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The CDC's crisis and emergency and disaster communication (CERC) model identifies five crisis phases and associated communication objectives.
The crisis and emergency risk communication (CERC) model is a five-stage theory that merges established public health practices with principles of crisis communication.
Anyone who interacts on behalf of an organization managing to a public health disaster can benefit from the evidence-based methodology and best practices provided by the Center for Disease Control's (CDC) Crisis & Emergency Risk Communication (CERC) handbook.
Crisis management focuses on when things do go wrong. Risk communication focuses on potential negative outcomes. Risk communication is a response to any situation that can raise public anxiety and draw media attention to a company.
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We are making huge advancements in genetic and reproductive technology. Some people have suggested that labs should offer services to people to allow them to choose the traits of the unborn children. Other people argue against this, saying that would be taking genetic technology too far, and would be a misuse of our knowledge. In your post:
1. Explain what you think of this idea from a technology, ethics, and science perspective. What are the potential benefits and drawbacks?
2. Find a reliable website that explains this type of technology, and include it in your response.
3. Find an example in the news of the use (or misuse) of this technology, and explain why you think this is or is not taking things too far.
Be sure to use scientific evidence to support your views. For full credit, you must cite your sources, and thoughtfully respond to at least one additional post.
Answers
The idea of using genetic and reproductive technology to allow people to choose the traits of their unborn children has both benefits and drawbacks.
From a technology and science perspective, advancements in genetic engineering can potentially eradicate genetic disorders and diseases, leading to healthier offspring. However, there are ethical concerns surrounding this idea. These concerns include the possibility of creating a divide between those who can afford the technology and those who cannot, and the potential for "designer babies" where people could choose cosmetic traits rather than focus on health-related ones.
Potential benefits include the elimination of genetic diseases, better understanding of human genetics, and increased overall health. Drawbacks include ethical concerns, widening social inequalities, and unforeseen consequences of manipulating genes.
A reliable website that explains this type of technology is the Genetics Home Reference by the U.S. National Library of Medicine: https://ghr.nlm.nih.gov/primer
An example in the news of the use of this technology is the case of the Chinese scientist, He Jiankui, who claimed to have created the world's first genetically edited babies to be resistant to HIV. Many scientists and ethicists argue that this is an example of taking things too far, as the long-term consequences of the genetic editing are unknown, and there was not enough transparency or oversight in the experiment.
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What supplies would you need to empty the urinary collection bag and measure the urine output appropriately
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The supplies which would be needed to empty the urinary collection bag and measure the urine output appropriately include the following:
GlovesGarbage bagsCatheterWhat is Urine?This is referred to as a liquid by product of metabolism and is usually whitish or yellowish and stored in the bladder before it is expelled put from the body. Urine is harmful to the body as it contains urea which is why it must be expelled as soon as we feel the urge to.
Some medical conditions such as prostate cancer etc require emptying the urinary collection bag and measure the urine output appropriately and materials such as catheter, garbage bags etc ensure that they are properly done.
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Carlos' nutritionist recommended he eat 2,500 calories per day. How many of these calories should come from fat
Answers
Answer: 500 to 875
Explanation:
A calorie is simply referred to as a unit of energy. Calories has to do with the energy that people get from food and the drinks that they eat. Nutritionist typically advices people to reduce their calories intake.
According to nutritionist, about 20% - 35% of the food that we eat should come from fat. In this scenario, we have to calculate 20% of 2500 calories and also calculate 35% of 2500 calories. This will be:
= 20% × 2500 calories
= 0.2 × 2500 calories
= 500 calories
Also, 35% of 2500 calories would be:
= 35% × 2500 calories
= 0.35 × 2500 calories
= 875 calories.
