Looking for ways to improve would be a reflective learning activity.
What does it mean to learn reflectively?
Reflective learning often entails reviewing something from the past, such as an idea or experience, and critically analyzing it. Reflection will assist students in learning from their past experiences and transforming surface learning into deep learning by examining both good and failed aspects of an experience.
What are the benefits of reflective learning?
By analyzing what they have learnt and how far they have come, reflective learning enables students to stand back from their educational experience, fostering the growth of their critical thinking abilities and helping them to do better in the future.
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a rice cooker was sold for $60 after a discount of 60% waht was the usual price of the rice cooker
2.
Ben visits his doctor because his wife notices that sometimes at night he stops breathing. It only lasts a
few seconds and then he seems to startle himself back into breathing again What medical terms would
you use to describe what Ben is experiencing? Break down the meaning of the terms. Then explain what is
happening in Ben's body to produce these symptoms.
In this case Ben is suffering from sleep Apnea and the symptoms are snoring loudly and feeling tired. These are the symptoms of sleep apnea.
What is sleep apnea?
Sleep apnea has a serious health issue and in that case potential serious disorder of sleep has been breathing repeatedly that stops and starts at time. There are several risk factors that include the age as well as obesity and it has been the most common in the men.
The main problem of parents are that they are comparing their child with other children living nearby them but they have to understand that every child is unique and every child is special. God has given different talent as well as different personality to every child and comparing them with others is not at all a good symbol for their bright future.
Try to teach the children about their good and bright future, try to make them learn about living a good and valuable life. Teach them to learn not to memorize the things only given in books and give them some practical knowledge.
Therefore, In this case Ben is suffering from sleep Apnea and the symptoms are snoring loudly and feeling tired. These are the symptoms of sleep apnea.
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EHR systems are becoming extremely popular due to their benefits and advantages. These advantages include better quality of care, more accurate patient info, interoperability, increased efficiency, increased revenue, scalability, accessibility, customization, security, and support.
Based on the above advantages I noted; can you elaborate on one and why you think it is a good advantage for patient care?
EHR systems' accessibility to precise patient data significantly improves patient treatment. It improves decision making for healthcare professionals, lowers medical errors, and facilitates fast and effective therapeutic actions.
Advantages of EHR systems to patientsThe accessibility of more precise patient data is one benefit of electronic health record (EHR) systems that considerably enhances patient care.
All patient data is kept in one place and made available to authorized healthcare practitioners using EHR systems. This implies that when making treatment decisions for a patient, doctors, nurses, and experts involved in their care can quickly and simply obtain the most current and comprehensive information. They have real time access to test findings, imaging reports, prescription histories, and other important information.
EHR systems frequently come with clinical reminders and decision support tools that can assist healthcare professionals in adhering to evidence-based recommendations and best practices.
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a 28-year-old male is admitted to the burn unit 2 hours after receiving partial thickness and full thickness burns over 50% of his body surface in an industrial explosion. abnormal vital signs include low blood pressure and tachycardia. lab results show a high hematocrit due to:
According to test results, fluid flow out of the vascular region is what causes the elevated hematocrit.
What do doctors do for tachycardia?A heartbeat that is more over 100 beats a minute at rest is referred to as tachycardia. It can begin in either the lower or upper chambers of the heart and can be anything from minor to fatal. Medicines, an ablation operation, and the installation of an implanted cardioverter defibrillator (ICD) are all forms of treatment.
What causes tachycardia most frequently?Tachycardia can be brought on by a number of illnesses that affect the heart, such as high blood pressure (hypertension), coronary artery diseases (atherosclerosis), heart valve illness, heart failure, cardiac muscle illness (cardiomyopathy), tumors, or infections.
