which division of the piriform cortex produces representations of the features of odorant molecules?

Answers

Answer 1

The anterior division of the piriform cortex produces representations of the features of odorant molecules.

Piriform cortex is a region of the brain also called as pyriform cortex, situated in the cerebrum region. Its function is to regulate the mechanisms of the olfactory experiences. It is at the junction of the temporal and frontal lobes.

Odorant molecules are the ligands that bind to the odorant receptors present at the neurons of the body involved in the olfactory responses. They are names odorants because they perceive smell. The receptors of the odorant molecules are GPCRs. Odorants are of various types based on the type of functional group they possess.

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Related Questions

lymphocytes recognize and respond to specific portions of antigen molecules called ________.

Answers

Lymphocytes recognize and respond to specific portions of antigen molecules called epitopes, which are responsible for initiating an immune response.

Lymphocytes, a type of white blood cell, play a crucial role in the immune response by recognizing and responding to foreign substances known as antigens. Antigens can be proteins, carbohydrates, or other molecules found on the surface of pathogens, such as bacteria or viruses. However, lymphocytes do not recognize antigens as a whole; instead, they interact with specific portions of antigens called epitopes.

Epitopes are small, accessible regions on the surface of antigens that bind to specific receptors on lymphocytes, known as antigen receptors. These receptors are present on the surface of B cells and T cells, the two major types of lymphocytes involved in adaptive immune responses. Each lymphocyte has a unique antigen receptor that can recognize and bind to a specific epitope.

When a lymphocyte encounters an antigen that matches its antigen receptor, it triggers a cascade of events that lead to the activation and proliferation of the lymphocyte. This, in turn, initiates an immune response, including the production of antibodies by B cells or the activation of T cells to directly destroy infected cells or coordinate immune responses.

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In chemiosmosis, what is the course of energy that is used to convert ADP + Pi to ATP?

Answers

In chemiosmosis, the course of energy that is used to convert ADP + Pi (inorganic phosphate) to ATP is the flow of protons (H+) across a membrane. This process occurs during oxidative phosphorylation in cellular respiration or photophosphorylation in photosynthesis.

During oxidative phosphorylation, electrons derived from the breakdown of glucose or other fuel molecules are transferred through a series of electron carriers in the electron transport chain (ETC) located in the inner mitochondrial membrane (in eukaryotes) or the plasma membrane (in prokaryotes). As electrons move through the ETC, protons are pumped from the matrix (in mitochondria) or the cytoplasm (in prokaryotes) to the intermembrane space or periplasmic space, creating a proton gradient.

The proton gradient created across the membrane represents a potential energy difference. The protons then diffuse back across the membrane through ATP synthase, which is an enzyme complex embedded in the membrane. As protons flow through ATP synthase, their energy is harnessed to convert ADP + Pi into ATP through a process called phosphorylation.

In this process, the energy released from the movement of protons through ATP synthase is used to drive the synthesis of ATP from ADP and Pi. This coupling of the proton gradient and ATP synthesis is known as chemiosmosis and is a vital mechanism for the production of ATP in both cellular respiration and photosynthesis.

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parachute mitral valve associated with reticular chordae tendineae in an adult: case report. journal of cardiothoracic surgery

Answers

Parachute mitral valve is a congenital heart disease that is caused by an abnormality in the development of the mitral valve apparatus. It is a rare condition that affects approximately 1% of the population.

In this condition, all of the chordae tendineae are attached to a single papillary muscle, which is located in the left ventricle of the heart. Reticular chordae tendineae, on the other hand, are small, thread-like structures that connect the chordae tendineae to the leaflets of the mitral valve. These structures are important for the proper functioning of the valve. In an adult, a parachute mitral valve can lead to a number of complications, including mitral stenosis, regurgitation, and heart failure.

Treatment usually involves surgical repair or replacement of the mitral valve. Case report: Journal of Cardiothoracic Surgery is a medical journal that publishes articles on a wide range of topics related to cardiothoracic surgery. It is a peer-reviewed journal that is considered to be one of the most authoritative sources of information on the subject.

