What does the sodium-potassium pump keep at a high concentration outside of the cell?
A. potassium

B. sodium

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

B. sodium

Explanation:

2 potassium ions are moved inside the cell and 3 sodium ions are moved out. So there is more sodium on the outside of the cell.


Related Questions

In 2000, the number of fatalities caused by measles was 582,800 worldwide. In 2013, that number was 145,700.
Between 2000 and 2013, fatalities from measles decreased
%.

Answers

Between 2000 and 2013, fatalities from measles decreased by approximately 75%.

What do you mean by Measles?

Measles may be defined as an acute and highly contagious viral disease that is commonly caused by a single-stranded RNA virus known as measles virus.

Fatalities caused by measles in 2000 = 582,800

Fatalities caused by measles in 2013 = 145,700

Total differnce = 437100.

Now, the percentage = 437100/582800 ×100 = 75%.

Therefore, between 2000 and 2013, fatalities from measles decreased by approximately 75%.

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Answer: approximately 75%.

Explanation: Fatalities caused by measles in 2000 = 582,800

Fatalities caused by measles in 2013 = 145,700

Total differnce = 437100.

Now, the percentage = 437100/582800 ×100 = 75%.

How does the shape of an enzyme affect the reaction

Answers

Answer:

The shape of the enzyme determines which chemical reaction it will speed up.May strain the bonds of the substrate or put chemical groups of the active site in the correct position to speed up the reaction.

what would be the outcome of a mutation that prevented dna binding proteins from being produced?

Answers

The outcome of a mutation that prevented DNA binding proteins from being produced would be a disruption in the transcription process.

What would happen if a mutation prevented the production of DNA-binding proteins?

The outcome of a mutation that prevented DNA binding proteins from being produced would be that the DNA would not be able to properly replicate and divide, leading to a potential genetic disorder.

DNA binding proteins play an important role in the regulation of gene expression, DNA replication, and DNA repair. Without these proteins, the DNA would not be able to properly function which could lead to mutations and abnormalities in the genetic code. This could potentially lead to the development of diseases and disorders, such as cancer. Therefore, it is crucial for DNA-binding proteins to be produced in order to maintain the integrity and function of the DNA.

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Name and explain four types of changes in chromosome structure.

Answers

Solution:

The four types of chromosomal structural abnormalities can be grouped into the following two groups:

Balanced structural anomalies:

1. Translocations: simple or complex movement of chromosome fragments or whole chromosomes. Chromosome breaks and a part of it is attached to a different chromosome.

2. Inversion: where the chromosomal region is flipped so that it points in the opposite direction. That is, part of a chromosome breaks off at two points and the segment in between turns upside down and then rejoins the same chromosome.

Unbalanced structural anomalies:

3. Duplication: where part of a chromosome is copied. This means that a part of the chromosome is duplicated or has two copies. The result is additional chromosomal material.

4. Deletion: where part of a chromosome is removed. That is, there is DNA loss.

In transcription within the nucleus, RNA is made through ____ pairing with the antisense strand in _____

Answers

In transcription within the nucleus, RNA is made through complementary base pairing with the antisense strand in DNA.

Transcription is the process by which genetic information encoded in DNA is used to synthesize RNA molecules. During transcription, an enzyme called RNA polymerase binds to a specific region of DNA called the promoter. The DNA double helix is unwound, exposing a template strand. The RNA polymerase then moves along the template strand, synthesizing a complementary RNA molecule by adding nucleotides in a 5' to 3' direction.

The antisense strand in DNA, also known as the template strand or non-coding strand, serves as a guide for RNA synthesis. The nucleotides in the RNA molecule are complementary to the nucleotides on the template strand. Adenine (A) in DNA pairs with uracil (U) in RNA, cytosine (C) pairs with guanine (G), guanine pairs with cytosine, and thymine (T) in DNA pairs with adenine.

