When performing an airborne VOR (VHF Omnidirectional Range) check, the maximum allowable tolerance between the two indicators of a dual VOR system is typically defined by aviation regulations and guidelines.
Specifically, in the United States, the Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) provides guidance on VOR equipment tolerances and requirements.
According to FAA regulations, the maximum allowable tolerance for a dual VOR system is ±4° or ±6°, depending on the specific situation.
For enroute and terminal operations, the maximum allowable tolerance is ±4°.
This means that the indications on the two VOR indicators can differ by up to 4° without being considered a significant deviation.
For non-precision approaches, such as VOR approaches, the maximum allowable tolerance is ±6°.
This provides a slightly wider tolerance to account for the increased precision required during approach procedures.
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A specimen made from a brittle material with a cross-section area of 0.004 m2 was gradually loaded in tension until it yielded at a load of 380 kN and fractured slightly after the yield point. If the specimen’s material observed elastic deformation until fracture, determine the material’s toughness in terms of the energy absorbed, in kJ. Take E = 200
Note that the toughness of the material is 0.0226 kJ.
How is this so?
Toughness = (Area of triangle * Cross-sectional area) / 1,000
= (0.5 * 380 kN * 200 GPa * 0.004 m2) / 1,000
= 0.0226 kJ
Toughness is important in physics as it measures a material's ability to absorb energy and withstand deformation or fracture.
It helps determine the material's resistance to cracking and breaking under stress, making it crucial in applications where durability and reliability are required.
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Nate needs to replace the cable to his lamp. He is stripping it to connect it to the termils. What should he remember to do with the knife
Answer: i got you its d
Explanation:had the smae question as you
A silicon diode has a saturation current of 6 nA at 25 degrees Celcius. What is the saturation current at 100 degrees Celsius?
Answer:
0.0659 A
Explanation:
Given that :
\(I_{0} = 6nA\) ( saturation current )
at 25°c = 300 k ( room temperature )
n = 2 for silicon diode
Determine the saturation current at 100 degrees = 373 k
Diode equation at room temperature = I = Io \(\frac{V}{e^{0.025*n} }\)
next we have to determine the value of V at 373 k
q / kT = (1.6 * 10^-19) / (1.38 * 10^-23 * 373) = 31.08 V^-1
Given that I is constant
Io = \(\frac{e^{0.025*2} }{31.08}\) = 0.0659 A
The saturation current at 100 degrees Celsius will be "0.0659 A".
Temperature and CurrentAccording to the question,
Saturation current, \(I_0\) = 6nA
At 25°C,
Room temperature = 300 k
Silicon diode, n = 2
The value of V will be:
= \(\frac{q}{kT}\)
By substituting the values,
= \(\frac{1.6\times 10^{-19}}{1.38\times 10^{-23}\times 373}\)
= 31.08 V⁻¹
hence,
By using Diode equation,
→ I = I₀ \(\frac{V}{e^{0.025\times n}}\)
or,
The current will be:
I₀ = \(\frac{V}{e^{0.025\times n}}\)
= \(\frac{e^{0.025\times 2}}{31.08}\)
= 0.0659 A
Thus the answer above is right.
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if a firearm has been fired more than 3 feet from a tar- get, usually no residue is deposited but a dark ring,
T/F
False. If a firearm has been fired more than 3 feet from a target, it is not accurate to state that usually no residue is deposited but a dark ring.
When a firearm is discharged, it produces various types of residues that can be deposited on nearby surfaces, including the target.
The residues generated from a fired firearm can include particles of unburned or partially burned gunpowder, as well as other by-products of the combustion process. These residues can travel a considerable distance depending on factors such as the type of firearm, ammunition used, environmental conditions, and the presence of obstacles.
While it is true that the concentration and distribution of residue may vary with distance, it is incorrect to claim that no residue is deposited beyond 3 feet. In fact, gunshot residue (GSR) particles can potentially travel several yards or more from the firearm's muzzle.
