?which animal has the highest weight-specific total rate of evaporative water loss chicken hummingbird ostrich screech owl

Answers

Answer 1

b) Hummingbirds have the highest weight-specific total rate of evaporative water loss.

In the field of biology, hummingbirds can be described as small birds that have the ability to fly just like the majority of other birds. In order to fly, hummingbirds need to have a weight-specific rate for the loss of water.

This weight-specific loss of water by evaporation is higher in hummingbirds because in order to fly, the weight-to-surface ratio of the hummingbirds needs to be small. Hence, a higher amount of water is lost by evaporation in hummingbirds to maintain the specific weight required for flying.

Other options, like chicken, are not correct as chickens do not need to be weight-specific as they do not fly, and hence much of their water is stored rather than being evaporated.

The question will correctly be written as:

Which animal has the highest weight-specific total rate of evaporative water loss?

a) chicken

b) hummingbird

c) ostrich

d) screech

e) owl

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Related Questions

Why do hurricanes lose strength when they move over land?
A.) There is no longer a source of warm, moist air.
B.) There is not enough energy coming from the Sun.
C.) Evaporation and condensation cannot take place over land.
D.) The winds on the land cancel out the winds of the hurricane

Answers

Answer: c.

Explanation:there is no water the hurric can absorb

molecular biology binghamton how many cycles does it require to obtain the desired pcr product for the first time?

Answers

According to molecular biology the quantity of DNA used as an input and the intended PCR product yield. For a suitable yield, up to 40 cycles may be necessary if the DNA input is less than 10 copies.

The target sequence set by the primers starts to accumulate after three cycles. After 30 cycles, a PCR product single beginning molecule can yield many more as a copies of the desired sequence. The PCR product area in between the two primers has undergone one round of replication, resulting in two copies of the original gene region. The PCR product reaction may be continually cycles performed without the addition of additional enzyme since a heat-resistant polymerase is utilized.

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HURRY ITS DUE IN 10 MINUTES

As a sample's temperature increases, which two factors also increase?

A. Particle size

B. Particle kinetic energy

C. Particle speed

D. Particle boiling point

Answers

Your answer is most likely D

What type of consumer is a badger

Answers

Answer:

When badgers are eating seeds they are primary consumers; when they eat earthworms they are secondary consumers.

Explanation:

What kind of animals are best suited to life in a tundra?

Answers

Answer:

Musk ox, the polar bear, the Arctic fox, the caribou, and the snowy owl, the Arctic hare,

Explanation:

Answer:

Animals found in the tundra include the musk ox, the Arctic hare, the polar bear, the Arctic fox, the caribou, and the snowy owl.

Explanation:

Animals that live on the tundra must be able to adapt to very cold temperatures. They must also be able to raise their young during the very short summer months.

Which phrase describes the most likely way a person could get an infectious
disease?
o
A. Holding the hand of a person with arthritis
B. Inheriting a certain gene
C. Talking on the phone with a person who has the flu
theniu
D. Sharing a cup or glass with a person who has a cold

Answers

Answer:

D. Sharing a cup or glass with a person who has a cold

Explanation:

:)

The British survey went on to discovered the hesitation of the survey participants in viewing gene therapy as a viable alternative to traditional methods of treating disease or inherited disorders. Select ALL that could be of concern.
A. The side effects and/or risks of gene therapy are still relatively unknown.
B. Altering the genetic make-up of an unborn child would be in effect, playing God.
C. Who would regulate the practice; government, doctors, big pharma, religious groups?
D. When alternative treatments are viewed as effective and relatively free of side-effects, should gene therapy be considered?
Responses
A B and CB and C
B All could be possible concerns.All could be possible concerns.
C A and BA and B
D BB

Answers

The British survey revealed that participants were hesitant in considering gene therapy as a viable alternative to traditional methods of treating diseases or inherited disorders. This hesitation could stem from a number of concerns, all of which are valid and important to consider. Hence option A) is correct.