This complementary base pairing ensures that the RNA molecule is a faithful copy of the genetic information encoded in the DNA. The resulting RNA molecule can then undergo further processing and be transported out of the nucleus to participate in protein synthesis or other cellular processes.

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Which of these correctly describes sexual reproduction?
A) it produces only a single offspring at a time
B) it needs two parents to form a daughter cell
C) it needs a single parent to form a daughter cell
D) it produces offspring that look exactly similar

Answers

Answer:

B

Explanation:

the synthesis of an enzyme in response to the large amounts of substrate is referred to as:

Answers

The synthesis of an enzyme in response to the presence of large amounts of substrate is referred to as induction.

Enzyme induction is a regulatory mechanism in living organisms that allows them to adapt to changing conditions and optimize their metabolic processes. When a large amount of a specific substrate is present in the environment, cells respond by synthesizing and increasing the production of enzymes involved in the metabolism or breakdown of that substrate.

The process of enzyme induction primarily involves gene regulation. Genes are segments of DNA that contain instructions for the synthesis of proteins, including enzymes. The regulation of gene expression ensures that proteins are produced in the appropriate amounts at the right time.

In the case of enzyme induction, the presence of the substrate molecule acts as a signal that triggers changes in gene expression. The substrate molecule typically interacts with regulatory proteins or receptors within the cell, initiating a signaling cascade that ultimately leads to the activation of specific genes.

Once the genes are activated, the cell's machinery begins the process of transcription and translation. Transcription involves the synthesis of a complementary RNA molecule, called messenger RNA (mRNA), based on the information encoded in the gene. This mRNA molecule carries the genetic code from the nucleus to the cytoplasm, where translation occurs.

During translation, the mRNA serves as a template for the synthesis of proteins. Ribosomes, the cellular structures responsible for protein synthesis, read the mRNA sequence and assemble amino acids in the correct order to form the corresponding enzyme molecule. This newly synthesized enzyme can then participate in the metabolism or breakdown of the substrate that triggered its production.

Enzyme induction is an essential mechanism for organisms to efficiently utilize available resources. By increasing the production of enzymes in response to a high substrate concentration, cells can enhance their metabolic capacity and adapt to environmental changes. This process allows organisms to optimize their energy usage and maintain homeostasis.

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which of the following is most appropriately mitigated by introducing new genetic diversity into an isolated population? (select all that apply) question 12 options: a) harmful effects of inbreeding b) lack of food c) edge effects d) habitat fragmentation e) lower chances of being able to survive environmental changes

Answers

The most appropriately mitigated by introducing new genetic diversity into an isolated population is a. "Harmful effects of inbreeding"

As we know Inbreeding is the mating of individuals which are genetically very closely related. Due to breeding of closely related individuals the chances of variations are nil, results in fixation of unfavorable genes in F2 and organisms can accumulate recessive or harmful traits more easily and easily affected. Hence have decreased fitness, reproduction and production. This is known as "Inbreeding depression" one of the most harmful effect of Inbreeding. In an isolated population all individuals are closely related and hence have Inbreeding between them, Inbreeding depression can occur which results in increased mortality, reduced reproduction or loss of fertility.

Thus, option a is the correct choice.

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what compounds are required for the transport of ketones from the cytoplasm to the mitochondrial matrix? a) atp, carnitine, and coenzyme a. b) atp, coenzyme a, and acyl-coa dehydrogenase c) atp, citrate, and carnitine acyltransferase i. d) carnitine, coenzyme a, and thiolase e) none of the answers is correct.

Answers

Since the transport of medium- and long-chain fatty acids into the mitochondrial matrix relies on carnitine, an increase in carnitine intake will result in a faster rate of transport. the correct answer is (E).

In addition to acyl-CoA synthetase, three enzymes are needed to transport long-chain fatty acids into the mitochondrial matrix. Carnitine is used to move fatty acyl-CoA across the outer mitochondrial membrane: palmitoyltransferase I (CPT I); fatty acylcarnitine is simultaneously converted by this enzyme.