Therefore, the answer is 500 to 875.
solve the equation 9x^2_y^2=45 and 3x_y=3
Answers
Answer:
x=3
Explanation:
3x-y=3 -----1
9x^2-y^2=45-----2
making x the subject of the formular in equ 1
3x=3 + y
x =(3 + y)/3
substituting x with (3 + y)/3 in equ 2
9[(3 + y)/3]^2 - y^2=45
9[(1 + y/3)]^2 - y^2=45
9[(1 + y/3)(1 + y/3)] - y^2=45
9[1 + y/3 + y/3 + y^2/9] - y^2=45
9[1 + (2y)/3 + (y^2)/9] - y^2=45
9 + 6y + y^2 - y^2=45
9 + 6y =45
6y=45-9
6y = 36
y = 36/6
y = 6
substituting y for 6 in equ 1
3x-6=3
3x=3 + 6
3x = 9
x =9/3
x=3
1. For the different types of carbohydrates, drop the label into the appropriate box, indicating whether each is a source of monosaccharides, disaccharides, or polysaccharides.
2. Cholesterol, a type of lipid, is abundant in plant-based foods.
true or false?
Answers
The appropriate labels for the different types of carbohydrates are: Monosaccharides, Disaccharides, Polysaccharides. There is a lot of cholesterol, a lipid, in plant-based diets. This claim is untrue.
A lipid called cholesterol is not widely present in plant-based meals. Animal goods including meat, eggs, and dairy contain it instead. Foods derived from plants don't contain cholesterol. They include various lipids, including saturated and unsaturated fats. Three key functions of cholesterol in human bodies are as follows: It facilitates the synthesis of sex hormones. It serves as the foundation for human tissues. It aids the liver's bile synthesis.
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a client informs the nurse of a problem with acid indigestion. the client notes taking large amounts of calcium carbonate antacids daily but still has no relief. the client consumes about 1 bottle of 100 antacids in 4 days. which blood gas result does the nurse anticipate?
Answers
PH 7.6 is the blood gas result the nurse can anticipate. A good balance of acidity and alkalinity is something that the human body is designed to automatically maintain.
Any malfunctioning in the organs leads to acid - base imbalance acidosis and alkalosis. A blood pH of less than 7.35 or very acidic blood is referred to as acidosis. Alkalosis is defined as having overly basic blood, or blood with a pH higher than 7.45. Acidosis may be respiratory acidosis and metabolic acidosis. Alkalosis may be respiratory and metabolic acidosis.
The following are some signs of a pH imbalance: tingling, cramping in the muscles, weakness, convulsions, and changes in mental status, ranging from bewilderment to comatose . Both acidosis and alkalosis need prompt medical intervention from a qualified healthcare provider.
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please help me I am stuck
Answers
Answer:
D looks fine
Explanation:
the icu nurse is working with an experienced lpn/ lvn in caring for ms. d. which nursing activities included in the care plan should be assigned to the lpn/lvn?
Answers
The nursing activities assigned to an LPN/LVN in an ICU setting will vary depending on the state's Nurse Practice Act and the facility's policies and procedures.
What is an ICU?
In an ICU (Intensive Care Unit) setting, the level of care required for patients is high, and the nursing activities performed will be complex. An LPN/LVN may assist the RN in providing direct patient care, but the RN is responsible for the overall assessment, planning, implementation, and evaluation of the patient's care.
In general, LPN/LVNs can perform tasks such as taking vital signs, administering medications, wound care, and patient hygiene under the supervision of a registered nurse (RN). Any tasks that require complex assessment, decision-making, and judgement should be reserved for the RN. The RN is responsible for developing the care plan and delegating tasks to the LPN/LVN based on their scope of practice and experience. It is important to regularly reassess the patient's condition and adjust the care plan as needed.
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Darla knows it is important to act professionally while speaking with customers over the phone. Joe is impatient and does not want to be placed on hold. How would you make sure Joe’s refill request is completed before going on your break?
Answers
Explanation:
try to make him calm before taking
the surgical suturing of the bladder is known as
Answers
Answer:
Cystorrhaphy
compared to pharmaceuticals (i.e. prescription and over the counter drugs), dietary supplements in the us are:
Answers
Compared to pharmaceuticals, dietary supplements in the US are regulated differently.
While pharmaceuticals undergo rigorous testing and evaluation for safety and efficacy before they can be marketed, dietary supplements have less stringent regulations. Dietary supplements are regulated under the Dietary Supplement Health and Education Act (DSHEA) of 1994, which treats them as a category of food rather than drugs.
This means that manufacturers are responsible for ensuring the safety and labeling accuracy of their products, but they are not required to provide the same level of evidence for their effectiveness as pharmaceuticals.