The presence of a dark ring around the bullet hole on a target can be influenced by various factors, such as the type of ammunition, target material, angle of impact, and distance. However, it is not accurate to suggest that no residue is typically deposited beyond 3 feet.
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How the atmosphere will react when there is vertical (upward) motion of air
Vertical motion of air causes changes in atmospheric conditions. As air rises, it cools, and as it falls, it warms.
What happens to the atmosphere when air moves upward?As air rises, it experiences a decrease in pressure, which causes it to expand and cool. This cooling can lead to the formation of clouds and precipitation, as the moisture in the air condenses.
As the air continues to rise, it eventually reaches a point where the temperature and pressure are too low for it to continue rising, and it begins to sink back towards the ground. This sinking air can cause warming and drying of the atmosphere, which can lead to clear skies and dry conditions.
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A gas cylinder is connected to a manometer that contains water. The other end of the manometer is open to the atmosphere, which in Flagstaff is 79 kPa absolute. Draw a sketch of the problem and determine the absolute static pressure in the gas cylinder if the manometer is reading 13 in H2O. Assume the water in the manometer is at 20 °C
Answer: the absolute static pressure in the gas cylinder is 82.23596 kPa
Explanation:
Given that;
patm = 79 kPa, h = 13 in of H₂O,
A sketch of the problem is uploaded along this answer.
Now
pA = patm + 13 in of H₂O ( h × density × g )
pA= 79 + (13 × 0.0254 × 9.8 × 1000/1000)
pA = 82.23596 kPa
the absolute static pressure in the gas cylinder is 82.23596 kPa
Why are most products the result of an innovation instead of an invention?
Answer:
they were updated rather than being created
Answer:
Invention is about creating something new, while innovation introduces the concept of “use” of an idea or method.
rank the following gases in order of decreasing rate of effusion. rank from the highest to lowest effusion rate. to rank items as equivalent, overlap them.
It means that the gas with the lowest molecular weight will have the highest effusion rate.
What has the highest rate of effusion?The given gases' effusion rates are listed in order from highest to lowest. The effusion rate of a hydrogen molecule is the highest, whereas that of a hydrocarbon is the lowest.
A gas will effuse faster when it is lighter and more slowly when it is heavier. Helium (He) will have the highest rate of effusion since it has the lowest molecular weight (atomic weight, in this example).
The following equation can be used to compare the rate of effusion for two gases: The effusion rates in this case are inversely related to the square root of the gas molecules' masses. A container contains an amalgam of neon and argon gas.
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A hydrogenation catalyst is prepared by soaking alumina particles (100-150 mesh size) in aqueous NiNO3 solution. After drying and reduction, the particles contain about 7 wt% NiO. This catalyst is then made into large cylindrical pellets for rate studies. The gross measurements for one pellet are: Mass, g 3.15 Diameter, mm 25 Thickness, mm 6 Volume, cm3 3.22 The alumina particles contain micropores, and the pelleting process introduces macropores surrounding the particles. If the macropore volume of the pellet is 0.645 cm3 and the micropore volume is 0.40 cm3 /g of particles, determine: i] The density of the pellet ii] The macropore volume in cm3 /g iii] The macropore void fraction in the pellet iv] The micropore void fraction in the pellet v] The solid fraction vi] The density of the particles
i] The density of the pellet is 0.977 g/cm^{3}. ii] The macropore volume in cm^{3}/g is 0.205 cm^{3}/g. iii] The macropore void fraction in the pellet is 25.1%.iv] The micropore void fraction in the pellet is 49.0%. v] The solid fraction of the pellet is 25.9%. vi] The density of the particles is 1.222 g/cm^{3}.