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Explain why I needed a bone marrow transplant to treat her leukemia and explain why doctors used cord blood as the source of blood stem cells for her bone marrow transplant

Answers

Answer:

Leukemia occurs in the bone marrow.

Explanation:

A bone marrow transplant is needed to treat her leukemia because leukemia occurs in the bone marrow. Leukemia is a type of blood cancers that usually begin in the bone marrow and result in high numbers of abnormal blood cells which only be treated when the infected bone marrow is replaced with healthy bone marrow. Doctors used cord blood as the source of blood stem cells for bone marrow transplant because cord blood has stem cells which has the ability to treat leukemia.

What is a characteristic that allowed plants to move onto and adapt to dry land"
Select one:
O a. the development of spores
O b. sporophyte dominance
c.
O d. gametophyte dominance
O e. the development of the flower
the development of a protected embryo

Answers

Plants have evolved a variety of adaptations in order to thrive on land, including the ability to retain their embryos, a cuticle, stomata, and vascular tissue.

What is a characteristic that allowed plants to move onto and adapt to dry land?

Embryo retention, a cuticle, stomata, and vascular tissue are only a few of the adaptations that plants have developed to survive on land.

A waxy cuticle that covers the plant's outer surface and prevents evaporation from drying it out is one of the adaptations and traits that ARE found in (almost) all land plants. UV radiation damage is also partially thwarted by the cuticle.

Vascular tissues, roots, leaves, waxy cuticles, and a hard exterior that shields the spores are all adaptations to life on land. The vascular tissues, roots, leaves, cuticle cover, and a hard outer coating that shields the spores all helped plants adapt to arid ground.

Therefore, the correct answer is option e. the development of the flower

the development of a protected embryo.

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Where would a frameshift mutation cause the most damage?
Near the very end of the gene
Near the beginning of the gene
Near the center of the gene
All frameshift mutations are equal

Answers

Answer:

All frameshift mutations are equal

Explanation:

Frameshift mutation is a type of mutation caused by insertion or deletion of nucleotide base(s) in a genetic sequence causing that sequence to be read in a different way from what was originally planned.

The bases in the sequence of a gene is read in three's (codon), however, when one or more bases is added (insertion) or removed (deleted), the reading frame is altered causing the sequence to be read in a completely different order that can result in a protein that is non-functional.

However, FRAMESHIFT MUTATION is so potent that it affects the sequence no matter where it occurs. In other words, the effect of all frameshift mutations are equal.

describe annanimal , a habitat or a natural places that people are
trying to protect. why it should be protected

Answers

An animal habitat is a natural place where animals live, feed and breed. It should be protected since it maintains biodiversity and ecological balance.

An animal habitat is a natural place which can be a forest, a grassland, a mountain range, a river, a lake, an ocean, or even a small area like a pond or a tree hole. These habitats are pivotal for the survival of the species that depend on them. Therefore, protecting animal habitats is vital for maintaining biodiversity and ecological balance.

There are various reasons why animal habitats should be protected:

Biodiversity: Animal habitats are home to numerous species of animals, plants, and microorganisms. These ecosystems support a delicate balance of life, and the loss of even a single species can have far-reaching consequences. Protecting animal habitats aids to preserve biodiversity, which is significant for the well-being of the planet.Climate regulation: Forests and oceans play an essential role in regulating the earth's climate. They absorb carbon dioxide, a greenhouse gas that contributes to global warming, and release oxygen, which is crucial for life on earth. Protecting animal habitats assists in conserving these natural carbon sinks, which are pivotal for mitigating the impacts of climate change.Economic value: Animal habitats furnish numerous economic benefits to human society, such as food, timber, fuel, and medicinal plants. Protecting these habitats can help to ensure the sustainability of these resources and provide economic opportunities for local communities.Aesthetic value: Animal habitats are often beautiful and awe-inspiring places of tourist attraction that provide spiritual and aesthetic benefits to people. Protecting these habitats helps to preserve these natural wonders for future generations to enjoy.

In summary, animal habitats are essential for the survival of numerous species and for maintaining biodiversity, ecological balance, and climate regulation. Protecting these habitats is critical for the well-being of the planet and future generations.