The addition of an -SH group to the 2-carbon of pyruvate is proposed as a transport mechanism that invokes a transition state of pyruvate. Ketone bodies may cross the mitochondrial membrane via free diffusion or the carrier, according to the presented evidence.

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during what phase of meiosis do homologous chromosomes line up in the center of the cell ​

during what phase of meiosis do homologous chromosomes line up in the center of the cell

Answers

Metaphase ii Is where are the chromosomes line up in the center of the cell

Homologous chromosomes line up in the center of the cell at metaphase I.

MEIOSIS:

Meiosis is a type of cell division in which a single cell produces four genetically different daughter cells.

Meiosis reduces the chromosome number of the daughter cells by half. Meiosis occurs in a two step division process namely meiosis I and meiosis II.

Meiosis generally consists of four stages namely Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase and Telophase. Metaphase is the stage where chromosomes line up at the cell's equator or cell plate.

However, in meiosis I, homologous chromosomes line up while in meiosis II, sister chromatids line up.

Therefore, homologous chromosomes line up in the center of the cell at metaphase I.

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A 160 lb. college student consumes a bowl of cereal containing 750 Calories in the morning. He then sits quietly in class for 4 hours, and then goes for a 30-minute run. How many Calories did he use, and was it more or less than he consumed?

Answers

Answer:

less

Explanation:

because a 30 min run can only burn 200-500 calories

In the morning, a 160-pound college student consumes a bowl of cereal with 750 calories. 30 minutes of running can only burn 200-500 calories.

What is Calories?The calorie is a type of energy unit. For historical reasons, there are two main definitions of "calorie." The large calorie, food calorie, or kilogram calorie was originally defined as the amount of heat needed to raise the temperature of one kilogram of water by one degree Celsius.Calories are the units of energy released by your body when it digests and absorbs food. The higher the calorie content of a food, the more energy it can provide to your body. When you consume more calories than you require, your body stores the excess calories as fat. Even fat-free foods can be high in calories.

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describe the movement of water across a cell membrane and the effects on the cell that is in a hypertonic, hypotonic or an isotonic environment surrounding a cell.

Answers

Answer:

If a cell is placed in a hypertonic solution, water will leave the cell, and the cell will shrink. In an isotonic environment, there is no net water movement, so there is no change in the size of the cell. When a cell is placed in a hypotonic environment, water will enter the cell, and the cell will swell.

Explanation:

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Claire owns a local bakery and sells boxes of cupcakes. Each box contains 7 cupcakes. If she sells 9 boxes of cupcakes by closing time on Tuesday, how many cupcakes did she make to fill all the boxes that she sold?

Answers

Answer:

7 x 9 = 63

Explanation:

Part C What is the name of the chemical that is branched?

Answers

Answer:

Many alkanes are so-called branched alkanes.

Answer:

The name of the branched chemical is isopropyl cyanide.

Explanation:

Which of the following are true about DNA and RNA (select all that apply)? DNA contains the nucleotides ATCG while RNA contains the nucleotides AUCG DNA is a much larger molecule than RNA DNA is double stranded while RNA is single stranded | DNA contains the sugar ribose while RNA contains the sugar deoxyribose

Answers

The true statement about DNA and RNA are DNA contains the nucleotides ATCG while RNA contains the nucleotides AUCG, DNA is double-stranded while RNA is single-stranded, and DNA contains the sugar ribose while RNA contains the sugar deoxyribose, options A, C & D are correct.

DNA contains the nucleotides ATCG (adenine, thymine, cytosine, and guanine), while RNA contains the nucleotides AUCG (adenine, uracil, cytosine, and guanine). The only difference is that DNA uses thymine, while RNA uses uracil.