i] To determine the density of the pellet, we can use the formula:
Density = Mass / Volume
Given that the mass of the pellet is 3.15 g and the volume is 3.22cm^{3}, we can calculate the density as follows:
Density = 3.15 g / 3.22 cm^{3}≈ 0.977 \(g/cm^{3\)
ii] The macropore volume in cm3/g can be calculated by dividing the macropore volume of the pellet (0.645 cm3) by the mass of the pellet (3.15 g):
Macropore volume = 0.645 cm^{3} / 3.15 g ≈ 0.205 \(cm^{3} /g\)
iii] The macropore void fraction in the pellet can be calculated using the formula:
Macropore void fraction = Macropore volume / Total volume of the pellet
Total volume of the pellet = Volume - Macropore volume = 3.22 cm^{3}- 0.645 cm^{3} = 2.575 cm^{3}
Macropore void fraction = 0.645 cm^{3} / 2.575 \(cm^{3}\)≈ 0.251 or 25.1%
iv] The micropore void fraction in the pellet can be calculated using the given micropore volume of the particles (0.40 cm^{3} /g) and the mass of the pellet (3.15 g):
Micropore volume in the pellet = Micropore volume/g x Mass
Micropore volume in the pellet = 0.40 \(cm^{3} /g\) x 3.15 g = 1.26 cm3
Micropore void fraction = Micropore volume in the pellet / Total volume of the pellet
Micropore void fraction = 1.26 \(cm^{3}\) / 2.575 \(cm^{3}\) ≈ 0.490 or 49.0%
v] The solid fraction of the pellet can be calculated by subtracting the sum of macropore and micropore void fractions from 1:
Solid fraction = 1 - (Macropore void fraction + Micropore void fraction)
Solid fraction = 1 - (0.251 + 0.490) ≈ 0.259 or 25.9%
vi] The density of the particles can be determined using the mass of the pellet (3.15 g) and the total volume of the particles:
Total volume of the particles = Volume - Macropore volume = 3.22 \(cm^{3}\)- 0.645 \(cm^{3}\) = 2.575\(cm^{3}\)
Density of the particles = Mass / Total volume of the particles
Density of the particles = 3.15 g / 2.575\(cm^{3}\) ≈ 1.222 \(g/cm^{3}\)
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Flip-flops are normally used for all of the following applications, except ________. logic gates data storage frequency division counting
Flip-flops are normally used for all of the following applications, except logic gates.
What are Flip flops?Flip flops are known to be tools that are used for counting. They come in different ranges.
Note that Flip flops are one that can be seen on counters, storage registers, and others and as such, Flip-flops are normally used for all of the following applications, except logic gates.
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Give a brief explanation of the difference between a NAAQS
exceedance and a NAAQS violation.
A NAAQS exceedance refers to temporary levels exceeding the established standard, while a NAAQS violation indicates a persistent or recurring non-compliance with the standard.
NAAQS (National Ambient Air Quality Standard), set by regulatory agencies to protect public health and the environment, establish maximum allowable levels for pollutants in the ambient air. The terms "exceedance" and "violation" are used to describe different scenarios of non-compliance:
1. NAAQS Exceedance: A NAAQS exceedance refers to a temporary event where pollutant concentrations surpass the standard. It may occur due to short-term spikes in pollution levels caused by localized sources, unusual weather conditions, or specific events. Exceedances are typically evaluated and addressed on a case-by-case basis and may not immediately trigger regulatory actions.
2. NAAQS Violation: A NAAQS violation signifies a sustained or recurring non-compliance with the established standard. It occurs when pollutant levels consistently exceed the NAAQS over a specified timeframe, such as an averaging period (e.g., 24 hours or annual). Violations trigger regulatory consequences and the implementation of corrective measures, such as emission controls, enforcement actions, or mandated pollution reduction plans.
Differentiating between exceedances and violations is crucial in regulatory decision-making and prioritizing resources for air quality management. While exceedances may warrant investigation and localized actions, violations indicate the need for more significant and sustained efforts to achieve and maintain compliance with the NAAQS.