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ESCOJA LA SECUENCIA CORRECTA DE VERDADERO (V) Y FALSO (F) EN LAS SIGUIENTES PREMISASLas bacterias se dividen por mitosisTodas las células cumplen las funciones vitales: nutrición, relación y reproducciónLa división celular es el proceso de reproducción de las célulasEn Anafase: Se separan las cromátidas hermanas por el acortamiento del huso mitótico
Answer:
Las bacterias se dividen por mitosis. FALSE
Todas las células cumplen las funciones vitales: nutrición, relación y reproducción. TRUE
La división celular es el proceso de reproducción de las células. TRUE
En Anafase: Se separan las cromátidas hermanas por el acortamiento del huso mitótico. TRUE
Explanation:
Bacteria do not reproduce through mitosis. They do binary fission, which is a process where the bacteria replicates its DNA, and then it undergoes cytokinesis, which is the division of the bacteria that gives two new ones.
The cell is the smallest unit of life, so as any living organism, it performs the three vital functions: nourish, interaction, and reproduction.
Cell division is the process in which a cell gives two cells. In other words, it is how cells reproduce themselves.
Anaphase is one of the mitosis phases. During this one, the chromatids split, and they move to opposite poles of the cell.
A client has suffered chest injuries following a automobile accident. The chest injury has resulted in an increase in intrathoracic pressure. There can be a transient shift from the pulmonary to the systemic circulation of how much blood
When a client experiences chest injuries, intrathoracic pressure can increase. A transient shift from the pulmonary to the systemic circulation can result. This shift can lead to an increase in blood of 400 to 800 milliliters.
There are several reasons why this shift occurs. First, when the intrathoracic pressure rises, it compresses the pulmonary vessels and can cause a reduction in blood flow. As a result, blood is forced into systemic vessels, leading to an increase in systemic circulation. Second, the pressure in the left atrium is elevated, which can increase the pressure gradient across the atrial septum.
This gradient causes a shunt of blood from the right to the left atrium. Third, when there is a decrease in venous return to the right heart, it can result in a decrease in stroke volume and cardiac output. To maintain cardiac output, the left ventricle increases the systemic vascular resistance by vasoconstricting. As a result, there is a shift of blood from the pulmonary to the systemic circulation.
Finally, the decrease in intrathoracic pressure results in a decrease in venous resistance. This reduction causes blood to move into the thoracic veins.
In conclusion, a chest injury can lead to an increase in intrathoracic pressure, which can result in a transient shift from the pulmonary to the systemic circulation of blood. This shift can lead to an increase in systemic circulation of 400 to 800 milliliters.
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What factors help a medical professional decide whether a patient needs remote or in-person care?
Answer:
well first and foremost their health if you can physically hear or see that a patient isn't doing do i would advise in person but if the patient isn't worried or any immediate family isn't either then remote is the best option. Another factor that plays a role is the physical environment
Explanation:
The factors that help a medical professional decide whether a patient needs remote or face-to-face care is whether patients who do not necessarily need physical examinations, as well as patients who have already received care, can be followed remotely, leaving the face-to-face consultation for specific occasions.
TelemedicineTelemedicine uses information and communication technologies to enable
CareEducation and Health research remotely.One of the main advantages of these services lies in breaking down geographical barriers, resulting in increased access to health care.
With telemedicine, inhabitants of small towns or places far from large urban centers do not need to travel long distances to be treated by specialists. Patients with physical disabilities or reduced mobility have their daily lives facilitated, as they do not need to travel to an office or clinic, as they can receive care in the comfort of their homes.
Another advantage regarding consultations affects people with mental disorders, who can be observed by psychologists and psychiatrists in an environment in which they feel safe.
With this information, we can conclude that telemedicine is a good alternative, as it has several advantages, but when face-to-face care is needed, it should be requested.
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Which disease is a neoplastic disorder that affects rats?
18. The prefix that means "change or after" is:
Answer:
I think it is the prefix "meta"
Explanation:
mention the effect of parathyroid hormone on peripheral tissues?
The effects of parathyroid hormone on bone, kidney, and gut influence serum calcium: PTH facilitates the release of calcium from the substantial store held inside bones.
What results do parathyroid hormones produce?The thyroid glands create the parathyroid hormone, which aids in preserving the proper level of calcium in the blood and in tissues that require calcium for proper function.