DNA is double-stranded, meaning it consists of two complementary strands that are held together by hydrogen bonds between their nucleotide bases. In contrast, RNA is single-stranded, consisting of a single strand of nucleotides. DNA contains the sugar deoxyribose, which lacks an oxygen atom at the 2' position, while RNA contains the sugar ribose, which has an additional oxygen atom at the 2' position, options A, C & D are correct.

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The correct question is:

Which of the following are true about DNA and RNA (select all that apply)?

A. DNA contains the nucleotides ATCG while RNA contains the nucleotides AUCG

B. DNA is a much larger molecule than RNA

C. DNA is double-stranded while RNA is single-stranded

D. DNA contains the sugar ribose while RNA contains the sugar deoxyribose

A mutation that occurs in a sperm cell has the potential of being passed on to the next generation. True or false

Answers

Answer:

true

Explanation:

a mutation and a sperm cell will pass on to the next generation because the jeans from the sperm cell are mutated and will

Which of the following are external regulators of the cell cycle
A. Cyclins
B. Growth factors
C. Mitotic spindles
D. Cancer cells

Answers

Answer:

B . Growth factor.

hope it is helpful to you

LABEL THE HEART 1-13 !

LABEL THE HEART 1-13 !

Answers

12.venacava

13. Right Atrium

14. Valve

15. Right Ventricle

16. Pulmonary Artery

17. Pulmonary Vein

18. Left Atrium

19. Left Ventricle

20. Aorta

LABEL THE HEART 1-13 !

Answer:

(see below)

Explanation:

12. Vena Cava

The top one is the superior vena cava and the bottom one is the inferior vena cava.

13. Right Atrium

14. Valve

This is the atrioventricular (tricuspid) valve.

15. Right Ventricle

16. Pulmonary Artery

These are the left pulmonary arteries.

17. Pulmonary Vein

These are the left pulmonary veins.

18. Left Atrium

19. Left Ventricle

20. Aorta

What type of particle have the leat amount if kinetic energy?
a. Ice particle
b. Air particle
c. Skin particle
d. Liquid water particle?

Answers

The kinetic hypothesis states that matter particles are constantly in motion. Kinetic energy is the term for the energy of motion. Gas particles have the maximum kinetic energy, while solid particles have the least.

A solid's kinetic energy may be the least?

Solids have the lowest kinetic energy since they cannot move and can only vary in position relative to their mean. Although liquids have more kinetic energy than solids, they also have kinetic energy in their molecules due to convection.

What particle has the lowest energy?

When an electron and positron collided, a bottomonium particle was produced. This collision's energy resulted in the binding of a bottom quark and an anti-bottom quark.

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Studies of vacuoles reveal that they are *

1 point

A) sites for the attachment of spindle fibers

B) sites of cellular respiration

C) reservoirs for water and dissolved minerals

D) information centers for all cellular activities

Answers

C. Reservoirs for water and dissolved minerals

The frequency of two alleles in a gene pool is 0.17 (A) and 0.3 (a.) assume that the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium calculate the percentage of heterozygous individuals in the population.
28% 1% 31% or 46%

Answers

The correct answer based on the calculation would be approximately 10.2% heterozygous individuals in the population. The correct answer is 10%.

To calculate the percentage of heterozygous individuals in a population in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, we can use the formula 2pq, where p represents the frequency of one allele (A) and q represents the frequency of the other allele (a).

Given that the frequency of allele A is 0.17 and the frequency of allele A is 0.3, we can calculate:

p = 0.17

q = 0.3

Now, we can substitute these values into the formula:

2pq = 2 \(\times\) 0.17 \(\times\) 0.3 = 0.102

Therefore, the percentage of heterozygous individuals in the population is 0.102 \(\times\) 100 = 10.2%.

Based on the given answer choices, none of them exactly match the calculated value.

The closest option is 1%, but it does not match the calculated percentage accurately. It's possible that there may be a typographical error or slight deviation in the provided answer choices.

The correct answer based on the calculation would be approximately 10.2% heterozygous individuals in the population.