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) A regenerative vapor power cycle has three turbine stages with steam entering the first stage at 2500 lbf/in2 , 1100 o F. The cycle has two feedwater heaters, a closed feedwater heater using extracted steam at 500 lbf/in2 and an open feedwater heater operating at 50 lbf/in2 . Saturated liquid condensate drains from the closed feedwater heater at 500 lbf/in2 and passes through a trap into the open heater. The feedwater leaves the closed heater at 2500 lbf/in2, 478 o F. Saturated liquid leaves the open heater at 50 lbf/in2 and the condenser pressure is 1 lbf/in2 . For isentropic operation of the turbines and pumps, determine the efficiency of this cycle.
Answer:
do the wam wam
Explanation:
Acme Logistics provides "Less than truck load" (LTL) services throughout the U.S. They have several hubs where they use cross-docking to move goods from one trailer to another. Acme built its last hub 10 years ago, and it had 36 dock doors. The cost index at that time was 140, and the total cost was $6 million. Acme plans a new hub that will have 48 dock doors. The cost index now is 195, and Acme will use a capacity factor of 0.82. What is the estimated cost of the new hub?
Answer:
The answer is "$10.12 million"
Explanation:
To find the price of the 36 dock doors only at the current rate, just use the cost index.
\(C_n=C_k \times (\frac{I_n}{I_k})\\\\\)
\(= 6 \times \frac{195}{140} \\\\= \$ \ 8 \ million\)
Its current cost of 36 dock doors is, thus,\(\$ \ 8 \ million\). To calculate the price for 48 dock doors, just use the second formula now:
\(\to (\frac{C_A}{C_B})=(\frac{S_A}{S_B})^{X}\\\\\to C_A=C_B \times (\frac{S_A}{S_B})^{X}\\\\\)
\(=8 \times (\frac{48}{36})^{0.82}\\\\= \$ 10.12 \ million\)
A river has an average rate of water flow of 59.6 M3/s. This river has three tributaries, tributary A, B and C, which account for 36%, 47% and 17% of water flow respectively. How much water is discharged in 30 minutes from tributary B?
Answer:
50421.6 m³
Explanation:
The river has an average rate of water flow of 59.6 m³/s.
Tributary B accounts for 47% of the rate of water flow. Therefore the rate of water flow through tributary B is:
Flow rate of water through tributary B = 47% of 59.6 m³/s = 0.47 * 59.6 m³/s = 28.012 m³/s
The volume of water that has been discharged through tributary B = Flow rate of water through tributary B * time taken
time = 30 minutes = 30 minutes * 60 seconds / minute = 1800 seconds
The volume of water that has been discharged through tributary B in 30 seconds = 28.012 m³/s * 1800 seconds = 50421.6 m³
estimate the theoretical fracture strength of a brittle material if it is known that fracture occurs by the propagation of an elliptically shaped surface crack of length 0.29 mm and that has a tip radius of curvature of 0.004 mm when a stress of 1300 mpa is applied.
The theoretical fracture strength of the brittle material is estimated to be approximately 165.6 MPa when a stress of 1300 MPa is applied and fracture occurs by the propagation of an elliptically shaped surface crack of length 0.29 mm and tip radius of curvature of 0.004 mm.
To estimate the theoretical fracture strength of a brittle material given the information provided, we can use Griffith's theory of brittle fracture. According to this theory, the fracture strength of a brittle material can be expressed as:
σ_f = (2Eγπa)^0.5
where σ_f is the fracture strength, E is the elastic modulus, γ is the surface energy per unit area, and a is the length of the elliptically shaped surface crack.
To calculate the fracture strength, we need to first determine the surface energy per unit area of the material. For glass, a typical value of surface energy is around 1 J/m^2.
Given the length of the elliptically shaped surface crack (a) is 0.29 mm, and the tip radius of curvature is 0.004 mm, we can calculate the crack area (A) as follows:
A = πab = π(0.29/2)(0.004)
A ≈ 5.67 x 10^-7 m^2
Next, we can calculate the elastic modulus (E) of the material. For glass, the elastic modulus is typically around 70 GPa.