What impact does parathyroid hormone have on bones?Depending on the method of delivery, parathyroid hormone stimulates bone production and resorption and can either enhance or reduce bone mass. Daily subcutaneous injections of parathyroid hormone have different effects on bone resorption and bone mass than continuous infusions of the hormone do.
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A group of nurses are reviewing several client's medical history. Which of the following clients may develop extrapyramidal symptoms from medication therapy?
A.A client in the third trimester of pregnancy taking iron
B.An elderly client who has pancreatitis and taking enzymes
C.A client who has schizophrenia and is taking antipsychotic medications
D.An adult client who has type 2 dm and is taking insulin
The client who has schizophrenia and is taking antipsychotic medications may develop extrapyramidal symptoms from medication therapy.
What are Extrapyramidal Symptoms?
Extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) are a group of side effects that occur when taking specific types of medications.
These symptoms include tremors, rigid muscles, slurred speech, shuffling walk, and other involuntary movements.
EPS are more commonly associated with the use of antipsychotic medications that are used to treat schizophrenia and other psychiatric disorders.
Explanation:
The correct option is C.
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The Denver II Developmental Screening Test (DDST) should be administered when? What four areas does the DDST focus on? Give two (2) examples of each.
The Denver II Developmental Screening Test (DDST) is an instrument for the early identification of children at risk for developmental delays. It should be administered at least once between the ages of 1 and 3 years to identify children who may require intervention. The test focuses on four areas, including personal-social, fine motor-adaptive, language, and gross motor development.
The personal-social domain involves social behavior and interactive play. Here are two examples of personal-social domain items: follows a moving object with their eyes and offers a toy to an adult to be shared.The fine motor-adaptive domain focuses on a child's eye-hand coordination, small muscle development, and precision. Here are two examples of fine motor-adaptive domain items: imitates vertical strokes with a pencil or crayon and stacks blocks or rings.
The language domain covers the development of vocabulary, syntax, and grammar. Here are two examples of language domain items: points to named body parts and says two words besides "mama" and "dada."The gross motor domain covers the development of posture and movement. Here are two examples of gross motor domain items: walks on their tiptoes and walks up steps with assistance.
The Denver II Developmental Screening Test (DDST) is a developmental instrument used for early identification of children at risk for developmental delays. It should be administered at least once between the ages of 1 and 3 years. The test focuses on four areas, including personal-social, fine motor-adaptive, language, and gross motor development.
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Almost all professions and organizations have standards of behavior for their employees called...
a.Medical Ethics
b.applied ethics
c. code of ethics
d.bioethics
You are manning a telephone hotline in a city experiencing an outbreak of pandemic flu. You have been given a set of questions to ask callers (for example, do you have a fever?) and information to provide depending on the expressed concerns of callers.
Answer:
what is the question that is being asked here?
Explanation:
a client hospitalized with a deep vein thrombosis (dvt) is on a heparin infusion. the client asks the nurse why it is necessary to have blood drawn every six hours. what is the best explanation for the nurse to provide to the client?
"The medicine might make your blood much too thin."
What is Deep vein thrombosis (dvt)?
Anything that prevents blood from flowing or clotting properly can cause blood clots.The main causes of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) are damage to the veins from surgery and inflammation, as well as infection and trauma.
Duplex ultrasound is an imaging test that uses sound waves to check blood flow in veins. It can detect deep vein occlusions and blood clots. It is the standard imaging test for diagnosing DVT. The nurse explained the purpose of frequent venipunctures in a simple and non-technical manner and answered the client's questions.
Therefore, the best explanation the nurse can provide is: The medicine might make your blood much too thin.
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An elderly patient expressed concern over the confidentiality and security of his health record. He does not want his information
"floating around on the internet" for anyone to see. What can you say to him to alleviate his fears? (consider file security, information privacy, etc.)
Explanation:
You can tell the elderly patient that things are secure and that his information isn´t floating around the only person that sees it is the nurse and doctor and they have to keep everything confidential because of HIPAA.
