The missing part of the question is: On Susan's third day at work, a man comes into the office and demands to see his mother's health record. Susan accesses the record and sees that the mother has not granted permission for information to be given to her son.
Susan should tell the man that he can't see his mother's health record.
Health records keep track of the health history of a patient. Only physicians aiding the patient can see it and add information to it; also, the patient has the right to see it.
The son can not see his mother's health record since it is confidential information that can only be seen by
doctorsmedical personnelthe patientIn other words, as it is confidential information, Susan can see it because she is medical personnel. However, she can not divulge any information or give the medical history to the patient's son or any other person.
The only viable reason for the son to have access to his mother's medical information is if the medical personnel is legally bound to do it. Otherwise, Susan should not divulge any information, even to the patient's son.
In conclusion, Susan can not allow the patient's son access to his medical information unless she is legally bound to do so.
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acsm's nutrition for exercise science - module 1 nutrition principles, dietary supplements and nutritional issues related to athlete health, disease and injury answers
This module provides a comprehensive understanding of nutrition principles in exercise science, the use of dietary supplements, and the nutritional considerations specific to athlete health, disease, and injury. It equips students with the knowledge and skills to optimize nutrition for athletic performance and overall well-being.
The ACSM's Nutrition for Exercise Science module 1 covers nutrition principles, dietary supplements, and nutritional issues related to athlete health, disease, and injury. Here are some key points:
1. Nutrition principles: This section focuses on the fundamental principles of nutrition that are relevant to exercise science. It covers topics such as macronutrients (carbohydrates, proteins, and fats), micronutrients (vitamins and minerals), hydration, energy balance, and nutrient timing.
2. Dietary supplements: This part explores the use of dietary supplements in sports nutrition. It discusses the types of supplements commonly used by athletes, such as protein powders, creatine, and caffeine. It also highlights the importance of caution when considering supplements, as they are not regulated by the FDA and may carry potential risks.
3. Nutritional issues related to athlete health, disease, and injury: This section addresses the unique nutritional needs and challenges faced by athletes. It covers topics such as weight management, sports-specific nutrient requirements, dietary strategies to support training and recovery, and the role of nutrition in preventing and managing injuries and illnesses.
Overall, this module provides a comprehensive understanding of nutrition principles in exercise science, the use of dietary supplements, and the nutritional considerations specific to athlete health, disease, and injury. It equips students with the knowledge and skills to optimize nutrition for athletic performance and overall well-being.
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Describe compliance with public health statutes: a.) communicable diseases b.) abuse, neglect, and exploitation c.) wounds of violence *
Answer:
The Answer is A. Communicable disease.
Explanation:
The activity of public health which is known to be the core or major function is minimizing or stopping the spread or transmission of communicable or infectious diseases.
A communicable or infectious disease is a disease that can be transmitted from an infected person to other people that not infected. This usually occurs through body contacts, unprotected sexual intercourse, unscreened blood transfusion, sharing of unsterilized sharp objects among others.
When passing a med you should scan the barcode:
O Every time
Only for controlled meds
When you have time
O Only when directed to do so
which of the following best describes ISMP
Answer:
ISMP defines high-alert medications as those bearing a height- ened risk of causing significant patient harm when used in error.
Explanation:
What is ISMP?
The Institute for Safe Medication Practices (ISMP) is the only 501c (3) nonprofit organization devoted entirely to preventing medication errors. During its more than 25- year history, ISMP has helped make a difference in the lives of millions of patients and the healthcare professionals who care for them.
Choose the answer.
Which resource can be used to help spell, pronounce, and define medical terms?
Hippocratic dictionary
Hippocratic thesaurus
medical dictionary
medical thesaurus
Answer:
medical dictionary
Explanation:
The resource that can be used to help spell, pronounce, and define medical terms is the medical dictionary.
The medical dictionary contains the lexicon of words that medical practitioners or students use. When there's a medical terms that a person doesn't understand, the medical dictionary can help the student as it gives the meaning of the term.In conclusion, the best option is C.
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3 ways that managed care insurance affect a physician's office
Managed care insurance affects a physician's office primarily through financial implications, administrative burdens, and impact on the quality of care. These can respectively be seen in negotiated rates, requirements for claims management, and emphasis on preventive and chronic condition care.
Explanation:Managed care insurance impacts physician's offices in several ways, including financial implications, administrative burden, and the quality of care provided to patients.
First, managed care companies negotiate contract rates with healthcare providers, which can limit the financial remuneration for services rendered by the physician's office. This could potentially impact the office's profits.