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Is it varration , overpopulation or adaption On average, sea turtles lay about 110 eggs in a clutch. However, only a fraction of the baby turtles make it to the ocean. Then, an even smaller number have offspring of their own.

Answers

Answer: this is adaptation, but not in the way suggested in the question.

Explanation:

The question is suggesting that the 1% or so of turtle hatchlings that make it to maturity are the result of a variation that gives a selective advantage. This is not so. The only thing being selected for is sheer luck. The underlying adaptation is that all eggs hatch within a short period, so that predators are overwhelmed by numbers and some offspring by chance make it to the water, still dangerous, but less so than the sand. After the hatchlings reach the sea chance will still be a factor, but it is at this stage that natural selection may operate on advantageous variations.

There are two reproductive strategies, common to plants as well as animals. Turtles represent one of those strategies, which is to invest resources to produce large numbers of immediately self-sufficient offspring so that at least some will survive. The other strategy is to produce one or few offspring and invest resources in protecting and feeding it or them until self-sufficient and capable of surviving to maturity.

These are adaptations which are selected for because they confer advantage for the species concerned. One or the other may be the better solution depending on the species. Mammals, for example, invest in the latter strategy.

In dim light the iris ___ and the pupil gets bigger in bright light, the iris expands and the pupil gets smaller. ​

Answers

Explanation:

in dim light the iris contract ,the the pupils widens to allow more light to enter the eye,in bright light the iris relaxes and size of pupil becomes smaller to reduce amount of light entering the eye. NOTE: the muscle do not expand they either contract and relaxes

Which of the following was one of alfred adler’s main contributions to personality theory?.

Answers

One of Alfred Adler's main contributions to personality theory was suggesting that our birth order shapes our personality (Option B).

What is Alfred Adler's Birth Order Theory?

Alfred Adler, an Austrian psychiatrist, established the theory of birth order. Adler claimed that the birth order of a person plays a significant role in determining their personality and social relationships throughout their lives.

Adler claimed that an individual's environment and situation during their formative years, which includes their place in the family hierarchy, has a significant impact on their personality. Therefore, Adler's birth order theory refers to a person's order of birth within their family (firstborn, middle child, last-born, etc.) as a crucial factor that affects their behavior and personality.

Adler's theory of birth order has four basic positions:

Oldest childrenMiddle childrenYoungest childrenOnly children

Furthermore, Adler stated that each position has its own set of character traits, which he referred to as "personality prototypes." Thus, Adler's theory of birth order has become well-known for its contribution to personality theory.

Your question is incomplete but most probably your options were

Which of the following was one of Alfred Adler's main contributions to personality theory

A. Advocation for analytical psychology.

B. Suggesting that our birth order shapes our personality.

C. The idea that men have womb envy.

D. The theory that our personality develops in psychosocial stages.

Thus, the correct option is B.

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transported via the blood to the liver, ____________ is converted to calcidiol.

Answers

When vitamin D is transported via the blood to the liver, it is converted to calcidiol.

Vitamin D is also called cholecalciferol,  Cholecalciferol, also known as vitamin D₃ and colecalciferol, is a type of vitamin D that is made by the skin when exposed to sunlight; it is found in some foods and can be taken as a dietary supplement. Cholecalciferol is made in the skin following UVB light exposure.  Cholecalciferol (vitamin D3) is in a class of medications called vitamin D analogs. Cholecalciferol is needed by the body for healthy bones, muscles, nerves, and to support the immune system. It works by helping the body to use more of the calcium found in foods or supplements.

Symptoms of vitamin D deficiency are --- Fatigue, Not sleeping well, Bone pain or achiness., Depression or feelings of sadness, hair loss.

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which characteristics define a chordate? view available hint(s)for part f which characteristics define a chordate? the presence of four specific morphological traits the development of an anus from the blastopore the presence of a well-developed circulatory system the ability to live on land

Answers

The characteristics that define a chordate are the presence of four specific morphological traits. A well-developed circulatory system is a common trait in chordates, but it is not one of the defining characteristics.