One concern that could be of significant importance is the unknown side effects and risks associated with gene therapy. As it is a relatively new and experimental field, the long-term effects of gene therapy on the human body are not fully understood. Therefore, it is reasonable for people to be cautious and hesitant in considering this as a treatment option.
Another concern that participants may have is the ethical implications of altering the genetic make-up of an unborn child. This could be seen as playing God and raises questions about the potential consequences of such interventions. It is important for medical professionals, lawmakers and religious groups to come together to regulate the practice of gene therapy to ensure that it is used appropriately and ethically.
The issue of regulation is a significant concern as well. There is a need for clear guidelines on who would regulate gene therapy, whether it would be the government, medical professionals or big pharma. Additionally, religious groups could potentially have a say in how gene therapy is used and regulated, making it all the more complex.
Finally, a significant concern could be whether gene therapy should be considered when alternative treatments are viewed as effective and relatively free of side-effects. It is important to evaluate the effectiveness and safety of all treatment options before deciding whether to pursue gene therapy. Therefore option A) is correct.
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What are ethics?

A) Standards that establish right and wrong behavior.

B) Standards that establish only what is right behavior.

C) Standards that establish only what is wrong behavior.

What are ethics?A) Standards that establish right and wrong behavior.B) Standards that establish only

Answers

Answer:

A

Explanation:

because of ethics are the definition of what's right and wrong

A

moral principles that govern a person's behavior or the conducting of an activity

members of this phylum have cells that are a non-walled, multinucleate mass called a plasmodium.

Answers

Myxogastrida is a phylum whose members have cells which are non-walled as well as multinucleate mass that is known as plasmodium.

Myxogastrida is basically a phylum which consists of slime molds. It consists of cells which do not have walls and have a multinucleate mass which is called a plasmodium.

Most of the species pass through several as well as different morphologic phases, like microscopic individual cells which are slimy amorphous organisms that are visible with the bare eyes and have conspicuously shaped fruit bodies.

They are distributed worldwide, but they are more commonly found in the temperate regions where they have a higher biodiversity as compared to the polar regions, the subtropics or the tropics. They are found mainly in the open forests and even in extreme regions like deserts, under snow blankets or even underwater.

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what chemical structures must be present for life to exist?

Answers

Answer:

Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen and Nitrogen.

Explanation:

*REQUIRED
As a genetic counselor, your job is strictly to provide the family with as much information
and facts as you can; however, William and Connie are seeking your advice as to whether or
not you think they should have children. Record your response below using scientific,
financial, social, ethical, etc. considerations to support your answer. (Hint: you may want to
refer back to questions 9-11 where you created a Punnett square for William and Connie)

Answers

As a genetic counselor, it is not my role to tell William and Connie whether they should or should not have children. However, I can provide them with information and considerations that may help them make an informed decision.

From a scientific perspective, the Punnett square analysis indicated that there is a 50% chance that any child they have will inherit the Huntington's disease allele from William. This means that any child they have has a 50% chance of developing the disease in their lifetime.

From a financial and social perspective, caring for someone with Huntington's disease can be a significant financial and emotional burden on families. It may require significant time, energy, and resources to provide the necessary care and support.

From an ethical standpoint, William and Connie have the right to make their own reproductive decisions. It is important to ensure that they fully understand the implications of their decision and have access to support and resources, regardless of their choice.

Ultimately, the decision of whether to have children is a deeply personal one that depends on a wide range of factors. As a genetic counselor, my role is to provide information, support, and resources to help William and Connie make an informed decision that is right for them.

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Cattle egrets forage (feed) in fields among cattle. The egret gets easy access to flying insects stirred up
by the cattle, and the cattle don't care if they are there or not.
A.Mutualism
B.Commensalism
C.Parasitism

Answers

Answer:

B.

Explanation:

8. All seeds hove seed or fruit to protect them as they grow. How do seeds grow? 9. The of a plant begins with a seed. 10. The way plants grow, five, and is called their life cycle. 11. Most seeds need water, food, and a little heat to become new plants. 12. A new plant has the same life cycle as its plant. Critical Thinking 13. How ore new plants that grow from seeds like their parent plonts?

Answers

Seeds grow with the help of various natural resources like water, oxygen, and sunlight, which help them to sprout and grow roots and develop into new plants. Some seeds grow as soon as they land in the ground, while others need a specific time period to grow.