Second, the administrative burden related to managing care insurance is high. Physician's offices must handle pre-approvals, claims submissions, and follow-ups - tasks that require staff time and resources.
Lastly, managed care emphasizes preventive care and management of chronic conditions, which can affect the type of treatments a physician may suggest to their patients. While this might improve the quality of care, it could also lead to restrictions on certain procedures or medications, potentially limiting the doctor's recommended treatment options.
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Nombre de la secreción respiratoria
While functioning at a large-scale terrorist incident, it is important for the emt to?
When functioning at a large-scale terrorist incident, it is important for the EMT to do the following:
Firstly, the EMT should wear appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE) and a visible identification badge that allows easy identification to law enforcement and other responders.
Secondly, the EMT should establish a triage zone that is separate from the cold, warm, and hot zones. The cold zone should serve as the area where EMS and non-essential responders can perform non-patient care tasks and wait for further instructions
Thirdly, the EMT should have a coordinated and efficient communication system with other responders, such as law enforcement and the incident commander.
Fourthly, the EMT should establish a transportation system that incorporates local hospitals and alternate care facilities.
Finally, the EMT should have a proper disaster response plan in place and establish a command post where planning, logistics, and the overall management of the incident can occur. These measures are essential in ensuring the safety of both the EMTs and patients.
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VO2max is:
Question 5 options:
An indicator of cardiovascular endurance
The maximum amount of oxygen uptake by the body
Influenced by arteriovenous oxygen difference and cardiac output
All of the above
VO2max implies all the given statement " All of the above statements are true."
What is VO2max?VO2max refers to the maximum amount of oxygen that a person can consume and utilize during exercise. It is considered to be one of the best indicators of cardiovascular endurance and aerobic fitness.
The amount of oxygen that a person can consume and utilize is influenced by both arteriovenous oxygen difference (the difference in oxygen concentration between the arterial blood and the venous blood) and cardiac output (the amount of blood pumped by the heart per minute).
Therefore, these factors also play a role in determining VO2max.
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3. Which abbreviation stands for a type of blood collection vacuum tube?
The abbreviation EDTA stands for a type of blood collection vacuum tube.
What is EDTA?EDTA is a chelating agent that binds to calcium ions, which prevents the blood from clotting. This allows the blood to be collected and transported without clotting, which is important for many laboratory tests.
EDTA is the most common type of blood collection tube used in clinical laboratories. It is used to collect blood for a variety of tests, including complete blood counts, chemistry tests, and blood cultures.
EDTA blood collection tubes are typically lavender in color. They are labeled with the abbreviation "EDTA" and the volume of blood that is required for the test.
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Case Study 3 – Consent
A 14-year-old youth suffering depression does not want to discuss his problems with his parents. He seeks help from a community health centre. On his first visit he is provided with counselling and asked to return for a second visit where the possibility of medication will be discussed. He is reassured that his parents do not have to be involved if he does not want them to be. Researchers from the centre are looking for people to take part in a study that will find out if a new investigational drug can help in the treatment of depression. They invite the fourteen-year-old to participate in the randomised controlled trial. The researchers say that parental consent is not needed for the 14-year-old to access treatment so they do not need to obtain parental consent for him to participate in the research.
Questions
Is the researcher’s view correct?
Does it depend on the nature of the reasarch?
Healthcare positions require training. Identify the correct definition of certification. grants an individual permission to engage in an occupation recognizes volunteer work is a public assessment that standards for work have been achieved acknowledges overtime worked
A assessment that standards for work have been achieved. This means that the individual has met the necessary requirements and qualifications to engage in a specific healthcare occupation.
Certification in the context of healthcare positions refers to a process by which an individual is recognized as having met certain predetermined standards of knowledge, skill, and competence in a particular area of practice. It is a long answer that involves an evaluation of an individual's education, training, and experience by a professional body or organization that is authorized to set and maintain these standards.
Certification typically involves passing an exam or series of exams and may require ongoing continuing education to maintain the certification. Certification does not grant permission to engage in an occupation, but rather serves as a public assessment that an individual has achieved a certain level of proficiency in their field.
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Answer:
C. is a public assessment that standards for work have been achieved
Explanation:
Ernesto has been diagnosed with a lesion in his stomach that has left holes in the tissue. Which may he be prescribed to treat his illness? Check all that apply.
a. drugs that prevent the production of hydrochloric acid
b. laxatives
c. antacid drugs
d. drugs that repress the immune system
e. antibiotic drugs
f. proton pump inhibitors
Answer:
a. drugs that prevent the production of hydrochloric acid
The patient with which medical condition will most likely benefit from lidocaine administered intravenously?.