Substituting these values into the equation for fracture strength, we get:
σ_f = (2Eγπa)^0.5 = [2(70 x 10^9)(1)(π)(0.29 x 10^-3)]^0.5
σ_f ≈ 165.6 MPa
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write $\frac 15 \left(\frac 15\right)^2 \left(\frac 15\right)^3 \left(\frac 15\right)^4$ as a decimal.
In order to write the given expression as a decimal, we can simplify the expression and then evaluate it.
The given expression can be simplified as follows:$$
\begin{aligned}
\(\frac 15 \left(\frac 15\right)^2 \left(\frac 15\right)^3 \left(\frac 15\right)^4 &= \frac{1}{5^1} \cdot \frac{1}{5^2} \cdot \frac{1}{5^3} \cdot \frac{1}{5^4}\\\)
\(&= \frac{1}{5^{1+2+3+4}}\\\)
\(&= \frac{1}{5^{1+2+3+4}}\\\)
\(&= \frac{1}{9,765,625}\)
\end{aligned}
$$Now, we can evaluate the given expression by dividing 1 by 9,765,625 as follows:$$
\begin{aligned}
\(\frac{1}{9,765,625} &= \frac{1}{10,000,000 - 234,375}\\\)
\(&= 0.\overline{000}1\\&= 1 \cdot 10^{-7}\)
\(\end{aligned}$$Therefore, $\frac 15 \left(\frac 15\right)^2 \left(\frac 15\right)^3 \left(\frac 15\right)^4$ as a decimal is $1 \cdot 10^{-7}$\), which means that the decimal is a very small number.
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A circuit has two resistors in parallel, each resistor is 6 ohms. This circuit is connected to a single resistor of 6 ohms, to form a series-parallel circuit. What is the total resistance of the circuit?
The tatal resistance of the series-parallel circuit with two resistor connected in parallel which combination is connected in series to a single resistor is 9 ohms.
What is a resistance?
This can be defined as the opposition to current flow in a circuit.
To calculate the total resistance, first we need to find the total resistance of the parallel resistor.
For parallel,
R' = (R₁R₂)/(R₁+R₂)............Equation 1Where:
R' = Total resistance of the parallel resistor.
From the question,
Given:
R₁ = 6 ohmsR₂ = 6 ohmsSubstitute these values into equation 1
R' = (6×6)(6+6)R' = 3 ohms.Finally, we combine the effective parallel resistance in series to the single resistance to the the total resistance of the circuit.
Rt = R'+R₃.................. Equation 2Where:
Rt = Total resistance of the circuit.From the question,
R' = 3 ohmsR₃ = 6 ohmsSubstitute these values into equation 2
Rt = 3+6Rt = 9 ohms.Hence, the total resistance of the circuit is 9 ohms.
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A 5-m-long, 4-m-high tank contains 2.5-m-deep water when not in motion and is open to the atmosphere through a vent in the middle. The tank is now accelerated to the right on a level surface at 2 m/s2. Determine the maximum gage pressure in the tank. Mark that point at the interior bottom of the tank. Draw the free surface at this acceleration.
Answer: hello your question lacks the required diagram attached below is the diagram
answer : 29528.1 N/m^2
Explanation:
Given data :
dimensions of tank :
Length = 5-m
Width = 4-m
Depth = 2.5-m
acceleration of tank = 2m/s^2
Determine the maximum gage pressure in the tank
Pa ( pressure at point A ) = s*g*h1
= 10^3 * 9.81 * 3.01
= 29528.1 N/m^2
attached below is the remaining part of the solution
How do i untange my headphone cords? If you give me a good answer i will mark u brainliest
Answer:
scissors best way 100%
Explanation:
A 150-lbm astronaut took his bathroom scale (a
spring scale) and a beam scale (compares masses) to the
moon where the local gravity is g ! 5.48 ft/s2
. Determine
how much he will weigh (a) on the spring scale and (b) on
the beam scale.