Ethics and mental health are the topics of the week. So let's discuss the ethics of mental health. Some of the issues you might experience are data privacy, interpersonal boundaries, boundaries of professional competency, and personal problems and conflicts. Which of these issues do you consider to be the most serious and may happen most often? Why do you think this ethical breach occurs often? How can these issues be prevented in human service agencies?
Answer:
Psychiatric research has several important ethical issues which are different from other medical disciplines. These issues are related to informed consent, confidentiality, conflict of interest, therapeutic misconception, placebo related, vulnerability, exploitation, operational challenges, among others.
FILL IN THE BLANK. in 1993, Purdue Pharmaceuticals of Stamford, Conn. applied for the first in a series of patents on Oxycontin, a painkiller. The U.S. Patent and Trademark Office (PTO) granted those patents based on the manufacturer's contention that the drug contained a novel innovation: It had been engineered so that only a very small dose was required for the drug to be effective for 90 percent of patients. Seven years later, a generic drug maker, Endo Pharmaceuticals, applied to the FDA for permission to sell its own, lower-priced version of Oxycontin. Purdue's patents acted as a(n) ____________________ and prevented Endo from entering the market.
Seven years later, a generic drug maker, Endo Pharmaceuticals, applied to the FDA for permission to sell its own, lower-priced version of Oxycontin, Purdue's patents acted as a barrier to entry and prevented Endo from entering the market as presented in Option A.
What are patents?Patents can be a type of barrier to entry because they provide a legal monopoly to the patent holder, and in the case of Purdue Pharmaceuticals' Oxycontin, the company had obtained a series of patents for the drug, and the patents acted as a barrier to entry for other firms, such as Endo Pharmaceuticals.
Hence, Purdue's patents acted as a barrier to entry and prevented Endo from entering the market, as presented in Option A.
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The question is incomplete, complete question is below
FILL IN THE BLANK. in 1993, Purdue Pharmaceuticals of Stamford, Conn. applied for the first in a series of patents on Oxycontin, a painkiller. The U.S. Patent and Trademark Office (PTO) granted those patents based on the manufacturer's contention that the drug contained a novel innovation: It had been engineered so that only a very small dose was required for the drug to be effective for 90 percent of patients. Seven years later, a generic drug maker, Endo Pharmaceuticals, applied to the FDA for permission to sell its own, lower-priced version of Oxycontin. Purdue's patents acted as a(n) ____________________ and prevented Endo from entering the
A) barrier to entry
B)facilitates entry
C)help the entry
Which of these best describes the purpose for “hands-only” CPR?
Hands-only CPR is better and more effective than full CPR and is now the best way to provide CPR for any patient by any responder
Hands-only CPR reduces risk of liability and increases oxygenation better than CPR with mouth-to-mouth resuscitation
Hands-only CPR is now the only method for providing CPR regardless your level of education and expertise
Hands-only CPR was designed for those who are not trained or feel uncomfortable delivering mouth-to-mouth breaths. It doesn't replace traditional CPR
Answer:
D
Explanation:
The point of hands only CPR is to make it easier on those with a lack of training a give them a way to give care to someone who needs it even if they do not know how to, the point is that if you are not in sports med or EMT training then you will at least be able to help if no one else is around, otherwise use an AED
pour 73ml of water followed by 25ml of juice A into a 100ml graduated cylinder what's the final volume in percent strength?
a nurse is facing a malpractice suit after an incident where a client received the wrong dose of medication. which elements must be present to prove malpractice? select all that apply.
To prove malpractice, the following elements must be present
:A duty of care was owed to the patient: The nurse should have a responsibility for providing care to the patient in this scenario. A breach of the duty owed to the patient: The nurse did not follow the standard of care required, resulting in the patient receiving the wrong dose of medication.
Causation: The injury caused was the direct result of the breach of duty.
Damages: The patient sustained injuries or damages as a result of the breach of duty. A nurse is facing a malpractice suit after an incident where a client received the wrong dose of medication. To prove malpractice, the duty of care was owed to the patient, the breach of duty owed to the patient, causation, and damages must be present.
