these signs and symptoms may signal digoxin toxicity. Digoxin toxicity may also cause:
visual disturbances.
taste and smell alterations.
dry mouth and urine retention.
nocturia and sleep disturbances.

Answers

In addition to the symptoms like nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea, or abdominal cramps, digoxin toxicity may also cause visual disturbances.

Thus, the correct answer is visual disturbances (A).

Digoxin toxicity mаy cаuse visuаl disturbаnces (such аs, flickering flаshes of light, colored or hаlo vision, photophobiа, blurring, diplopiа, аnd scotomаtа), centrаl nervous system аbnormаlities (such аs heаdаche, fаtigue, lethаrgy, depression, irritаbility аnd, if profound, seizures, delusions, hаllucinаtions, аnd memory loss), аnd cаrdiovаsculаr аbnormаlities (аbnormаl heаrt rаte аnd аrrhythmiаs).

Digoxin toxicity doesn't cаuse tаste аnd smell аlterаtions. Dry mouth аnd urine retention typicаlly occur with аnticholinergic аgents, not inotropic аgents such аs digoxin. Nocturiа аnd sleep disturbаnces аre аdverse effects of furosemide, especiаlly if the client tаkes the second dаily dose in the evening, which mаy cаuse diuresis аt night.

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whem does spermatogenesisi begin​

Answers

it begins during puberty

Hypotension is an ominous sign for a patient with sepsis, as it can lead to a significant drop in tissue perfusion. Which of the following statements best describes what you would expect to happen in cardiac tissue immediately following an episode of hypotension?

Answers

Large amounts of venous blood can flow through continuous capillaries and enter the liver, where hepatocytes can process the blood's constituents. ICD-10 code I95.9, which stands for Hypotension, Undefined, is classified as a circulatory system disease by the WHO.

The heart's specialized tissue is called cardiac tissue. This tissue has the power to induce the heart to contract, allowing blood to pump and circulate throughout the body. The electrical impulses that are sent to this heart tissue by the nervous system will cause it to contract. There is a high possibility that one will experience an increase in heart rate in their cardiac tissue after an episode of hypotension. In an effort to maintain blood pressure after hypotension, one's blood vessels will narrow, and their heart rate will rise. Another possibility is that one could experience hemorrhagic shock. Hypotension causes a decrease in blood volume, which can lower cardiac output and raise the risk of organ damage.

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Complete Question:

Hypotension is an ominous sign for a patient with sepsis, as it can lead to a significant drop in tissue perfusion. What would you expect to happen in cardiac tissue immediately following an episode of hypotension?

What should be the starting point of any successful nutrition plan for an athlete?.

Answers

It's crucial to consume food at the right time to maximize performance.

What are the main nutritional requirements for an athlete?

25% to 35% fat, 10% to 30% protein, and 45% to 65% carbs make up the optimum diet. Before, during, and after sports events, fluids should be ingested to maintain hydrated and prevent dehydration. It's crucial to consume food at the right time to maximise performance.

The objectives of sports nutrition can be divided into four broad categories, however: understanding the relationship between exercise and the stress response; being able to control blood sugar before, during, and after a training session; advancing recovery with different nutrients at different times; and minimizing the effects.

This is why nutrition is so crucial, especially following physical activity, training, or competition. The effectiveness of an activity depends on your body's capacity to recover from it.

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andrew returned for his follow-up visit last week with increased pain and edema in his right knee and was scheduled for an arthroscopy. he presents to the surgical center today for a right knee diagnostic arthroscopy with synovial biopsy. anesthesia is being performed on this 72-year-old male patient by a crna with medical supervision by a physician. other than osteoarthritis, andrew has essential hypertension, which is well-controlled. postoperatively the patient was placed in a prefabricated canvas longitudinal knee immobilizer

Answers

The question is incomplete however the correct question is as follows:

What is the correct CPT code modifier to use?

Answer:

The correct answer would be - 51 and 59.

Explanation:

Modifier 51 and modifier 59 are two common code modifier for arthroscopy. the code 51 tells that the same physician is performing multiple arthroscopy  or other procedure for different clients at the same session except E/M services.

On other hand modifier 59 that indicates that the procedure normally not reported together but in specific conditions that meet with the criteria of code for reporting separately. It may also suggest that same provider should not perform the procedure same day.

Arthroscopy, knee, diagnostic, with or without synovial biopsy -29870 is a separate procedure.

Can the pupillary response be inhibited?

Answers

The pupillary response may be inhibited by problems with the photomotor reflex and/or specialized drugs.

What does pupillary reaction mean?

