which education would the nurse teach the parents of an infant with a cardiac defect about an early sign of heart failure?

Answers

Answer 1

The education that a nurse would teach the parents of an infant with a cardiac defect about an early sign of heart failure is an increased heart rate.

Why is important to monitor the heart rate?

An increase in the heart rate is indicative of health problems because the heart must pump blood to all parts of the body in an interval range, which when exceeded may be a sign of heart failure and related conditions.

For example, increased heart rate may be indicative of arrhythmias that are prior to heart attacks and therefore they should be monitored in proper clinical settings in order to avoid this type of health complication.

Therefore, with this data, we can see that an increase in the heart rate may be inactive of a problem and therefore it should be monitored by parents in children with records of this type of complication.

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Related Questions

What is the preferred method of removing a foreign body in an unresponsive child? a) Back slaps b) Abdominal thrusts c) Chest compressions d) Manual removal

Answers

The preferred method of removing a foreign body from an unresponsive child is manual removal.

It's crucial to immediately call for emergency medical help if a youngster is not breathing on their own. If CPR is required, do so. If a foreign body is thought to be obstructing the child's airway, physical removal should only be done if the youngster is lying down and an adult is on hand to carry out the surgery. If possible, the rescuer should remove the foreign body from the child's mouth by gently sweeping it with their fingertips inside the child's mouth. The rescuer should continue performing CPR until emergency medical help comes if manual removal is impossible or if it causes the youngster to begin choking. When a child is not responding, abdominal thrusts, back slaps, or chest compressions should not be used to remove a foreign body.

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The histograms show triglyceride levels for 74 men and 100 women. Triglycerides are a form of fat found in blood. Complete parts (a) and (b) below. a. Compare the distribution of triglyceride levels for men and women. (Be sure to compare the shapes, the centers, and the spreads.) b. Triglyceride levels under 150 are good; levels above 500 are very high and may be a health concern. Which group seems to have better triglyceride levels

Answers

Based on the distribution given by the histogram, the distribution of triglyceride for both men and women are skewed to right and the Women distribution seems to have a better triglyceride level.

The distribution displayed by the histogram have their tails to the right and their peaks to the left of the distribution. Hence, they are both right skewed with the male distribution having a wider spread.

The triglyceride level in Women is better as only about 13 observations above 150 mg/dL. This observations also fall below 500 mg/dL.

The Men's distribution are more spread out, with about 25 observations having above 150mg/dL and 1 observation having about 750mg/dL triglyceride level.

Therefore, Women's distribution has a better triglyceride level.

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The histograms show triglyceride levels for 74 men and 100 women. Triglycerides are a form of fat found

When communicating with a patient who has expressive aphasia, the highest priority for the nurse is:
1 To ask open-ended questions.
2 To understand that the patient will be uncooperative.
3 To coach the patient to respond.
4 To offer pictures or a communication board so the patient can point.

Answers

Offer pictures or a communication board so the patient can point.

The highest priority for the nurse when communicating with a patient who has expressive aphasia is to offer pictures or a communication board so the patient can point.

Offering pictures or a communication board allows the patient to convey their needs, preferences, and concerns by pointing or gesturing. This visual communication method bypasses the limitations of verbal expression and facilitates effective communication between the patient and the healthcare team.

While asking open-ended questions and coaching the patient to respond are important strategies in communication, they may not be the highest priority for a patient with expressive aphasia. Understanding that the patient will be uncooperative is a generalized assumption and may not apply to all patients with expressive aphasia.

In conclusion, offering pictures or a communication board to facilitate non-verbal communication is the highest priority for the nurse when communicating with a patient who has expressive aphasia. It promotes effective communication, empowers the patient, and ensures their needs and preferences are understood and addressed.

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Identify the length of the chain of infection that has been broken by the following action hand washing

Answers

Answer:

means of transmission

Explanation:

hand washing prevents the spread of infection.

What type of evidence produced through quantitative research would be helpful to better understand the selected practice issue?