The duty of care refers to the responsibility that the nurse has to provide care to the patient. The nurse must follow the standard of care required to ensure that the patient receives the correct medication.
The breach of the duty refers to the failure to follow the standard of care required, resulting in the patient receiving the wrong dose of medication.
Causation refers to the injury caused as a direct result of the breach of duty. Finally, the patient sustained injuries or damages as a result of the breach of duty.
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the center of control for heart rate blood pressure and respiratory rate is
Answer:
192
Explanation:
What part of your body takes in dissolved food?
40 POINTS!
Answer:
Small intestineExplanation:
The small intestine absorbs the most digested food molecules , as well as water and minerals , and passes them on to other parts of the body for storage or further chemical change.Which age group discussed in Chapter 5 have you communicated with the most?
Describe two communication techniques in Chapter 5 you can apply when communicating with this age group.
Explain the therapeutic responses the medical professionals used in the case study from the textbook about the age group you chose.
The communication techniques that are important when communicating with adults include seeking clarifications and listening.
What is communication?It should be noted that communication simply means the exchange of information from a sender to a receiver through a medium.
The communication techniques that can be used to communicate with the age group include giving recognition, listening, seeking clarifications, etc.
Therapeutic responses are described as to the actions and interventions undertaken by medical professionals in order to promote healing, alleviate symptoms, and improve the overall well-being of their patients and includes:
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The table shows the height of water in a pool as it is
being filled
Height of Water in a Pool
Time
(min)
2
4
6
8
10
Height
(in.)
8
12
16
20
24
The slope of the line through the points is 2. Which
statement describes how the slope relates to the
height of the water in the pool?
The height of the water increases 2 inches per
minute.
The height of the water decreases 2 inches per
minute.
The height of the water was 2 inches before any
water was added
The height of the water will be 2 inches when the
pool is filled
if your appendix bursts it may lead to a life threatening condition called
why shouldn't you use an AED on someone having a heart attack
Answer:
Remember, a heart attack can turn into cardiac arrest if the heart becomes damaged. If the person is not responsive when you yell at him, assume it is CARDIAC ARREST and start CPR.
Explanation:
The AED
could change the heartbeat pattern
the nurse is assessing the cerebrospinal fluid (csf) analysis for a child. which laboratory finding helps the nurse to distinguish bacterial meningitis from viral meningitis?
One laboratory finding that helps the nurse to distinguish bacterial meningitis from viral meningitis is the presence of polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMNs) in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).
In bacterial meningitis, there is usually a high number of PMNs, while in viral meningitis, there are fewer PMNs and more lymphocytes. Another laboratory finding that may help to differentiate between the two is the glucose level in the CSF. In bacterial meningitis, the glucose level is often low, while in viral meningitis, it is usually normal. Additionally, the protein level in the CSF may also be elevated in both bacterial and viral meningitis. It is important for the nurse to be aware of these findings to ensure proper treatment and management for the child.
The key laboratory finding that helps a nurse distinguish bacterial meningitis from viral meningitis in a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis is the white blood cell (WBC) count and differential. In bacterial meningitis, the WBC count is typically significantly elevated with a predominance of neutrophils. In contrast, viral meningitis often presents with a moderately elevated WBC count, but with a majority of lymphocytes. Additionally, bacterial meningitis usually has a higher protein concentration and lower glucose levels in the CSF compared to viral meningitis. Analyzing these factors can aid in determining the type of meningitis present in a child.
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Mazia has mixed feelings about her job. she enjoys spending time with her coo workers but does not like the pressure her boss puts her under . her attitude to her job is best characterized as a. positive b. negative c. undefined d. ambivalent
Answer:
her attitude about her job is ambivalent.
Explanation:
Ambivalent means mixed feelings.
How do doctors find the fractures in a bone ?
Answer:
X-rays: This tool produces a two-dimensional picture of the break.
Bone scan: Healthcare providers use a bone scan to find fractures that don’t show up on an X-ray.
CT scan: A CT scan uses computers and X-rays to create detailed slices or cross-sections of the bone.
MRI: A MRI creates very detailed images using strong magnetic fields.