The life of a plant begins with a seed that contains the necessary resources required for the plant's growth, which includes the embryo, endosperm, and protective seed coat.

The process through which plants grow, reproduce, and die is called their life cycle. It includes different stages like germination, growth, flowering, pollination, fertilization, seed production, and dispersal.

Seeds need water, food, and a little heat to grow into new plants. Water helps seeds to soften and expand, and food helps them to provide the necessary nutrients required for growth. The heat helps seeds to break dormancy and activate enzymes that speed up the germination process.

A new plant has the same life cycle as its parent plant. Plants have a unique life cycle, and every stage of the life cycle is essential for their growth and development. New plants inherit their genetic traits from their parent plants, and their life cycle is the same as that of their parent plant.

New plants that grow from seeds inherit their genetic traits from their parent plants and have the same life cycle as their parent plants. The life cycle of a plant includes the stages of germination, growth, flowering, pollination, fertilization, seed production, and dispersal. Thus, new plants that grow from seeds are like their parent plants.

Which of the following make up a nucleotide?
adenine and thymine
sugar and a lipid
phosphate, sugar, and a base
cytosine, guanine, and adenine

Answers

Answer:

adenine, guanine, thymine, or cytosine

Explanation:

Examples of carbohydrates are?

Answers

Answer:

Sugar, starch, and gluclose.

Explanation:

Melanocortin neurons in the arcuate hypothalamus (ARH) signal anabolic/catabolic/muscle/musical tone (choose one).
Agouti-related peptide (AgRP) neurons in the arcuate hypothalamus signal anabolic/catabolic/muscle/musical tone (choose one).

Answers

Melanocortin neurons in the arcuate hypothalamus signal anabolic and catabolic processes. These neurons play a crucial role in regulating energy balance by controlling appetite, metabolism, and body weight.

Anabolic processes refer to the promotion of energy storage and the building of tissues, while catabolic processes involve the breakdown of stored energy and tissues for fuel. Melanocortin neurons in the arcuate hypothalamus release neuropeptides that suppress appetite and increase energy expenditure, thereby promoting catabolism and inhibiting anabolism. This balance helps maintain homeostasis and prevent excessive weight gain or loss.

Agouti-related peptide (AgRP) neurons in the arcuate hypothalamus primarily signal anabolic processes. These neurons are known for their role in stimulating appetite and promoting energy storage. AgRP is a neuropeptide released by these neurons, and it acts to increase food intake and decrease energy expenditure. By signaling anabolic processes, AgRP neurons contribute to weight gain and energy conservation. They are part of a complex neural network involved in regulating feeding behavior and energy balance. Dysfunction of AgRP neurons can lead to disruptions in appetite regulation and metabolic disorders such as obesity.

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Mendel cross-pollinated second-generation purple-flowering hybrids.
What was the result of the second-generation cross, and why was it important?

Answers

Answer:

For the second generation, Mendel cross-pollinated two hybrids that had purple flowers. About 75 percent of the second-generation plants had purple flowers. These plants had at least one dominant factor. Twenty-five percent of the second-generation plants had white flowers.

The results of Mendel's second set of experiments led to his second law. This is the law of independent assortment. It states that factors controlling different characteristics are inherited independently of each other.

19. Use a Punnett Square to simulate a Bb x Bb cross between two flowers.
What is the probability that one of the offspring from that cross will have only the b factor:
a. 50%
b. 75%
c. 100%
d. 25%

Answers

Answer is b hope this helps you

25 % is the probability that one of the offspring from that cross will have only the b factor. So, the correct option is (D).

What is Punnett Square?

A Punnett square is defined as a specialized tool derived from the laws of probability that is used to predict the likely offspring from a cross or mating between two parents.

An example of a Punnett square which is shown in the attached image shows the results of a cross between two purple flowers, each with a dominant factor and a recessive factor.

Only one in four plants or 25% of the plants had white flowers (bb) containing only b while The other 75% have purple flowers (Bb, Bb), because the purple factor (B) is the dominant factor. This shows that purple color is the dominant trait in the plant.