Answers

Answer:

Numerical type of evidence.

Explanation:

Numerical type of evidence produced through quantitative research that would be helpful to better understand the selected practice issue. Quantitative research is the process of collecting and analyzing numerical data so we can say that for numerical type of evidence is formed and analyzed with the help of quantitative research and it will help to understand the problem.

It should be noted that Numerical type of evidence produced through quantitative research.

According to this question, we are to discuss about Numerical type of evidence.

As a result of this we can see that Numerical type of evidence helps to  to better understand the selected practice issue and it is one of the best type of evidence.

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“In terms of muscle actions at the knee joint, the quadriceps and hamstrings are”

Answers

Answer:

antagonist.

and the question before that is C. Sarcomeres

Explanation:

The quadriceps and the hamstrings are antagonists to each other in their actions at the knee joint, the quadriceps, and hamstrings.

What movement at the knee do the hamstring muscles perform?

The function of this hamstring is to flex your knee, extend the thigh at your hip and rotate your lower leg from side to side when your knee is bent.

What is the relationship between the quadriceps and hamstrings in the knee?

Many muscles acting on the thigh have their insertions around the knee. The quadriceps femoris muscle is the principal muscle involved in knee extension5, 6). The principal muscles involved in knee flexion are the hamstring muscle group5).

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The nurse is assessing a toddler for motor function. Which of the following activities will be most valuable?
a) Watch the child reach for a toy.
b) Give the child some potato chips.
c) Have the child catch a ball.
d) Let the child look at a picture book.

Answers

The most valuable activity for assessing motor function in a toddler would be to watch the child reach for a toy. The correct option is a) Watch the child reach for a toy.

This is because reaching for a toy requires the use of multiple motor skills, including coordination, balance, and hand-eye coordination. By observing the child's ability to reach for and grasp the toy, the nurse can gain insight into their overall motor function. Giving the child some potato chips or letting them look at a picture book may provide some information about their cognitive abilities, but they do not require the same level of motor skills as reaching for a toy.

Having the child catch a ball may also be a valuable activity for assessing motor function, as it requires coordination and hand-eye coordination, but may not be suitable for all toddlers depending on their age and developmental level. Overall, observing the child reach for a toy is a simple and effective way to assess their motor function and should be included in any comprehensive assessment of a toddler's development.

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Interrupted or restricted breathing associated with breathing-related sleep disorders can also cause disrupted sleep and daytime sleepiness. Extreme cases involve short periods in which a person may stop breathing altogether, referred to as sleep apnea. If the cessation of breathing is due to a complete lack of respiratory activity, a person is experiencing?
A. Mixed Sleep Apnea
B. Obstructive Sleep Apnea
C. Central Sleep Apnea

Answers

The answer might be B. Obstructive sleep Apnea.

Stanley calls the office for refill of his blood pressure medication to have enough medication until his schedule
would this be documented?

O A. Medication refill
encounter
OB. No documentation needed, he has an appointment in three weeks
OC. Telephone encounter
O D. Leaving a note on the provider's desk; he or she will document
O Mark for review (Will be highlighted on the review page)
< Previous Question
Next Question >>

Answers

Answer:

it alll wrong

Explanation:

When Stanley calls the office for refill of his blood pressure medication to have enough medication until his schedule, it will be documented as telephone encounter.

What is telephone encounter?"The term telephone encounter is used when one makes an outgoing or incoming phone call from a patient.One also keeps track of what happened during the conversation.So, the fact that a refill was requested will be documented.What is a medication refill?It is a condition in which when run out of medicines one can seek a refill from a pharmacy from where the prior medicine was purchased.One can also call a pharmacy and provide the prescription number, name of the medicine and the person's name.