As a result, the quality and safety of dietary supplements can vary, and there is a greater risk of potential risks and interactions. It is important for individuals to exercise caution and consult with healthcare professionals before taking dietary supplements.
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Which of the following are Cholinergic agents? Mytelase or urecholine or guanidine or motrin
Answers
Answer:
Mytelase only
Explanation:
Calculate how many grams of NaOH are required to make a 30% solution by using De-ionized water as the solvent
Answers
is considered healthy in terms of its effect on blood cholesterol, while ____ is considered unhealthy
Answers
Answer:
MONOUNSATURATED FAT is considered healthy in terms of its effect on blood cholesterol, while TRANS FAT is considered unhealthy.
Explanation:
Monounsaturated fat, in nutrition, is a fatty acid with a double bond in the molecule. The best known monounsaturated fats are those of Omega 9, like natural oils. These foods are beneficial for health, as they reduce the level of cholesterol in the blood, thereby improving the functioning of the blood and heart systems.
In turn, trans fat is a type of unsaturated fat that is neither necessary for the body nor good for health. On the contrary, trans fats have been found to increase the risk of developing coronary heart disease and cancer.
at birth, a xy patient that has a mutation in the gene coding for the enzyme 5-alpha reductase will exhibit
Answers
At birth, a XY patient with a mutation in the gene coding for the enzyme 5-alpha reductase will exhibit ambiguous genitalia.
What is Mutation?
Mutation is the process of changing or altering the genetic material of an organism. It can be caused by various factors, such as exposure to radiation, chemicals, or viruses, or even by mistakes that occur during DNA replication. Mutation can lead to changes in the organism's physical characteristics, as well as changes in its behavior.
In the case of the XY patient, this enzyme is responsible for converting testosterone to dihydrotestosterone, which is necessary for the normal development of male sexual organs. Without this enzyme, the body cannot produce enough dihydrotestosterone and male sexual organs do not develop normally. The result is atypical external genitalia that can appear to be both male and female. In addition, the patient may also have an underdeveloped prostate and underdeveloped male secondary sex characteristics, such as facial hair and a deep voice.
What is Ambiguous genitalia?
Ambiguous genitalia is a condition in which an infant's external genitals do not have the typical appearance of either a boy or girl. In some cases, ambiguous genitalia may be a sign of an underlying medical condition, such as an intersex disorder or a chromosomal abnormality. Treatment for ambiguous genitalia typically involves the use of hormone therapy, surgery, and sometimes psychological therapy.
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How might you evaluate the CPOE implementation process at University Health Care System? Give examples of different methods or strategies you might employ.
Answers
Answer:
Explanation:
Since the early 1990s, the use of health information technology (HIT) or Health Information System (HIS) across all aspects of the US health care delivery system has been increasing. Electronic heath records (EHRs), telehealth social media, mobile applications, and so on are becoming the norm even common place today. Health care providers and organizations across the continuum of care have come to depend on reliable HIS to aid in managing population health effectively while reducing costs and improving quality care.
Computerized provider order entry (CPOE) is an application that allows health care providers to use a computer to directly enter medical orders electronically in inpatient and ambulatory settings, replacing the more traditional order methods of paper, verbal, telephone, and fax. CPOE systems can allow providers to electronically enter medication orders as well as laboratory, admission, radiology, referral, and procedure orders. Strictly defined, it is the process by which providers directly enter medical orders into a computer application. CPOE systems with clinical decision support systems can improve medication safety and quality of care as well as compliance with guidelines and the efficiency of hospital workflow; they can also reduce the cost of care.
Fortunately, the potential benefits of a CPOE system are many, including reducing clinical practice variation, operating expenses, adverse drug events, drug utilization, ancillary testing, and unit workloads.
CPOE implementation process in University health care system is running slow. The EMR project will be incomplete without CPOE system. We must ensure patient safety by insisting on efficiency and accuracy. A slower phase approach never benefited for the organization. We should put some additional effort and pain at this stage and ensure quality and safety.
The CPOE methods that could be implemented at university Health Care System are as follows: The CPOE can provide renal dosing guidance and adverse drug event prevention, it is evident that the implementation has serious medication errors and decrease adverse drug events. The systems may also include prompt clinicians to prescribe appropriate medications or suggest appropriate laboratory test for a particular conditions, including standards screening tests when they are due. The accuracy of electronic delivery can reduce turnarounds times of the medication delivery and complete diagnostic tests.