The pupillary light reflex or photomotor reflex is part of a standard neurological examination. It evaluates the constriction reflex of the pupil, called miosis, in view of the incidence of direct light in the eye to be tested.

With this information, we can conclude that Pupillary response varies the size of the pupil of the eye via the iris dilator muscle, which dilates in response to a stressor.

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data on marijuana use can be used to make a broader statement that illicit drug use among high school seniors has not changed a great deal in the past 20 years because

Answers

Data on  marijuana use is just one type of information among many that can be used to analyze trends in illicit drug use among high school seniors.

However, in order to draw broader conclusions regarding the state of drug usage through time, it is crucial to take into account additional data sources, such as details on other classes of illicit drugs and patterns among different age groups. It can also be challenging to draw general conclusions regarding the usage of illicit drugs without taking these aspects into account because of how data collection methods have changed, how society views drug use, and other reasons.

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Critically analyse the impact of Covid-19 in developing
countries and How covid-19 affacted their economy.Give 5 points and
analyse each points.

Answers

The impact of Covid-19 in developing countries has been significant, affecting their economies in multiple ways.

What are the key ways in which Covid-19 has impacted the economies of developing countries?

The Covid-19 pandemic has had profound economic consequences for developing countries. Here are five key points highlighting the impact:

1. Economic contraction: Many developing countries experienced a sharp economic downturn due to lockdowns, reduced economic activity, and disrupted global supply chains. This led to a decline in GDP growth rates and negative impacts on various sectors such as tourism, manufacturing, and trade.

2. Increased poverty and inequality: The pandemic exacerbated existing social and economic disparities, pushing more people into poverty and widening income inequalities. Vulnerable populations, including informal workers and those in the informal sector, faced job losses, reduced incomes, and limited access to social safety nets.

3. Disruptions in trade and remittances: Developing countries heavily reliant on exports and remittances faced challenges as global trade contracted and remittances from abroad declined. Restrictions on travel and disruptions in logistics disrupted supply chains, impacting export-oriented industries and reducing foreign exchange earnings.

4. Fiscal challenges: Governments in developing countries faced fiscal strain as they grappled with increased healthcare expenditures, implementing social protection measures, and addressing economic challenges. Reduced tax revenues and increased public spending led to budget deficits and a higher debt burden.

5. Reduced investment and financing gaps: The pandemic led to a decline in foreign direct investment (FDI) and limited access to financing for development projects. Investors became more risk-averse, diverting funds away from developing countries, leading to reduced investment in critical sectors like infrastructure and healthcare.

These points demonstrate the wide-ranging economic repercussions of the Covid-19 pandemic on developing countries, highlighting the need for targeted support and interventions to mitigate the impact and foster recovery.

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What are the three components of the helping interview?

Answers

Answer:

(1) the orientation of the professional and the client to each other, (2) theidentification of the client's problem, and (3) the resolution of the client's Problem.

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A client with class I heart disease has reached 34 weeks' gestation. Which problem should the nurse anticipate now that the client is in her third trimester?

a) Dyspnea at rest

b) Vasovagal syncope

c) Progressive dependent edema

d) Shortness of breath on exertion

Answers

Given the information provided, the problem that the nurse should anticipate in a client with class I heart disease who has reached 34 weeks' gestation in her third trimester is: d) Shortness of breath on exertion

Class I heart disease refers to mild heart disease, which typically does not cause significant limitations in physical activity or symptoms at rest.  

However, during the third trimester of pregnancy, there is an increased demand on the cardiovascular system due to the growing fetus and associated physiological changes.

As the client's pregnancy progresses and the demands on the heart increase, she may experience shortness of breath with exertion. This can occur due to the reduced functional reserve of the heart and the decreased ability to accommodate increased cardiac output during physical activity.

The growing uterus can also exert pressure on the diaphragm, further contributing to the sensation of breathlessness.

Dyspnea at rest (option a) is less likely to occur in class I heart disease unless there are other complicating factors present.

Vasovagal syncope (option b) is a condition characterized by a sudden drop in heart rate and blood pressure, leading to temporary loss of consciousness, but it is not specifically associated with class I heart disease in pregnancy.

Progressive dependent edema (option c) is more commonly associated with conditions such as preeclampsia rather than class I heart disease.

It is important for the nurse to closely monitor the client's symptoms and provide appropriate education and support, as well as involve the healthcare provider in managing any worsening symptoms or concerns.

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It has been found that a carrier is better able to survive diseases with severe diarrhea. What would happen to the frequency of the EcG if there was an epidemic of cholera or other type of diarrhea producing disease

Answers

Answer:

The frequency of “c” would increase.