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2. Calcule los gramos de azúcar que deben disolverse en 825 g de
agua para preparar una solución de azúcar al 20% p/p
Todo el proceso

Answers

Respuesta:

206,25 g

Explicación:

Porcentaje de masa, m = 20%

Solución = soluto + solvente

Masa de soluto = m

Disolvente = masa de agua = 825 g

Masa de la solución = m + 825

(Masa de soluto / masa de solvente) = porcentaje de masa

(m / (m + 825)) = 20%

(m / (m + 825)) = 0,2

m = 0,2 (m + 825)

m = 0,2 m + 165

m - 0,2 m = 165

0,8 m = 165

m = 165 / 0,8

m = 206,25 g

dentify the true statement.
a.
PK is not a good predictor of how quickly the PD effect will start.
b.
How quickly a drug is distributed in the body is a study of pharmacodynamics of a drug.,
c.
How slow (or fast) a drug is metabolized can allow us to determine the dosing schedule of a drug.
d.
Both b and c

Answers

The true statement is b. How quickly a drug is distributed in the body is a study of pharmacodynamics of a drug.

Pharmacodynamic actions of a drug include stimulating activity by directly inhibiting a receptor and its downstream effects. Depressing activity by direct receptor inhibition and its downstream effects. Antagonistic or obstruction a receptor by binding to that, however not activating it.

4 stages of pharmacodynamics are Absorption: Describes however the drug moves from the location of administration to the location of action. Distribution: Describes the journey of the drug through the blood to varied tissues of the body. Metabolism: Describes the method that breaks down the drug. Excretion: Describes the removal of the drug from the body.

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How multiply with 6 is like multiplying with 3?

Answers

It`s like multiplying with 3, because all numbers divisible by 6 (i.e., 6, 12, 18, 24, 30) are also divisible by 3 (i.e., 3, 6, 9, 12, 15, 18, 21, 24, 27, 30).

Why are there numbers?

These words that validate concepts are cognitive tools. With numbers, you can consistently distinguish between them. This allows us to find fascinating and useful natural patterns that we otherwise could not accurately capture. Numbers are really a simple invention.

How did numbers come to be used?

Early Paleolithic people probably counted animals and other everyday items by scratching tally marks on cave walls, bones, trees, or stones. Each counter represented 1 and he was crossed out every fifth counter to keep track. The origin of the numbers is the integers (1, 2, 3, 4, ... . ) and positive rational numbers.

Who made the first numbers?

Some historians believe that these ideas developed independently in different parts of the world, i.e., the Arabic numeral system we are familiar with today is attributed to two mathematicians from ancient India: Brahmagupta, 6th century BC and Aryabhata of the 5th century BC.

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Answer:

with 6 if you were saying 6 x2 is 12

Explanation:

you divide 6 by 3 and 2 x 2 it’s 4x3 which also = 12

Patients with posterior column lesions may experience allodynia, which causes pain when applying pressure to various musculoskeletal locations. Or is it more likely that fibromyalgia is to blame for this? How do carbamazepine and gabapentin's clinical success rates compare? How may dissociative sensory loss be detected clinically? How much urograffin is advised to take before undergoing contrast-enhanced computed tomography? When a suspected intracerebral abscess or glial tumour is present, how far in advance should this be supplied before imaging?

Answers

Patients with posterior column lesions may experience allodynia, as can those with fibromyalgia. Carbamazepine and gabapentin are both useful drugs for reducing neuropathic pain.


Allodynia, a symptom in which pain occurs with ordinary pressure, is a neurological symptom that may appear in the setting of other medical conditions. Patients with posterior column lesions, for example, are likely to experience allodynia. Fibromyalgia, on the other hand, is a musculoskeletal disorder characterized by chronic widespread pain and tenderness. Patients with fibromyalgia may experience allodynia as well.

Carbamazepine and gabapentin are both effective medications for treating neuropathic pain, with gabapentin having a higher success rate. Pinprick and temperature sensation tests can be used to detect dissociative sensory loss, which is a lack of sensation in response to pinpricks and temperature changes. A patient should consume 1000 ml of urograffin or a comparable contrast agent before undergoing contrast-enhanced computed tomography. Prior to the imaging exam, intravenous dexamethasone, a corticosteroid drug, should be given if a suspected intracerebral abscess or glioma is present.