Thus, 25 % is the probability that one of the offspring from that cross will have only the b factor. So, the correct option is (D).

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19. Use a Punnett Square to simulate a Bb x Bb cross between two flowers.What is the probability that

Based on the materials of the course, which of the following statements is true?
Select one:
a. Based on OSHA requirements, it is more likely to make human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) vaccination mandatory for the housekeeping staff.
b. OSHA requires the front desk staff to be vaccinated against human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).
c. OSHA requires all staff in large hotels to be vaccinated against human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).
d. OSHA requires food and beverage department’s staff to be vaccinated against human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)

Answers

Based on the materials of the course, it is more likely to make human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) vaccination mandatory for the housekeeping staff is the correct statement. OSHA stands for Occupational Safety and Health Administration. Option A is correct

OSHA is the United States federal agency that is in charge of enforcing laws that deal with workplace safety, health, and occupational health. OSHA was established in 1971, and its primary mission is to ensure that employers are providing their employees with a safe and healthy working environment. OSHA has a wide range of regulatory powers that are used to ensure that employers are in compliance with the laws and regulations that deal with workplace safety and health.

Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) vaccination is significant as HIV is a virus that damages the immune system, which is responsible for defending the body against illness. Without proper treatment, HIV can develop into acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS).There is currently no cure for HIV, but antiretroviral therapy (ART) is a treatment that can help manage the virus.

Vaccinations for Hepatitis B and HIV are now available to employees who work in settings where they may be exposed to infectious diseases. These vaccines can help reduce the risk of exposure to infectious diseases in the workplace. Therefore, it is more likely to make human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) vaccination mandatory for the housekeeping staff. Option A is correct

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1) What will be the consequences of forgetting to use heat in the Spore Stain?
2) In a clinical setting, what advantages do sporulating bacteria have over non-sporulating bacteria?
3) Why do you suppose most disinfectants require that you leave the surface covered with a disinfectant for a certain amount of time?

Answers

Forgetting to use heat in the Spore Stain can have the following consequences:

Lack of proper staining: Heat is essential in the Spore Stain technique to facilitate the penetration of the primary stain (usually malachite green) into the endospores. Without heat, the primary stain may not effectively penetrate the spores, resulting in poor staining and difficulty in visualizing the spores.

Inaccurate identification: Endospores are highly resistant structures formed by certain bacteria as a survival mechanism. They are characterized by their unique staining properties. If heat is not applied during the staining process, the endospores may not be adequately stained, leading to potential misidentification or failure to detect the presence of endospore-forming bacteria.

In a clinical setting, sporulating bacteria have certain advantages over non-sporulating bacteria:

Survival in adverse conditions: Sporulating bacteria, by forming endospores, can withstand harsh environmental conditions such as extreme temperatures, desiccation, and exposure to chemicals or disinfectants. This allows them to persist and survive in environments where non-sporulating bacteria may not be able to survive.

Persistence in the host or environment: The ability of sporulating bacteria to form endospores allows them to persist in the host or the environment for extended periods. This can contribute to recurrent or chronic infections and the potential for transmission to others.

Increased resistance to disinfection: Endospores have a highly resistant outer layer, known as the spore coat, which provides protection against various disinfectants, heat, and other adverse conditions. This resistance allows sporulating bacteria to survive in hospital environments, on medical devices, and on surfaces despite disinfection protocols.

Most disinfectants require a certain amount of time for surface coverage to ensure effective disinfection due to several reasons:

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Suppose you are on a ship near the equator in the Atlantic ocean you notice that the barometric (air ) pressure is dropping what type of weather might you soon experience

Answers

Answer: You might experience cold/winter weather because

Explanation: Atlantic ocean is pretty cold and as cold air rise up in the air making the atmospher kinda cold even when its near the equator.... because you are on a ship and you will only feel cold weather.

which of the following correctly describe(s) chemoreceptors (both taste receptor cells and olfactory receptor cells) and photoreceptors? a. only respond to specific type of stimulus b. communicate information about the type of stimulus to interneurons in the brain c. detection of a stimulus requires a chemical to bind with a receptor protein in the cell's membrane d. detection of stimulus decreases neurotransmitter release all of the above

Answers

The following correctly describe chemoreceptors (both taste receptor cells and olfactory receptor cells) and photoreceptors e. all of the above

A chemoreceptor is a sensory receptor that receives sensory input from chemical stimuli. It is responsible for detecting the presence of certain chemicals in the environment, such as food molecules or odor molecules. In contrast, photoreceptors are sensory receptors that respond to light stimulus. These are responsible for detecting light and transmitting that information to the brain.