The patient with Acute ventricular tachycardia medical condition will most likely benefit from lidocaine administered intravenously.
For patients with ventricular dysrhythmias like acute ventricular tachycardia, lidocaine given intravenously is recommended.
An issue with the heart's electrical impulses results in ventricular tachycardia. The syndrome can occur in patients who have particular illnesses, such as valvular heart disease, or it might arise as a side effect of a heart attack. Chest pain, fainting, lightheadedness, and shortness of breath are some of the symptoms.
In the treatment of ventricular arrhythmias, especially those connected to acute myocardial infarction, LIDOCAINE (Xylocaine) has emerged as one of the most widely utilized medications. It has been demonstrated to stop ventricular tachycardia, and it has been administered to stop several ventricular extrasystoles.
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A doctor is explaining treatment options to a patient by using complicated medical jargon, and the patient appears to be
confused. This is best described as a(n)
Answer:
Explanation: Communication barrier
What medicine do you need if someone has cancer
Answer:
Over-the-counter and prescription pain relievers, such as aspirin, acetaminophen (Tylenol, others) and ibuprofen (Advil, Motrin IB, others)
Weak opioid (derived from opium) medications, such as codeine
Strong opioid medications, such as morphine (Kadian, Ms Contin, others), oxycodone (Oxycontin, Roxicodone, others), hydromorphone (Dilaudid, Exalgo), fentanyl (Actiq, Fentora, others), methadone (Dolophine, Methadose) or oxymorphone (Opana)
Explanation:
Please mark me brailiest there is more thogh
5. the nurse is caring for a client who develops compartment syndrome from a severely fractured arm. the client asks the nurse how this can happen. the nurse's response is based on the understanding that: a. a bone fragment has injured the nerve supply in the area b. an injured artery causes impaired arterial perfusion through the compartment c. bleeding and swelling cause increased pressure in an area that cannot expand d. the fascia expands with injury, causing pressure on underlying nerves and muscles
The correct answer is C. Compartment syndrome occurs when bleeding and swelling increase pressure within a compartment that cannot expand,
Leading to decreased blood flow to tissues within the compartment. This can result in tissue damage and even necrosis if not promptly addressed. In the case of a severely fractured arm, the pressure may increase within the compartment due to bleeding and swelling, leading to compartment syndrome.
The priority nursing interventions for a client with compartment syndrome include close monitoring of neurovascular status, frequent assessments of the affected limb for signs of further swelling or changes in sensation, and ensuring that the affected limb is elevated to reduce swelling. Urgent medical intervention may be required to relieve the pressure and restore blood flow if compartment syndrome is suspected.
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Procedure 6-1 Coach Patients Regarding Health Maintenance Disease Prevention, and Treatment Plans while Considering Cultural Diversity Developmental Life Stages, and Communication Barriers
The healthcare provider coaches patients regarding health maintenance, disease prevention, and treatment plans while considering cultural diversity, developmental life stages, and communication barriers.
How does the healthcare provider coach patients regarding health maintenance?The healthcare provider engages in effective patient education to coach patients on various aspects of health maintenance, disease prevention, and treatment plans. They take into account the diverse cultural backgrounds of patients, understanding that cultural beliefs and practices may influence health behaviors and preferences.
They also consider developmental life stages, tailoring the information and approach to suit the specific needs of different age groups.
Moreover, the healthcare provider recognizes communication barriers that may exist, such as language differences, low health literacy, or limited access to healthcare resources. They employ appropriate strategies to overcome these barriers, such as using interpreters, providing culturally sensitive materials, and using plain language to enhance understanding.
By addressing cultural diversity, developmental life stages, and communication barriers, the healthcare provider ensures that patient education is inclusive, effective, and tailored to individual needs, promoting better health outcomes and patient engagement.
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Select the correct description of the ankle.
3 places where the esophagus is compressed or narrowed____,_____,and_____
The three places where the esophagus is compressed or narrowed are the cervical region, the thoracic region, and the diaphragmatic region.
1. Cervical region: The esophagus is compressed in the cervical region as it passes through the neck. This narrowing occurs because it passes behind the trachea and is closely related to the cervical vertebrae, causing compression.
2. Thoracic region: The esophagus is compressed in the thoracic region due to the presence of the aortic arch and the left main bronchus. The aortic arch passes over the esophagus, while the left main bronchus crosses in front of it, resulting in compression from both the anterior and posterior sides.