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One advantage that most geriatric teams have in common is that they are
1 - long-term care oriented
2 - large teams
3 - focused on specific illnesses
4 - inflexible

Answers

Answer:

Focused on specific illness

Explanation:

What are the rights and responsibilities of an individual who can transmit disease?

Answers

Typhoid Mary and HIV Jane

Explain how the drug development and approval process is regulated by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA). What are the major hurdles that pharmaceutical companies must overcome in drug development? Are there exceptions to these regulatory steps? If so, what are they and what is the rationale behind each? How does the drug approval process by the FDA in the United States differ from approval processes by similar agencies in other countries, such as the European Medicines Agency?

Answers

a. The FDA regulates the drug development and approval process by ensuring drugs are safe, effective, and properly labeled.

b. Pharmaceutical companies face major hurdles in drug development, including identifying viable drug targets and conducting extensive research and clinical trials.

c. There are exceptions to regulatory steps, such as the FDA's programs for expedited review, including Fast Track designation, Breakthrough Therapy designation, and Priority Review

d. The FDA's drug approval process in the United States differs from approval processes by agencies like the European Medicines Agency (EMA) in terms of requirements, timelines, and procedures.

a. Pharmaceutical companies must submit an Investigational New Drug (IND) application, conduct preclinical studies to evaluate safety and effectiveness, and then proceed to clinical trials in phases (I, II, and III) involving human subjects. The FDA reviews the data from these trials to assess the drug's safety and efficacy before granting approval.

b. Pharmaceutical companies face major hurdles in drug development, including identifying potential drug targets, conducting extensive research and development, navigating complex regulatory requirements, ensuring safety and efficacy through rigorous clinical trials, and securing sufficient funding for the entire process.

c. There are exceptions to regulatory steps, such as the FDA's programs for expedited approval. These include Fast Track designation, Breakthrough Therapy designation, and Priority Review. These programs are designed to accelerate the development and approval of drugs that address unmet medical needs or offer significant advancements in treating serious conditions.

d. The drug approval process by the FDA in the United States differs from approval processes by agencies like the European Medicines Agency (EMA). The FDA generally requires more extensive clinical trial data for approval compared to the EMA. Additionally, there are variations in regulatory frameworks, review timelines, and specific requirements, which can result in differences in the timing and availability of drug approvals between the FDA and other agencies. Cultural factors and healthcare systems also play a role in these variations.

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Which of the following would most accurately determine causality
-An experiment in which researchers manipulate the dependent variable
-An experiment where researchers manipulate independent variables
-An experiment in which researchers study the variables in chronological order
An experiment in which researchers produce results that cannot be duplicated

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

The most accurate determination of causality would be an experiment where researchers manipulate independent variables (option b).

In experimental research, the manipulation of independent variables allows researchers to directly control and change the conditions or factors believed to have an effect on the dependent variable. By manipulating the independent variables and observing the resulting changes in the dependent variable, researchers can establish a cause-and-effect relationship between the variables.

While all the options listed have some relevance to research methodology, only the manipulation of independent variables in an experiment provides a strong basis for determining causality. Manipulating the dependent variable (option a) alone does not establish causality, as it does not control for other potential factors that could influence the outcome. Studying variables in chronological order (option c) can provide insights into associations and temporal relationships, but it does not establish causality as it does not control for confounding variables. Producing results that cannot be duplicated (option d) raises concerns about the reliability and validity of the findings, and it is important for scientific research to produce consistent and replicable results to establish causality.

However, it is worth noting that establishing causality is a complex process that often requires multiple studies and different research designs. While manipulating independent variables in experimental research provides a strong basis for determining causality, it is important to consider the cumulative evidence from various sources and study designs to draw more robust conclusions about causality in complex phenomena.

as a medical professional, what barriers would you assume would be in place to encouraging parent participation in the safe to sleep campaign (formally back to sleep campaign)?