Given the following data:
Mass of astronaut = 150-lbm.
Acceleration due to gravity on Moon = 5.48 ft/s².
What is weight?Weight can be defined as the force acting on an object or a physical body due to the effect of gravity. Also, the weight of a physical object (body) is typically measured in Newton or ounces.
How to calculate the weight of this astronaut?Mathematically, the weight force on a physical body can be calculated by using this formula:
W = mg
Where:
W represents the weight.m represents the mass.g represents the acceleration due to gravity.Substituting the given parameters into the formula, we have;
Weight = 150 × 1/32.2 × 5.48
Weight = 25.5 lbf.
For the weight on beam scale.A beam scale is a measuring instrument that is designed and developed to compare the masses of a physical body and as such, it's not affected by the variations in acceleration due to gravity. Therefore, the beam scale would read 150-lbf as it read on earth.
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A branch circuit is supplying a single hermetic refrigerant motor-compressor for an air conditioning unit. The hermetic refrigerant motor-compressor rated-load current is 18 amperes. If a 30-ampere fuse will not start the motor-compressor, the maximum rating of the branch-circuit short-circuit and ground-fault protective device may be increased to ___.
The maximum rating of the branch-circuit short-circuit and ground-fault protective device for the hermetic refrigerant motor-compressor can be increased to 45 amperes to ensure it can handle the motor's inrush current during startup without tripping.
When determining the maximum rating of the branch-circuit short-circuit and ground-fault protective device for a hermetic refrigerant motor-compressor, it is essential to consider both the rated-load current and the starting current of the motor-compressor.
In this case, the hermetic refrigerant motor-compressor has a rated-load current of 18 amperes.
However, it is mentioned that a 30-ampere fuse will not start the motor-compressor.
This indicates that the motor-compressor has a higher starting current than its rated-load current.
Motor-compressors often experience inrush current during startup due to the high torque required to overcome the initial resistance and inertia.
This starting current is typically higher than the rated-load current and decreases once the motor-compressor reaches its operating speed.
To accommodate the starting current and ensure proper operation, it is common to use a protective device with a rating higher than the motor-compressor's rated-load current.
The National Electrical Code (NEC) provides guidelines for sizing protective devices based on the motor's starting characteristics.
According to NEC Table 430.52, the multiplier for determining the maximum rating of the protective device for a motor with a high inrush current is 250% of the motor's full-load current.
Applying this multiplier to the rated-load current of 18 amperes:
Maximum rating = 18 A * 250% = 45 A
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After a strong storm, a worker does not realize that a power transmission line has fallen on his car and is electrocuted while opening the car door. What is this an example of?.
Answer:
This is an example of the conduction of electricity through metal. Free moving electrons on the car will conduct a electric field when a voltage is applied to the car; in this case the transmission line, and would flow through the metal to the door handle causing electrocution.
The difference between Assumptions and Risks is negligible, and therefore we use the terms interchangeably.
True
False
False. Assumptions and risks are different concepts and cannot be used interchangeably. In project management, assumptions and risks play a crucial role in project planning and execution.
Assumptions are hypothetical statements that project managers use to develop a project plan. They are not based on any evidence and lack sufficient information, data, or facts. Assumptions are the foundation on which project managers build their plans, but they can also lead to potential risks if they are incorrect. Project managers rely on assumptions to initiate a project and plan it accordingly. An example of an assumption is that the project team will have access to the required resources throughout the project.What are Risks?Risks, on the other hand, are events or situations that can affect the project outcome negatively. Risks have a probability of occurring and can cause damage to the project. Project managers conduct risk assessments to identify potential risks and develop contingency plans to mitigate them. Risks can occur due to several reasons, including budget constraints, resource unavailability, technology changes, and many more. Project managers should identify, analyze, evaluate, and prioritize risks to develop an appropriate response plan.In conclusion, assumptions and risks are two different concepts and cannot be used interchangeably. Project managers use assumptions to develop project plans and risks to identify potential events that could negatively affect the project outcome.