3. Diaphragmatic region: The esophagus is compressed in the diaphragmatic region as it passes through the esophageal hiatus of the diaphragm. The diaphragm is a muscular structure that separates the thoracic and abdominal cavities, and the esophageal hiatus is an opening in the diaphragm through which the esophagus passes.
In summary, the esophagus experiences compression and narrowing at three distinct locations - the cervical region due to its passage behind the trachea, the thoracic region due to the aortic arch and left main bronchus, and the diaphragmatic region due to its passage through the esophageal hiatus of the diaphragm.
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Data pertaining to medication orders and prescription refills would be found within which type of clinical information system?
Data pertaining to medication orders and prescription refills would be found within an EMR system, which is a type of clinical information system.
Electronic medical records, or EMRs, are paper charts that have been digitized and contain information such as diagnoses, allergies, medical histories, immunization dates, lab findings, prescriptions, and doctor's notes.
EMR systems are capable of handling every task, including logging patient information, setting up appointments, writing medicines, and checking insurances. The deployment of an electronic medical records system can worry you.The productivity and efficiency of your facilities, however, can soar to new heights with it. By using these services, you can also receive financial rewards. EMR systems assist in securely storing patient medical data.
You can use it to capture notes made during patient consultations. Documents and photographs can be scanned and uploaded, as well as data from EKGs and dictation recordings. It would be difficult to organize tons of data and get a full picture of patients' health without a data input system.To know more about EMR go to https://brainly.com/question/14702704
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ways to survive breast cancer ?
Answer:
Explanation:
The ability of the heart, lungs and blood vessels to deliver oxygen to working muscles and tissues during physical activity for a long period of time.
Cardiovascular endurance is the ability of the heart, lungs, and blood vessels to deliver oxygen to working muscles and tissues during physical activity for a long period of time.
Cardiovascular endurance, a crucial sign of physical health, is the capacity of the heart and lungs to supply oxygen-rich blood to working muscles throughout prolonged physical exercise. Maximum oxygen uptake (VO2max), which is commonly used in the laboratory to quantify cardiorespiratory endurance, is not a useful technique for use in everyday situations.
It is the body's capacity to effectively deliver oxygen and nutrients to active muscles through the heart, lungs, and circulatory systems. Large muscular group exercises like walking, jogging, swimming, biking, etc. can be done for extended periods of time thanks to it.
The ability to perform exercises using your entire body for a lengthy period of time at a moderate to a high level is known as cardiovascular endurance. Your ability to complete daily tasks more easily can be increased by increasing your cardiovascular endurance.
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Withdrawal symptoms O A can be artificially produced by electrically stimulating the PAG. OB. can be terminated by administration of an antagonist. OC are modulated through the cerebellum. OD. are due to mechanisms separate from the mechanisms of addiction. QUESTION 3 Some of the newer drug abuse treatments include OA. aversive treatment, where the user is given a substance which makes them ill if the abused drug is taken. OB over stimulating the reward system electrically, functionally burning out the neurons responsible for euphoria. B. OC-vaccines for specific drug abuse problems. OD implants with antagonistic compounds that are time released.
Withdrawal symptoms can be artificially produced by electrically stimulating the PAG, and they can be terminated by administration of an antagonist.
Withdrawal symptoms occur when a person suddenly stops taking a drug that their body has become accustomed to. They include physical and emotional symptoms and can be extremely uncomfortable and difficult to manage. Electrically stimulating the PAG can produce these symptoms artificially, allowing researchers to study and better understand them.
Withdrawal symptoms can also be terminated by administration of an antagonist. An antagonist is a drug that blocks the effects of another drug, and in this case, it can block the effects of the drug causing the withdrawal symptoms. This can help manage and treat withdrawal symptoms in people who are trying to quit using drugs.Some newer drug abuse treatments include vaccines for specific drug abuse problems, aversive treatment, where the user is given a substance that makes them ill if the abused drug is taken, and implants with antagonistic compounds that are time released. These treatments aim to help people overcome their addiction and manage their withdrawal symptoms in a safe and effective way.In conclusion, withdrawal symptoms can be artificially produced by electrically stimulating the PAG and can be terminated by administration of an antagonist. Some newer drug abuse treatments include vaccines for specific drug abuse problems, aversive treatment, and implants with antagonistic compounds that are time released.
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the nurse is working in a community mental health clinic. a client who is diagnosed with schizophrenia is taking clozapine and reports of a sore throat. what is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?