Answers

As a medical professional, there are a few potential barriers to encouraging parent participation in the Safe to Sleep campaign (formerly known as the Back to Sleep campaign).

One major barrier is a lack of awareness or understanding of the campaign and its goals. Parents may not be familiar with the recommendation to place infants on their backs to sleep in order to reduce the risk of Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS), or they may have misconceptions or misinformation about the safety of other sleeping positions.

Another potential barrier is cultural or familial traditions that prioritize other sleeping positions or practices, such as placing infants on their stomachs or sides, or bed-sharing with infants. These practices may be deeply ingrained in certain communities or families and can be difficult to change, even in the face of evidence-based recommendations.

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A patient takes a drug that decreases liver production of albumin. Which would you expect?.

Answers

The most frequent cause of decreased albumin is cirrhosis-induced chronic liver failure. In chronic liver disease, the serum albumin content is often normal until cirrhosis and severe liver damage have developed.

What happens to albumin in the liver?The liver is where albumin is synthesized, and it is then discharged into the bloodstream. The circulation, interstitial space, and other fluids all include albumin. Large quantities of the substance in other fluids, including ascites or urine, are frequently a sign of underlying pathology.Plasmatic albumin levels tend to drop in advanced cirrhosis. Patients with cirrhosis have decreased albumin synthesis and poor hepatocellular function, which in advanced cirrhosis can reach a 60–80% drop.The primary plasma protein, albumin, is almost entirely made by the liver. Human plasma is used to make albumin. It is a nearly colorless, clear liquid that is slightly viscous and slightly yellow, amber, or faintly green. Albumin makes up more.

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John has an office visit copay of 25.00 and an urgent care copay of 75.00. He called his
PCP and was advised to go to the urgent care, due to a laceration of his finger, what will
he pay for this visit?

Answers

Answer:

Well, John better hope that laceration wasn't on his wallet because he's going to have to fork over 75.00 for that visit to urgent care. But hey, at least he'll have a cool bandage on his finger to show off to his friends!

Bone cells are called:

Answers

Answer:

Bone is a mineralized connective tissue that exhibits four types of cells: osteoblasts, bone lining cells, osteocytes, and osteoclasts.

How did john watson have different view from sigmund freud ​

Answers

Explanation:

John Watson was fascinated by the discoveries of psychoanalysis, but he rejected Freud's central concept of the unconscious as incompatible with behaviorism.

Freud incorporated the concept of the unconscious to explain transference. Watson understood and was intrigued by Freud's definition of sexual transference, but he was searching for an explanation of transference that did not involve the unconscious (Watson & Morgan, 1917)

Answer:

John Watson was fascinated by the discoveries of psychoanalysis, but he rejected Freud's central concept of the unconscious as incompatible with behaviorism. After failing to explain psychoanalysis in terms of William James's concept of habit, Watson borrowed concepts from classical conditioning to explain Freud's discoveries. Watson's famous experiment with Little Albert is interpreted not only in the context of Pavlovian conditioning but also as a psychoanalytically inspired attempt to capture simplified analogues of adult phobic behavior, including the "transference" of emotion in an infant. Watson used his behavioristic concept of conditioned emotional responses to compete with Freud's concepts of displacement and the unconscious transference of emotion. Behind a mask of anti-Freudian bias, Watson surprisingly emerges as a psychologist who popularized Freud and pioneered the scientific appraisal of his ideas in the laboratory.

Explanation:

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The brain stem is part of the:

Answers

Spinal Cord

(I think...if it not, I'm sorry)

Answer:

THE BRAINSTEM IS LOCATED IN THE INFERIOR PORTION OF THE BRAIN. BETWEEN THE BRAIN AND SPINAL CORD

Explanation:

HINDBRAIN??

sorry for caps i was rushing lol

Scenario 1

A male patient has been treated for tendonitis of the elbow. He calls the office to complain that for the past

two days he has experienced an increase of pain and feels he is worse than when he was first diagnosed. He has been applying heat like he was advised. He wants to know what to do.