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(a) What is the distinction between hypoeutectoid and hypereutectoid steels? (b) In a hypoeutectoid steel, both eutectoid and proeutectoid ferrite exist. Explain the difference between them. What will be the carbon concentration in each? (c) In bullet format compare and contrast the expected mechanical behavior of hypoeutectoid and hypereutectoid steels in terms of: (i) Yield strength (ii) Ductility (iii) Hardness (iv) Tensile strength (d) If you want to choose an alloy to make a knife or ax blade would you recommend a hypoeutectoid steel alloy or a hypereutectoid steel alloy? Explain your recommendation in 1-3 bullet points. (e) If you wanted a steel that was easy to machine to make a die to press powders or stamp a softer metal, would you choose a hypoeutectoid steel alloy or a hypereutectoid steel alloy? Explain your choice in 1-3 bullets.
Answer:
See explanation below
Explanation:
Hypo-eutectoid steel has less than 0,8% of C in its composition.
It is composed by pearlite and α-ferrite, whereas Hyper-eutectoid steel has between 0.8% and 2% of C, composed by pearlite and cementite.
Ferrite has a higher tensile strength than cementite but cementite is harder.
Considering that hypoeutectoid steel contains ferrite at grain boundaries and pearlite inside grains whereas hypereutectoid steel contains a higher amount of cementite, the following properties are obtainable:
Hypo-eutectoid steel has higher yield strength than Hyper-eutectoid steel
Hypo-eutectoid steel is more ductile than Hyper-eutectoid steel
Hyper-eutectoid steel is harder than Hyper-eutectoid steel
Hypo-eutectoid steel has more tensile strength than Hyper-eutectoid steel.
When making a knife or axe blade, I would choose Hyper-eutectoid steel alloy because
1. It is harder
2. It has low cost
3. It is lighter
When making a die to press powders or stamp a softer metals, I will choose hypo-eutectoid steel alloy because
1. It is ductile
2. It has high tensile strength
3. It is durable
Answer:
(a)
Steels having carbon within 0.02% – 0.8% which consist of ferrite and pearlite are known as hypoeutectoid steel.
Steels having greater than 0.8% carbon but less than 2.0% are known as hypereutectoid steel.
(b)
The proeutectoid ferrite formed at a range of temperatures from austenite in the austenite+ferrite region above 726°C. The eutectoid ferrite formed during the eutectoid transformation as it cools below 726°C. It is a part of the pearlite microconstiutents . Note that both hypereutectoid and hypoeutectoid steels have proeutectoid phases, while in eutectoid steel, no proeutectoid phase is present.
Proeutectoid signifies is a phase that forms (on cooling) before the eutectoid austenite decomposes. It has a parallel with primary solids in that it is the first phase to crystallize out of the austenite phase. If the steel is hypoeutectoid it will produce proeutectoid ferrite and if it is hypereutectoid it will produce proeutectoid cementite. The carbon concentration for both ferrites is 0.022 wt% C.
(c)
(i) Yield strength: The hypoeutectoid steel have good yield strength and hypereutectoid steels have little higher yield strengh.
(ii) Ductility: The hypoeutectoid steel is more ductile and the ductility has decreased by a factor of three for the eutectoid alloy. In hypereutectoid alloys the additional, brittle cementite on the pearlite grain boundaries further decreases the ductility of the alloy. The proeutectoid cementite restricts plastic deformation to the ferrite lamellae in the pearlite.
(iii) Hardness: hypoeutectoid steels are softer and hypereutectoid steel contains low strength cementite at grain boundary region which makes it harder than hypoeutectoids.