The following are goals that are to be implemented: “optimize patient safety, improve quality outcomes and reduce variation in practice through the use of evidence-based practice guidelines, reduce risk for errors, accommodate regulatory standards expectations, enhance patient satisfaction, standardize processes, and improve efficiency”.
what is drug summation and how does it defer from drug synergism?
Answers
Answer:
The most common method for the quantitative assessment of unusual interaction between agonist drugs is the method of isoboles. This is a graphical procedure, introduced and developed by Loewe,8-10 that uses the dose-effect relation of each drug (alone) in order to derive the set of dose combinations that are expected to give a specified effect level. Most often the selected effect level is 50% of the maximum effect, and the doses of each full agonist drug that individually give this effect are therefore their ED50 doses. In its simplest form this procedure uses the ED50 doses of the individual drugs and uses these as intercept values on a Cartesian coordinate system in which doses are represented on the x- and y-axes. The straight line connecting these intercepts represents the set of points (dose pairs) that give the specified effect (50% of Emax) when there is no interaction between the drugs. This line, called an isobole, conveys numerical information that shows the reduction in the required dose of one drug that accompanies the presence of a dose of the second drug. Understandably this line has a negative slope since the increase in quantity of Drug A means that a lesser quantity of Drug B is needed to achieve the specified effect level. If we denote the intercepts by A for the ED50 of Drug A and by B for the ED50 of Drug B, then the isobole is expressed by the simple linear equation:
aA+bB=1,
where a is the dose of Drug A and b is the dose of Drug B when the 2 are present together (Fig. 1). If an effect level other than 50% of the maximum is used, then this equation still applies and denotes the dose pair (a,b) that gives that particular effect level where the A and B are now the respective individual doses for that effect level. The isobole expressed in Equation 1 allows the assessment of superadditive and subadditive interactions when actual combination doses are tested. If testing shows that the specified effect of a combination is achieved by a dose pair that plots as a point below the isobole, this means that the effect was attained with doses less than those on the line, a situation that denotes superadditivity or synergism. In contrast, an experiment may show that greater combination doses are needed to produce the specified effect and therefore this dose pair plots as a point above the isobole line. Dose pairs that experimentally lie on the line (or not significantly off the line) are termed additive, a situation that means no interaction between the 2 drugs. These cases are illustrated in Fig. 1. Other forms of Equation 1 have been used; for example, one may use an expression for the total dose (a + b) for any fixed ratio combination of doses. These forms are contained in the author’s monograph.4 The reason that a point on the line is termed additive is explained subsequently. But first we ask, why is Equation 1 the basis for defining a zero interaction, and, further, how is this equation derived? The answer to these questions is contained in the section below, which discusses the concept of dose equivalence.
Answer:
when the combine effect of two drugs is greater than the sum of their effects when given separately. Potentiation: when one drug does not elicit a response on its own but enhances the response to another drug.
What limits how much glucose can be taken out of the filtrate
Answers
Answer:
Under normal circumstances, up to 180 g/day of glucose is filtered by the renal glomerulus and virtually all of it is subsequently reabsorbed in the proximal convoluted tubule. This reabsorption is effected by two sodium-dependent glucose cotransporter (SGLT) proteins.
Answer:
It corresponds to a plasma glucose level of about 200mg/dL.
Explanation:
How old should I be to begin studying for a doctor?
Answers
Answer:
22bto 26. brainliest please
Mr. Chin is an 82-year-old man who comes to your office for a routine check. On examination, you notice a somewhat high-pitched murmur in the second right intercostal space during systole. It does not radiate and the rest of his examination is normal for his age. Which is true of the most likely cause of this murmur
Answers
Answer: mildaortic stenosis
Explanation:
since it is during systole, in second right intercostal space and a murmur its possibly mildaortic stenosis
Coughing forces the trachea (windpipe) to contract, which affects the velocity v of the air passing through the trachea. Suppose the velocity of the air duFind theg coughing is v = k(R - r)r^2 where k is a positive constant, R is the normal radius of the trachea, and r is the radius duFind theg coughing. What radius duFind theg coughing will produce the maximum air velocity? (When differentiating v, explain how you differentiate it! And then, explain every step!)