Explanation:

Remember, in the scenario, we are told the carrier survives better in an environment with severe diarrhea.

Hence, it is thus logical to expect the frequency of "c" to increase in an environment where there was an epidemic of cholera.

You witness one of your friends in a fight. Your friend Gregg is hit in the jaw and when looking at him, his face looks misaligned. You immediately take him to the emergency room and are not surprised to learn that he has a broken :
A) temporal bone.
B) zygomatic bone.
C) mandible.
D) external auditory meatus.
E) clavicle.

Answers

The correct option is C, mandible. When a person gets hit in the jaw and his/her face looks misaligned, the mandible bone is the bone in the face that is most likely to be broken.

Mandible bone, also known as the jawbone, is the largest bone in the human face. It comprises the lower part of the face and connects the skull and the lower jaw.

The mandible bone is a flat U-shaped bone that consists of two horizontal parts known as rami and a vertical part known as the body.

The mandible bone is a vital bone in the face, and if it breaks, it requires immediate medical attention. If the mandible is not fixed, the person can have long-term complications, including trouble speaking, trouble eating, nerve damage, and issues with the temporomandibular joint (TMJ).

Therefore, if one of your friends gets hit in the jaw, and his face looks misaligned, immediately take them to the emergency room.

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how many restriction enzymes could be used to digest DNA sequence of CCGG​

Answers

Answer:

There exists over 3000 restriction enzymes that are studied in detail thus far, and more than 600 of these are commercially available (Roberts et al., 2007). Each enzyme is named after the bacterium from which the enzyme is isolated

prevention efforts that are aimed at a specific subgroup of the population considered at-risk for developing mental health problems are called __________ interventions.

Answers

Prevention efforts that are aimed at a specific subgroup of the population considered at risk for developing mental health problems are called selective interventions.

Selective treatments concentrate on biological, psychological, or social risk factors that are more common in high-risk groups than in the overall population. Examples include preemptive education for immigrant families with small children or peer support groups for people with a family history of substance use issues. Not every person or population is equally susceptible to behavioral health problems.

The most effective prevention programs are those that are tailored to the level of risk that their target population faces. Preventive interventions can be grouped into three main types.

1. Universal preventive interventions,

2. Selective interventions,

3. Indicated preventive interventions

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What is Trough in pharmacology?

Answers

Defining Trough Levels in Pharmacology

A "trough" in pharmacology relates to a drug's bloodstream concentration at its lowest point. This measurement is made at a certain period after the medicine has been given out, often right before the next dose is given. Knowing a patient's trough level helps doctors and chemists to make personalised dose recommendations, that will increase the drug's effectiveness while reducing toxicity or side effects.

Factors Affecting Trough Levels of Drugs

The patient's genetics, liver and kidney function, and underlying medical issues are only a few of the factors that can have an impact on a drug's trough level. Timing is important for multiple drugs as well. For example, using a blood sugar-lowering medication before meals, when glucose levels are normally higher, may result in a greater trough concentration.

Importance of Measuring Trough Levels for Personalised Pharmacological Care

Overall, trough level measurement is an important part of pharmacology because it enables medical professionals to deliver customised care based on each patient's specific needs and medication responses. Patients may improve their health and quality of life by adjusting dosages to achieve beneficial effects without harming them.

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Write a five-hundred-word research essay. Answer a specific question that you developed that explains
how the brain works in a particular way.
View the rubric for this essay.
Pls not to complicated I’m in 9 grade

Answers

Answer:

Types of Brain Drain

Geographical Brain Drain- This refers to the emigration of individuals of high-skills and high-brilliance to other nations. Furthermore, this departure takes place in search of better-paying jobs. Also, these better-paying jobs will lead to a higher standard of living. Most noteworthy, geographical Brain Drain creates a negative impact on the home country's economic development.

Organizational Brain Drain - This refers to the departure of individuals of skill, talent, and experience from one organization to another. Furthermore, organizational Brain Drain is very harmful for the organization in which this exodus occurs.

Industrial Brain Drain - This type involves the movement of skillful workers from one industryto another. Furthermore, industrial Brain Drain is the departure of individuals from one industry to another for better pay. Consequently, this causes a deficiency of talent in the industry which loses its workers to other industries.

Brain Drain in Europe follows two distinct trends. The first is an exodus of scientists of high qualification from Western Europe to the United States. Furthermore, the second trend is the migration of skillful workers from Central and South-eastern Europe into Western Europe.

African countries have lost a massive amount of skilled and talented individuals to developed nations. Most noteworthy, this makes it very difficult for African countries to come out of poverty. Furthermore, the most affected nations are Nigeria, Kenya, and Ethiopia.