(iv) Tensile strength: Grain boundary regions of hypereutectoid steel are high energy regions prone to cracking because of cementite in the grain boundaries, its tensile strength decreases drastically even though pearlite is present. Hypoeutectoid steel contains ferrite at grain boundaries and pearlite inside grains, so grain boundaries being the high energy state region, it has a higher tensile strength.
(d)
I would recommend hypereutectoid steel alloy to make a knife or ax blade
1- Hardness is required at the surface of the blades.
2- Ductility is not needed for such application.
3- Due to constant impact, the material will not easily yield to stress.
(e)
I would choose a hypoeutectoid steel alloy to make a steel that was easy to machine.
1- hypoeutectoid steel alloys have high machinability, hence better productivity
2- It will be used on softer metals, hence its fitness for the application
3- Certain amount of ductility is required which hypoeutectoid steel alloys possess.
Explanation:
See all together above
Q. How absurd is the idea that we should design products at 100%
performance and only at 10% of costs? Is this possible? Have
companies been able to deliver/achieve this goal?
Case Study: ENGINEERING
Answer:
Explanation:
The idea of designing products with 100% performance while keeping the costs at only 10% is absurd and unrealistic.
Designing high-performance products requires investments in quality materials, advanced technologies, research and development, and skilled engineering expertise. These factors contribute to higher costs. Achieving such a drastic difference between performance and cost is not practically feasible.
Companies strive to find a balance between performance and cost by employing cost optimization strategies, value engineering, and efficiency improvements. They aim to maximize the performance-to-cost ratio but understand the inherent trade-offs involved.
While companies continuously work towards improving performance and reducing costs, it is crucial to have realistic expectations and understand the practical limitations of product design.
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The purpose of the international residential code is to
Answer:
The International Building Code (IBC) is a model code that provides minimum requirements to safeguard the public health, safety and general welfare of the occupants of new and existing buildings and structures.
Explanation:
Q-) please give me a reference about Tack coat? Pleae i need it please??!!
Answer:
Tack coat is a sprayed application of an asphalt binder upon an existing asphalt or Portland cement concrete pavement prior to an overlay, or between layers of new asphalt concrete.
Explanation:
write the mips instructions for the code given below. the values of u,v,x and y need to be in r5, r6, r7 and r8 registers respectively at the end of the code.( note: consider r0 as the zero register)(4 points).
To generate the MIPS commands for this code, it is necessary to initialize the variables u, v, x, and y in registers r5, r6, r7, and r8 respectively, and confirm that these values are saved in the registers upon conclusion of the code.
What us the mips instruction?Based on the MIPS assembly code given, the move commands are implemented to transfer the data stored in the provisional register $t0 into the intended registers r5, r6, r7, and r8 in a sequential manner.
Note that in the MIPS code, it is presumed that the labeled addresses u, v, x, and y contain the values of u, v, x, and y stored in memory, accordingly.
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Select two things that environmental engineers concentrate on during green projects.
water
o animals
o fossil fuels
o traditions
o natural resources
Two things that environmental engineers concentrate on during green projects are fossil fuels and natural resources.
What does environmental engineer do?Environmental engineers are responsible for ensuring that there is little or no effect on the environment as a result of human activities.
Hence, two things that environmental engineers concentrate on during green projects are fossil fuels and natural resources.
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What signal propagation phenomena causes the diffusion, or the reflection in multiple different directions, of a signal?
In the radio communication system, multipath is the propagation phenomenon that causes diffusion or reflection in multiple different directions of a signal.
Multipath is a propagation mechanism that impacts the propagation of signals in radio communication. Multipath results in the transmission of data to the receiving antenna by two or more paths. Diffusion and reflection are the causes that create multiple paths for the signal to be delivered.
Diffraction occurs when a signal bends around sharp corners; while reflection occurs when a signal impinges on a smooth object. When a signal is received through more than one path because of the diffraction or reflection, it creates phase shifting and interference of the signal.
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