Answers
The radius duFind theg coughing that produces the maximum air velocity is r = 2R/3.
To find the radius that produces the maximum air velocity, we need to maximize the function v with respect to r.
v = k(R - r)\(r^2\)
To maximize v, we need to find the critical points, which are the values of r where v' = 0.
v' = k(R - r)(2r) - k(\(r^2\))
v' = 2kr(R - r) - k\(r^2\)
Setting v' = 0 and solving for r, we get:
2kr(R - r) - k\(r^2\) = 0
2Rr - 2\(r^2\) - \(r^2\) = 0
3\(r^2\)- 2Rr = 0
r(3r - 2R) = 0
r = 0 or r = 2R/3
Since r = 0 would make no physical sense, the only critical point is r = 2R/3. To show that this is a maximum, we need to check the second derivative of v:
v'' = -2k(R - 2r)
When r = 2R/3, v'' = -2k(R - 4R/3) = -2kR/3 < 0, which means that r = 2R/3 is a maximum.
Therefore, the radius duFind theg coughing that produces the maximum air velocity is r = 2R/3.
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A patient with a diagnosis of chronic sphenoidal sinusitis undergoes a bilateral sinusotomy. While the provider examines the diseased sphenoid sinus, she takes a biopsy of the sphenoid masses and removes the mucosa with several polyps. Transseptal sutures are placed and the intraoral incision is closed in a single layer. The nose is packed and external nasal dressings are placed. What cpt® and icd-10-cm codes are reported?
Answers
The CPT and ICD-10-cm codes are reported in 31050 and 31051. 31051 is appropriate for the reporting of biopsies taken in the sphenoids as well as the removal of mucosa and polyps. The procedure was an open procedure it was not performed endoscopically.
Surgical sinusoscopy includes sinusotomy if appropriate and diagnostic endoscopy. Codes 31295-31297 describe tissue displacement, and dilation of the ostium by any method and may include fluoroscopy. Codes 31233-31297 are used to report unsolicited procedures unless otherwise stated.
Coding Separate Procedures Within the code for endoscopic nasal surgery are the codes 31231 Nasal endoscopies diagnostic unilateral or bilateral separate procedures, and 31237 Nasal, sinus endoscopy surgical There are two separate procedures of surgery. In a separate procedure than biopsy polypectomy or debridement.
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Major minerals are needed in amounts greater than __________ milligrams per day, and the daily need for some of these minerals is more than __________ milligrams.
Answers
Major minerals are needed in amounts of greater than 100 milligrams per day, and the daily need for some of these minerals is more than 1000 milligrams.
What are major minerals?Major minerals or macro minerals are those which are required and stored in large quantities in the body.The 7 major minerals are sodium, potassium, calcium, magnesium, phosphorus, sulfur and chloride.Many of these macro minerals work together to keep your body healthy and functioning.Calcium and phosphorus strengthen teeth and bones.Sodium, potassium, magnesium and calcium work together to make sure that signals are transmitted through nerves properly.The trace elements are those which are necessary for the proper functioning of the body but are required in less quantity than major minerals.These are iron, copper, zinc, cobalt, manganese, iodine etc.Learn more about trace minerals here:
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You are assessing a 25-year-old woman who is 39 weeks pregnant. She is experiencing regular contractions that are approximately 3 minutes apart and states that her amniotic sac broke 2 hours ago. After taking the standard precautions, you should:
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which of the following is not a part of person centered care
Answers
Answer:
please state the correct question and post the pic of the questions
When a patient is first admitted to an emergency room hospital staff will assess whether the patient is and or aao which may indicate the level of crisis the patient is in
Answers
Answer: alert, awake & oriented
Explanation:
Answer:
Awake, Alert, and Oriented.
Explanation:
This is a medical term used to describe a patients risk of worsening. In almost all situations if the medical recipient is awake and can talk and comprehend things, they are ok to wait for proper medical procedures and are in no serious hurry.
What, according to your textbook, is a robust and useful theory?
What goes into creating a theory?