Answers

Answer:

Well the male patient should not be putting a heat pad on as this makes it worse, he needs to put an ice pack on, keep it relaxed and take naproxen

Explanation:

major difference between Bobby (type 1 diabetes) and his father (type 2 diabetes) is: A. the potential long-term complications B. how the condition is treated between type 1 and type 2 C. how the condition is diagnosed between type 1 and type 2 D. the overall goal of treatment between type 1 and type 2

Answers

Answer:

B. How the condition is treated between type 1 and type 2

Explanation:

Type 1 and type 2 are the two types of diabetes. Both are chronic and are dangerous for the human body. This diabetes affects the regulation of blood sugar and glucose in the body. Insulin is not produced in the body that suffers from type 1 diabetes. The body does not respond to insulin in type 2 diabetes. More common among the two types of diabetes is type 2 diabetes. The treatment of both diabetes is different. In type 1 diabetes, insulin injections are injected into the body.

the main structure of the brain is divided into which of the following

the main structure of the brain is divided into which of the following

Answers

Answer:

I think it is C but not 100%

Explanation:

The answer is C......

Explain the extracellular matrix, its components, and how it holds some tissues together. Explain the process of regeneration as it relates to tissue repair. Discuss and give examples of the two major types of body membranes.

Answers

Answer:

An essential part of the holding capacity of tissues is the extracellular area. The extracellular region is primarily occupied by a complicated network of macromolecules constituent called as extracellular matrix (ECM). The composition of ECM is varied, depends on the species and also developing or ground molecules Commonly, the ECM is composed of three major classes of biomolecules; there are glycosaminoglycans (GAGs), linked to a protein known as the proteoglycans, and also fibrous proteins, including collagen, elastin, fibronectin, vitronectin, and laminin.

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Animal cells can have the ECM surrounding them as fibrils that touch them on all sides or as a layer termed the basement membrane that the cells "sit on."

What is the extracellular matrix?

Animal cells are also directly connected to one another by cell adhesion molecules (CAMs) on the cell surface.

Collagen, non-collagen, and proteoglycan are the three primary proteins that make up the extracellular matrix. In skeletal muscle, collagen makes up the majority of the ECM protein.

Fibrillar collagen, which makes up the majority of the ECM, has a significant impact on cellular phenotype due to its mechanical and structural characteristics, yet it also makes it possible for the tissue cells to interact with one another.

Therefore, cells are supported structurally and biochemically by the extracellular matrix, which is made up of molecules and fibrillar proteins.

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a resident has just moved to a long-term care facility. during the admission process, a series of laboratory tests was performed. while reviewing the test results, the nurse notes the presence of bacteria in the urine. which of the actions by the nurse should be

Answers

The nurses observes microorganisms in the urine while going over the test findings. The nurse's conduct should be considered UTI.

Providing care for people, families, and communities in order for them to achieve, maintain, or reclaim optimal health and quality of life is the goal of the nursing profession, which is part of the healthcare industry. By way of healthcare philosophy, education, and practice area, nurses can be distinguished from other healthcare professionals. With varying levels of prescription authority, nurses practice in a wide range of specializations. In most healthcare settings, nurses make up the majority of the staff. However, there is evidence of a qualified nurse shortage on a global scale. Numerous nurses deliver care under the direction of doctors, and it is because of this conventional function that the public's perception of nurses as caregivers is created. A graduate degree in advanced practice nursing is required for nurse practitioners. However, the majority of legal systems allow them.

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what are the main factors which cause obesity​

Answers

Living in America and eating the food there


What is the structure that is at the TOP of the LOWER RESPIRATORY
SYSTEM
Diaphragm
Nasal Cavity
Bronchus
Epiglottis
II

Answers

The answer is bronchus
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