Both chemoreceptors and photoreceptors communicate information about the type of stimulus to interneurons in the brain. Photoreceptors convert light energy into a neural signal that is sent to the brain. Chemoreceptors, on the other hand, convert chemical signals into electrical signals, which are then transmitted to the brain. Therefore, the correct option is: all of the above.

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For each offspring genotype in the Punnett square you just completed, determine the phenotype. In other words, what is the predicted fur color and eye color of the offspring? Using your Punnett square from the last step, fill in the predicted fraction for each phenotype in the data table below.

Black Fur and Black Eyes Black Fur and Red Eyes White Fur and Black Eyes White Fur and Red Eyes
Predicted Fraction
/16
/16
/16
/16

Answers

Assuming diallelic genes, expressing complete dominance and not interacting, the predicted fractions are 4/16 Black Fur, Black Eyes - 4/16 Black Fur, Red Eyes - 4/16 White Fur, Black Eyes - 4/16 White Fur, Red Eyes

Available data:

Two traits are involved in this cross  ⇒  fur color and eye color.

Black fur color is dominant over white fur color

Black eyes is dominant over red eyes

The cross is between a h0m0zyg0us recessive parent with a dihybrid one.

What can we deduct about this information?

Assuming diallelic genes coding for each trait, expressing complete dominance, and no interaction between genes, we can propose the following genotypes and phenotypes.

         Genotype                               Phenotype          

BBEE, BbEE, BBEe, BbEe        Black fur, Black eyes

bbEE, bbEe                              White fur, Black eyes

BBee, Bbee                              Black fur, Red eyes

bbee                                         White fur, Red eyes

How to perform the cross?

Cross: h0m0zyg0us recessive parent with a dihybrid parent

Parental phenotypes)    White fur, Red eyes   x   Black fur, Black eyes

Parentals genotype)    bbee     x     BbEe

Gametes)  be, be, be, be        

                 BE, Be, bE, be

Punnett square)       BE             Be            bE           be

                     be     BbEe        Bbee         bbEe       bbee

                     be     BbEe        Bbee         bbEe       bbee

                     be     BbEe        Bbee         bbEe       bbee

                     be     BbEe        Bbee         bbEe       bbee

F1)

4/16 = 1/4 = 25% of the progeny is expected to be dihybrid, BbEe, expressing black fur and black eyes

4/16 = 1/4 = 25% of the progeny is expected to be heter0zyg0us for fur color and h0m0zyg0us recessive for eye color, expressing black fur and red eyes.

 

4/16 = 1/4 = 25% of the progeny is expected to be heter0zyg0us for eye color and h0m0zyg0us recessive for fur color, expressing white fur and black eyes.

4/16 = 1/4 = 25% of the progeny is expected to be h0m0zyg0us recessive, bbee, expressing white fur and red eyes.

Predicted fraction per phenotype

Black Fur and Black Eyes  ⇒  4/16 BbEeBlack Fur and Red Eyes  ⇒  4/16 BbeeWhite Fur and Black Eyes  ⇒  4/16 bbEeWhite Fur and Red Eyes  ⇒  4/16 bbee

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Answer: look at the picture

Explanation:

For each offspring genotype in the Punnett square you just completed, determine the phenotype. In other

PLEASE HELP
Which of the following is true about foreign and domestic affairs?
1. They are completely separate types of policy issues that do not affect one another. 2.Leaders must consider how one type of policy may affect the other since they relate.
3.The president and Senate are the only groups making decisions on these policy issues.
4. Officials are separated by which type of policy they work on and ignore the other type.