The characteristics that define a chordate are:
A notochord - a flexible, rod-like structure that runs along the dorsal (back) side of the body. The notochord provides support and allows for movement in some chordates.
A dorsal hollow nerve cord - a tube-like structure that runs along the dorsal (back) side of the body and develops into the central nervous system, including the brain and spinal cord.
Pharyngeal slits or pouches - paired openings in the pharynx (throat) region that function in filter-feeding, respiration, or other specialized functions depending on the species.
Post-rectal tail - an extension of the body past the orifice that contains muscle tissue and functions in movement and balance.
These four characteristics are present in all chordates at some point in their development.

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The given question is incorrect. The correct question is given as follows:

Which characteristics define a chordate?

a. The presence of a well-developed circulatory system

b. The development of an orifice from the blastopore

c. The ability to live on land

d. The presence of four specific morphological traits

Human beings have diploid cells. What is indicated by this statement?
A. Humans have homologous chromosome pairs.
B. Humans have both sex chromosomes and somatic chromosomes
C. Humans have two stages of cell division
D. Humans have two chromosomes in each cell nucleus.

Answers

Answer: it's B i think i hope it helps

How old was Evelyn when she went to the Royal Academy of Music
​​

Answers

Answer:

she was 17 years old

Explanation:

googled it

Evelyn was seventeen years old when she went to the Royal Academy of Music. Her deafness was first noticed when she was eight years old. But it was confirmed when she was eleven.

If all the pea plants in question 6 reproduce and the next generation is 200 plants, how many of the plants will be homozygous dominant heterozygous homozygous recessive

Answers

The frequency of short plants in the population is 40%, while the frequency of the short gene is 60%. The frequency of the tall gene is 40%. In the next generation of 200 plants, there would be 160 homozygous dominant plants, 80 heterozygous plants, and 40 homozygous recessive plants. If all the homozygous recessive plants die, the new frequency of the allele for tall would be 100% and the allele for short would be 0%. The frequency of the recessive allele (t) will never reach zero as long as there is a presence of the dominant allele (T) in the population.

In the given population, the frequency of short plants can be calculated by dividing the number of short plants (40) by the total number of plants (100) and multiplying by 100%. This results in a frequency of 40% for short plants. Since tall is the dominant trait, the frequency of the short gene can be calculated as 100% minus the frequency of short plants, which is 60%. Therefore, the frequency of the short gene is 60%. Similarly, the frequency of the tall gene can be calculated as the frequency of short plants, which is 40%.

In the next generation of 200 plants, the proportions of different genotypes can be determined using the principles of Mendelian genetics. Homozygous dominant plants (TT) would make up 80% (160 plants), heterozygous plants (Tt) would make up 40% (80 plants), and homozygous recessive plants (tt) would make up 20% (40 plants) of the population.

If all the homozygous recessive plants (short plants) die, the new frequency of the allele for tall would be 100% because there would be no presence of the recessive allele in the population. The allele for short would be 0% since all the short plants, which carry the recessive allele, have been eliminated.

The frequency of the recessive allele (t) will never reach zero as long as there is a presence of the dominant allele (T) in the population. Even if all the short plants continue to die in subsequent generations, there could still be heterozygous (Tt) individuals carrying the recessive allele and passing it on to the next generation. Thus, the recessive allele will persist in the population, although its frequency may decrease over time if selection against the short phenotype continues.

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The complete question is: Tall is dominant over short in pea plants. In a population of pea plants, 60 were tall and 40 were short. What is the frequency (%) of short plants in the population? Using your answer to part a, calculate the frequency of the short gene. What is the frequency of the tall gene? If the all of the pea plants in question 6 reproduce and the next generation is 200 plants, how many of those plants will be: Homozygous dominant = __ Heterozygous = ___ Homozygous recessive = _____ If all of the short (homozygous recessive) plants in question 7 die, what will be the new frequency of: The allele for tall = ________ The allele for short = _________ If the short plants continue to die generation after generation, will the frequency of t (the recessive allele) ever reach zero?

indicate the cranial nerve number for the trigeminal nerve.

Answers

Cranial Nerve V, one of 12 cranial nerves, provides sensation to the face and motor function for chewing muscles. Divided into three branches, it controls ophthalmic, maxillary, and mandibular nerves.