The nurse is working in a community mental health clinic and a client who is diagnosed with schizophrenia is taking clozapine and reports of a sore throat therefore the most appropriate action for the nurse to take is to obtain an order for the client to have a white blood cell count drawn and is therefore denoted as option D.
What is Schizophrenia?This is referred to as a serious mental disorder in which people interpret reality abnormally and the first line of care and treatment is usually the administering of antipsychotic medications but the use of clozapine is only for people who are resistant to other drugs.
The most appropriate action for the nurse to take when sore throat is noticed is to order for the client to have a white blood cell count drawn as it may be due to an infection.
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The options are:
a) Encourage the use of saline mouth rinses until the sore throat is gone.
b) Have the client decrease the daily amount of clozapine by half.
c) Suggest that the client drink warm beverages and rest.
d) Obtain an order for the client to have a white blood cell count drawn.
When a resident is resistive to care you should
Answer:
the resident should be reassessed and the care plan should be modified as appropriate.
Explanation:
They are in need of assistance and should be helped but be helped thoughtfully and modified if and only if it needs to be.
Which instruction from the nurse to an 80-year-old client with thinning of a subcutaneous layer would be most beneficial?
o Dress warmly in cold weather
o Use soaps with high fat content
o Change the position of bed once every 5 hours
o Apply moisturizer immediately after bathing
The subcutaneous layer is the layer of fat that lies beneath the dermis of the skin. This layer plays an essential role in insulating the body, protecting underlying muscles and bones, and regulating body temperature. Moisturizers help keep skin hydrated, which is critical for skin health.
As a nurse, the most beneficial instruction that you can give an 80-year-old client with thinning of a subcutaneous layer is to apply moisturizer immediately after bathing. Dry skin can become flaky, itchy, and painful, making it more susceptible to injury and infection. By preventing dryness, moisturizers can also help reduce the appearance of fine lines and wrinkles. They can also help soothe skin that is irritated or inflamed. In conclusion, the most beneficial instruction that a nurse can give an 80-year-old client with thinning of a subcutaneous layer is to apply moisturizer immediately after bathing.
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19) What is a traveling Guide?
a) something that don't move
b) something that move
c) stay in between
d) In the back of the head
Answer:
d is the answer I think sry if it's worng
Identify and explain the four signs and symptoms of inflammation. What are the roles of histamine and prostaglandins
Answer:
5 signs of inflammation: Redness, Pain, Heat, Swelling and Loss of Function.
Explanation:
Histamine:
Histamine is a molecule produced by the body that serves a variety of functions in the human body. When histamine attaches to the H1 receptor, it activates an enzyme called phospholipase C, which subsequently produces IP3, a substance that stimulates blood vessels to widen. Histamine is known for causing inflammation, which is one of its major effects. Histamine is a molecule produced by the body that serves a variety of functions in the human body. When histamine attaches to the H1 receptor, it activates an enzyme called phospholipase C, which subsequently produces IP3, a substance that stimulates blood vessels to widen. Histamine is known for causing inflammation, which is one of its major effects.
Prostaglandins:
Prostaglandins are important mediators of the inflammatory response. Their production is greatly elevated in inflamed tissue, and they play a role in the development of acute inflammation's cardinal symptoms.
During an initial assessment, the nurse notes a symptom of a mild case of bacterial conjunctivitis and documents in the electronic medical record that the client is displaying which of the following ?
- Blurred vision
- Elevated intraocular pressure
- Severe pain
- Mucopurulent ocular discharge
The client is displaying Mucopurulent ocular discharge as a symptom of a mild case of bacterial conjunctivitis.
Bacterial conjunctivitis is an infection of the conjunctiva, which is the thin membrane that covers the white part of the eye and the inner surface of the eyelids. It is commonly characterized by symptoms such as redness, irritation, and discharge from the eye.
"Mucopurulent ocular discharge" refers to a thick, yellowish or greenish discharge that can be present in bacterial conjunctivitis. This discharge is typically sticky and can cause the eyelids to stick together, especially upon waking up in the morning.
The other options mentioned:
Blurred vision: Blurred vision is not a typical symptom of bacterial conjunctivitis, although it can occur if the discharge affects the clarity of the vision.
Elevated intraocular pressure: Elevated intraocular pressure is not associated with bacterial conjunctivitis. It is a symptom typically seen in conditions such as glaucoma.
Severe pain: Bacterial conjunctivitis usually does not cause severe pain. Pain may be present in certain cases, but it is typically mild or moderate in intensity. Therefore, the correct symptom documented for a mild case of bacterial conjunctivitis is Mucopurulent ocular discharge.
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