Answers

The correct answer is: Leaders must consider how one type of policy may affect the other since they relate.

Foreign and domestic affairs are two interconnected types of policy issues that often affect one another. Leaders must consider the potential impact of their decisions in one area on the other area, as the two areas are interdependent. For example, decisions about trade policy or immigration can have significant impacts on the economy, jobs, and social issues domestically. Similarly, foreign policy decisions such as military interventions or diplomatic relations can impact global economic or security issues that affect the domestic situation.

Therefore, it is essential for policymakers to take a comprehensive approach that recognizes the interconnectedness of these issues and considers their impacts on both domestic and foreign affairs.

Answer:

Option 2 is true: Leaders must consider how one type of policy may affect the other since they relate. Foreign and domestic affairs are interconnected and often impact one another. Decisions made in one area can have significant consequences for the other, and leaders must consider the implications of policies in both areas when making decisions.

Option 1 is false because, as mentioned above, foreign and domestic affairs are interconnected, and decisions made in one area can impact the other.

Option 3 is also false. While the president and Senate play important roles in foreign and domestic affairs, they are not the only groups making decisions on these policy issues. Other government officials, including Congress, the judiciary, and various agencies, also play significant roles.

Option 4 is false because officials in government often need to work on both foreign and domestic affairs and cannot ignore one type of policy over the other.

What does it mean to be an educated consumer?

Answers

Answer:

An educated consumer is a buyer who takes time to learn before buying.

Explanation:

It is all about doing your research to ensure that the product you are buying is  worth the price and more.

Based on the DNA sequence below, which of the species is most closely related to the unknown species?  Species 1: GTT/CCA/GAA/AAT/CCT Unknown: AAT/CCT/GAA/AAT/CCA. Species 2: ATA/CCT/GTT/AAT/GGA. O Species 1. O Species 2

Answers

Based on the DNA sequence, the species that is most closely related to the unknown species is species 1, as it has more homologies than species 2. A bigger distance can be traduced in a higher number of mutations or modifications in the DNA sequence.

The correct answer is: Species 1.

Part 2
1. Go to Phet Reversible Reactions Simulation (click here).
2. Add in 5 of each A and B molecules
3. After observing for 10 seconds, what is happeningto both the A and B molecules? Other
observations?

Answers

It is observed that after adding 5 each to molecules A and B; of Phet Reversible Reactions that the equilibrium goes right, away from the reactant

However, on the other side, If we add product, equilibrium goes left, away from the product

This is because in reversible reactions, both forward and backward or reverse directions of the reaction usually occur at the same time.

What are reversible reactions?

Reversible reactions can be defined as a type of chemical reaction in which the reactants form the products that; and in turn, react together to give the reactants back.

Generally, reversible reactions usually will reach an equilibrium point where the concentrations of the reactants and products will no longer change.

Please note that the " Phet " mentioned above means Physics Education Technology. It is a research based simulations for tutoring science subjects

So therefore, it is observed that after adding 5 each to molecules A and B; of Phet Reversible Reactions that the equilibrium goes right, away from the reactant

Complete question:

What happens when you add 5 each to molecules A and B in a reversible reaction?

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During which phase of meiosis are the chromatids first separated from each other?.

Answers

Answer:

In the anaphase II

Answer:

During which phase of meiosis are the chromatids first separated from each other? Anaphase

Explanation:

The chromosomes move away from one another to opposing poles of the spindle during meiotic or mitotic cell division.

which of these animals did NOT benefit from the reintroduction of wolves into Yellowstone?
a. rabbits
2. bears
3. elk
4. beavers

Answers

The answer is the elk

fingerprint patterns that form complete circles are known as:
A. whorls
B. irregulars
C. arches
D. tented arches

Answers

Answer:

whorls

Explanation:

Whorls. Whorls represent 34 percent of all fingerprint patterns. At least one ridge in a plain whorl pattern makes a complete circuit in the form of a circle, oval or spiral, and there must be at least two triangular shapes called deltas. ... Central pocket loop whorls make a complete circle inside the two deltas.

Other Questions
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