The cranial nerve number for the trigeminal nerve is Cranial Nerve V. The Trigeminal nerve is one of the 12 cranial nerves, and it is the largest of the cranial nerves. It is also known as Cranial Nerve V. The trigeminal nerve provides sensation to the face and the motor function of the muscles used in chewing. It is a mixed cranial nerve that contains both sensory and motor fibers. The trigeminal nerve is responsible for sensation in the face and is also responsible for the motor functions that allow us to chew.

The trigeminal nerve is divided into three branches: the ophthalmic nerve, the maxillary nerve, and the mandibular nerve. Each of these branches provides sensation to different areas of the face. In conclusion, the trigeminal nerve is cranial nerve number V and it provides sensation to the face and the motor function of the muscles used in chewing.

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Review the following characteristics for a population in a country:

Both birth and death rates are at extremely high levels
Population is increasing
Which stage of demographic transition does this describe?

a. Stage 1
b. Stage 2
c. Stage 3
d. Stage 4

Answers

Answer:

A) Stage 1

Explanation:

Demographic transition has to do with the changing pattern of factors that impact population such as birth rates, death rates as the population moves from regime to regime. The transition is in four stages:

Stage 1: which is characterized by high high birth and death rates. also known as pre-transition stage.Stage 2: Characterized by falling death rate but continued high death rate. Also known as early transition stage.Stage 3: characterized by a decline in birth rate and deceleration of population growth. It is also known as late transition period.Stage 4: Characterized by low birth and death rate. Negligible population growth. Also known as post-transitional period.

Stage 1, if you need an explanation tell me

please answer these 2 questions for the first one select all the right answers and define if they’re a autotroph or a heterotroph

please answer these 2 questions for the first one select all the right answers and define if theyre a

Answers

Based on the provided data, we can determine the most likely ecological roles of the organisms regarding their mode of nutrition (autotroph or heterotroph) as follows:

Organism V: Autotroph. It is multicellular, indicating a complex structure that can support photosynthetic processes.

Organism W: Heterotroph. It is multicellular and lacks chloroplasts, suggesting it does not possess the ability to perform photosynthesis.

Organism X: Autotroph. It lacks multicellularity but has chloroplasts, which are responsible for photosynthesis in autotrophs.

Organism Y: Heterotroph. It is multicellular, lacks chloroplasts, and does not possess cilia, suggesting it relies on external food sources.

Organism Z: Heterotroph. It lacks multicellularity, does not have chloroplasts, and has a cell wall. These characteristics indicate a heterotrophic nature.

Model F is the best model for prokaryotic cell

Description of the best model of a prokaryotic cell: Cell Membrane, Cytoplasm, DNA, Nucleoid, Ribosomes, Cell Wall, Flagella, Fimbriae.

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why were many important scientists drawn to universities during the scientific revolutions?

Answers

Answer:

universities allowed scientist to investigate what they thought even if they were contradicted catholic teachings.

The steeper the river is, the slower the water moves.

Answers

Answer:

That Sounds about right...

Explanation:

God said so

Approximately what percent of these products are recycled? aluminum: % steel: % copper: %

Answers

The percentage of these products which are recycled include the following:

50% Aluminum25 % steel60% copper.

What is Recycling?

This is defined as the process in which different types of waste are converted into usable materials through different processes and techniques.

Recycling is important as it helps to reduce incidences of pollution and wastage thereby improving the quality of living for humans and other organisms present on Earth. The percentage of aluminum, steel and copper products being recycled can be seen above.

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In cladistic analyses, the most ______ cladogram is often regarded as the best one because it requires the fewest evolutionary changes needed to explain the data.

Answers

Cladistic gram is often used by scientists in classification. the most Maximum parsimony cladogram requires the fewest evolutionary changes needed to explain the data.

Maximum parsimony is known to be the evolutionary tree that only needs the few or the least evolutionary changes to explain data.

A phylogenetic tree and cladogram are known to be a tree structure that stands for the evolutionary relationships/history within a group of organisms

Scientists do use the following when placing an organism on a cladistic gram. They are:

The place organisms based on common ancestryThe ancestral species and all of its descendants

Maximum parsimony is said to be a point under which the phylogenetic tree that reduces the total number of character-state changes that is needed.