What is the difference between a theory and an idea?
Human nature is a broader concept than personality. The assumptions about human nature are reflected in the theories you will read. Looking at the list of six "dimensions for a concept of humanity" in the first chapter of your textbook (Feist et al., 2021), explain one of the dimensions in your own words and give an example.
Answers
One dimension of human nature mentioned in the textbook is "individual differences." This dimension recognizes that individuals vary in their thoughts, emotions, behaviors, and characteristics. It acknowledges the uniqueness of each person and emphasizes the importance of considering these individual differences in understanding human behavior.
According to the textbook, a robust and useful theory is one that is based on empirical evidence, provides a comprehensive explanation of phenomena, and has practical applications. Such a theory is supported by multiple research studies and has been tested and validated across different contexts and populations. It should offer insights into the underlying mechanisms and processes involved, allowing for predictions and interventions.
Creating a theory involves several steps. It typically begins with observation and the identification of patterns or relationships in data. From there, researchers develop hypotheses and formulate predictions based on existing knowledge and theories. These hypotheses are then tested through empirical research, using various research methods such as experiments, surveys, or qualitative analysis. The results of these studies are analyzed, and conclusions are drawn, which contribute to the development and refinement of the theory. The process of theory creation is iterative, as new evidence and ideas emerge, leading to further modifications and expansions of the theory.
The main difference between a theory and an idea lies in their level of development and empirical support. An idea is a concept or notion that has not been extensively tested or validated through research. It is often a starting point for further exploration and inquiry. In contrast, a theory is a well-established and systematically organized set of principles or explanations supported by empirical evidence and research. It provides a framework for understanding and predicting phenomena.
For example, some individuals may have a more introverted personality, preferring solitude and reflection, while others may be more extraverted, seeking social interactions and stimulation. Recognizing and considering these individual differences helps explain why people respond differently to various situations and interventions, and it highlights the need for personalized approaches in psychology and related fields.
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What is the root operation for lysis of adhesions?
Answers
The body part being freed—rather than the tissue being handled or cut—is the value-coded body part in the root operation Release.
The specific value for the gut body part is assigned to the lysis of intestinal adhesions, for instance. Against Division B3, Release. The root operation is Release if the procedure's only goal is to release a body part without actually cutting it. The root operations Excision, Extraction, or Drainage with the qualifier Diagnostic are used to code biopsy procedures in 4a. Root procedures including excision, resection, detachment, destruction, and extraction remove all or part of a physical portion. Root operations including drainage, extirpation, and fragmentation remove sediments, liquids, and gases from a body component.
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A 23 year old male patient is admitted to the emergency department after a motorcycle accident. He was not wearing a helmet, but is alert and awake. He reports having double vision and trouble breathing to the ER physician. Why might the patient have dyspnea and what can be done to protect his airway.
What diagnostic tests should be ordered to determine the cause of the symptoms?
What surgical procedure might be performed, and is this an emergent case?
Answers
Answer:
He need a chest Xray and a pulse oxymeter. He may have a pneumothorax and may need a chest tube. This is an emergency case he need a CT scan to rule out brain injury. If the Oxygen saturation is low he may need to be intubated/
Explanation:
the physician was unable to stop a patient’s nosebleed through pinching the nose and packing it. he resorted to using a device to burn and scar blood vessel inside the nose. this procedure is called
Answers
The physician was unable to stop a patient’s nosebleed by pinching the nose and packing it. he resorted to using a device to burn and scar blood vessels inside the nose. this procedure is called cautery.
Is it possible to stop nosebleeds surgically?A procedure called nasal cautery, often known as nasal cauterization, is used to stop nosebleeds (epistaxis). A chemical or electrical device is administered to the mucous membranes in the nose during nasal cautery to stop bleeding.
What is the best course of action for epistaxis?Cauterization. The majority of cases of epistaxis with a readily apparent anterior cause can be successfully treated with electrocoagulation or silver nitrate cauterization.
What is the initial course of action for epistaxis?Compressing the nostrils (applying direct pressure to the septal area) and sealing the affected nostril with gauze or cotton that has been soaked in a topical decongestant are two initial therapy techniques. Continuous direct pressure should be used for at least five minutes and a maximum of twenty minutes.
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