There has been considerable emigration of talent from the Middle East. In Iraq under Saddam Hussain, there was a significant migration of professionals. This was due to a lack of support for these professionals under Saddam Hussain.

Also, in Iran, there is substantial emigration of skillful professionals on an annual basis. Moreover, the Arab world in general witnesses a huge amount of departures of experts. These departures are certainly due to better opportunities in technical fields in the west.

South Asia experiences a tremendous amount of emigration of talent. Furthermore, this trend is continuously rising year after year. Gulf Countries are a particularly favorite work location for many South Asians. Most noteworthy, there is a lot of demand for South Asian skilled, semi-skilled, and unskilled labor in the Gulf. Moreover, other favorite work locationsSouth Asia experiences a tremendous amount of emigration of talent. Furthermore, this trend is continuously rising year after year. Gulf Countries are a particularly favorite work location for many South Asians. Most noteworthy, there is a lot of demand for South Asian skilled, semi-skilled, and unskilled labor in the Gulf. Moreover, other favorite work locations for South Asians include Canada, United States, United Kingdom, and Australia.

To sum it up, Brain Drain is a widespread phenomenon these days. Many developing countries suffer from this problem of losing their talent to other countries. Most noteworthy, the government must take stern measures to control this loss of talent.

A 23 year old male patient is admitted to the emergency department after a motorcycle accident. He was not wearing a helmet, but is alert and awake. He reports having double vision and trouble breathing to the ER physician. Why might the patient have dyspnea and what can be done to protect his airway.
What diagnostic tests should be ordered to determine the cause of the symptoms?
What surgical procedure might be performed, and is this an emergent case?

Answers

Answer:

He need a chest Xray and a pulse oxymeter.  He may have a pneumothorax and may need a chest tube. This is an emergency case he need a CT scan to rule out brain injury. If the Oxygen saturation is low he may need to be intubated/

Explanation:

Explain the statement “Pharmacists must consider the effect the body has on the drug as well as the effect the drug has on the body.”

Answers

Yep that’s correct as most pharmacists check the drugs to make sure the drug doesn’t have an effect on the body

Yes most of the Pharmacists check the drugs to make sure that the drug doesn’t have an negative effect on the body.

What are the 4 stages of drug development?

Stages of drug development includes:

Discovery and Development. Preclinical Research. Clinical Research. FDA Drug Review. FDA Post-Market Drug Safety Monitoring.

What are the 4 phases of drug trials?Clinical Trial. The purpose of Phase 1 is to ensure that the treatment is safe in humans and to determine how and where it distributes within the body. Clinical Trial.Clinical Trial.Monitoring Post-FDA Approval.

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rashford, marleise. "a universal healthcare system: is it right for the united states?

Answers

A universal healthcare system is right for the United States. Universal healthcare will not only improve access to healthcare services for all Americans but also reduce healthcare disparities among different socio-economic groups.

A universal healthcare system refers to a system of healthcare services provided by the government to all its citizens regardless of their ability to pay. Universal healthcare aims to improve access to healthcare services and reduce healthcare disparities among different socio-economic groups. In most developed countries, universal healthcare is a fundamental right that is enjoyed by all citizens.The United States is one of the few developed countries in the world that lacks a universal healthcare system. Despite being the wealthiest nation in the world, over 27.5 million Americans have no health insurance. This lack of healthcare coverage has made it difficult for some Americans to access quality healthcare services, especially during emergencies.In the US, healthcare services are provided through private insurance schemes and employer-based healthcare plans. This makes it difficult for low-income Americans who cannot afford private insurance or employer-based plans to access quality healthcare services. This has led to a significant increase in healthcare disparities among different socio-economic groups. For example, low-income Americans and minorities are more likely to suffer from chronic illnesses and have higher mortality rates than their wealthy counterparts.In conclusion, a universal healthcare system is right for the United States. Universal healthcare will not only improve access to healthcare services for all Americans but also reduce healthcare disparities among different socio-economic groups.

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How should you handle Valerie's comment about Dr. Buckwalter being "gruff" and "unsympathetic"?

Answers

Valerie's comment about Dr. Buckwalter being "gruff" and "unsympathetic" should be handled by telling her to tell him about the type of feelings she has towards him and try to understand his perspective.

What is Feelings?

This is referred to as an emotional state or reaction towards an individual and there are various types such as happy, sad etc.

In this scenario, we were told that Valerie thinks Dr. Buckwalter is "gruff" and "unsympathetic" and should be handled by telling her to him about how she feels towards him and know his perspective so as to ensure resolution of the issue.

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