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In cladistic analyses, the most ______ cladogram is often regarded as the best one because it requires

What does the independent
variable do?

Answers

Answer:

There are 3 types of variables you need to know

Independent Variable — what you keep the same (during an experiment)

Dependent Variable — what you measure (during an experiment)

Control Variable — what you change (during an experiment)

Elevation and Red Blood Cell Count
It is hypothesized that runners who live "high" and train "low" have higher EPO and RBC counts. Below is the data to predict the RBC count based on the living elevation of various Olympic athletes.
a = 6.06
b = .00067
Find the following athlete's RBC count (in uL's) based on their housing elevation of 1400 meters
Select one:
a. 6.998 uL's
b. None of the answers provided
c. 8484.067 uL's
d. 6.067 uL's

Answers

To find the athlete's RBC count (in uL's) based on their housing elevation of 1400 meters, we can use the given equation:

RBC count (in uL's) = a + b * elevation

Substituting the values provided:

a = 6.06

b = 0.00067

elevation = 1400

RBC count = 6.06 + 0.00067 * 1400

RBC count = 6.06 + 0.938

RBC count ≈ 6.998 uL's

Therefore, the athlete's RBC count based on their housing elevation of 1400 meters would be approximately 6.998 uL's.

The correct answer is:

a. 6.998 uL's

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Fossil fuels, such as gas, oil, and coal have ____ energy.

Fossil fuels, such as gas, oil, and coal have ____ energy.

Answers

Answer:

A. chemical energy

Explanation:

Batteries, biomass, petroleum, natural gas, and coal are examples of chemical energy.

a cell with 12 pg in the nucleus during prophase 1 of meiosis 1. how many will be present in the nucleus of a haploid gamete?
a) 12 pg
b) 24 pg
c) 6 pg
d) 8 pg

Answers

The nucleus of a haploid gamete will have 6 pg during prophase 1 of meiosis 1. The answer is c.

During prophase 1 of meiosis 1, the cell undergoes DNA replication, resulting in duplicated chromosomes. Each chromosome consists of two sister chromatids, so the total amount of DNA in the nucleus is doubled. In this case, the cell initially had 12 pg of DNA in the nucleus during prophase 1.

In meiosis, there are two rounds of cell division, resulting in the production of haploid gametes. During the first division (meiosis 1), homologous chromosomes separate, reducing the chromosome number by half. However, the DNA content remains the same because the sister chromatids are still attached.

In the second division (meiosis 2), the sister chromatids separate, resulting in four haploid daughter cells. Each daughter cell receives half of the DNA content present in the initial cell. Therefore, in a haploid gamete, the amount of DNA in the nucleus will be half of the initial amount, which is 6 pg in this case. Therefore, the correct answer is C.

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The hereditary material in corn plants can be altered by scientist so the plants produce more corn. which term identifies this process?

Answers

Answer:

Genetic engineering

Explanation:

So there's Environmental degradation ,Ecological succession

Genetic engineering , Selective breeding . and so all the other ones aren't related to the materiel in corn so that makes it Genetic engineering ing

Which statement does not describe radioactive atoms?
A. They are used for absolute dating of samples.
B. They change into atoms of a different element.
O C. They are extremely stable types of atoms.
D. Half of the atoms decay during one half-life.
SUBMIT

Answers

Answer:

B

Explanation:

B is the answer because if you put a different answer it won't make sence

Answer:

Its C on Ap.ex

Explanation:

Which of the following polypeptides is coded for by the mRNA sequences AUGGUUAAACGACAAUCC

Answers

UAC CAA UUU GCU GUU AGG

Answer:the answer is the one that got Val on the second, word on one of the answer choices

Explanation:I know this because I got a 100, you welcome, stay safe

when can the Go phase occur in the cell cycle

Answers

Go phase or also called as resting state or gap phase is the phase in the cell cycle in which the cell is neither dividing nor preparing for division so it's in a resting phase. Many cells consume most of their time in this phase either at rest or performing assigned duties. The cell get in this phase after it is done dividing or duplicating.

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