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Question

The frequency of two alleles in a gene pool is 0.17 (A) and 0.3 (a.) assume that the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium calculate the percentage of heterozygous individuals in the population.

28% 10% 31% or 46%

in louis pasteur's experiment to disprove the theory of spon-taneous generation, what were some of the variables that he needed to keep the same so that his experiment was fair?

Answers

Louis Pasteur's experiment to disprove the theory of spontaneous generation was crucial in the development of the scientific method. He was required to maintain a few variables to keep the experiment fair. This process involved the use of swan-necked flasks, sterilized broth, and control experiments.

Louis Pasteur's experiments aimed to disprove the spontaneous generation theory by creating a sterile environment, removing all microorganisms that would cause the broth to spoil. He used swan-necked flasks that allowed air to reach the broth but kept the microorganisms out of the broth. It was important for Pasteur to maintain a few variables in the experiment, such as the temperature of the broth, the source of the broth, and the duration of the experiment. Pasteur used boiled meat broth in his experiment as a nutrient source for microorganisms.The use of control experiments was critical to the experiment.

Control experiments were conducted in a similar manner as the experimental groups, but no change was made to the variable being tested. Pasteur kept the control experiments under the same conditions as the experimental group to determine if there was any growth of microorganisms in the control group. If there was no growth in the control group, it would indicate that the results observed in the experimental group were due to the treatment of the experimental group and not because of any variable factor. The control experiment showed that microorganisms do not arise spontaneously, but from pre-existing microorganisms.

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43) which evidence suggests that upper motor neurons in the primary cortex have a preferred direction?

Answers

One of the pieces of evidence that suggests upper motor neurons in the primary cortex have a preferred direction is the phenomenon of directional tuning.

Directional tuning refers to the fact that these neurons exhibit a higher firing rate when movement is directed in a specific preferred direction. Studies using single-neuron recordings in animal models have shown that when a monkey or other animals perform motor tasks, such as reaching or grasping objects in different directions, specific upper motor neurons in the primary cortex exhibit increased activity when the movement is in their preferred direction. Microstimulation studies in which small electrical currents are applied to specific areas of the primary cortex have also demonstrated that stimulating different locations can elicit specific movements in particular directions. This suggests that the upper motor neurons in those areas are organized according to a somatotopic map, with specific regions corresponding to different body parts and their preferred movement directions. The presence of directional tuning in upper motor neurons and the ability to elicit specific movements by stimulating different cortical areas provide evidence for the existence of a preferred direction in the primary cortex's upper motor neurons.
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Upper motor neurons in the primary cortex have a preferred direction as evidence from the "direction tuning" concept suggests.

The direction tuning concept is based on the observation that the preferred directions of upper motor neurons in the primary motor cortex are not random. They are distributed in a way that makes sense anatomically, indicating that this organization reflects the underlying organization of the musculature.

The direction tuning phenomenon is the strongest evidence for the existence of the preferred direction of upper motor neurons. When the stimulus is delivered in the neuron's preferred direction, it will produce a stronger signal than when it is delivered in a different direction.

In summary, the evidence that suggests that upper motor neurons in the primary cortex have a preferred direction is the direction tuning concept.

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Is this correct? Pls​

Is this correct? Pls

Answers

Yes it can turn into sedimentary or metamorphic rock

Yes it is it is correct sibdirbrbbehdhdbdbbdfhf

do you think you found most of the species in habitat? what evidence supports your conclusion

Answers

In general, it is unlikely that all the species in a habitat have been found or discovered.

The total number of species on the planet is not known, and new species are still being discovered, particularly in remote or inaccessible areas.

Moreover, the discovery of new species requires extensive and continuous exploration, observation, and documentation, which can be a challenging and time-consuming process.

Many species may remain undiscovered, particularly those that are small, elusive, or have restricted ranges.

In conclusion, it is unlikely that all the species in a habitat have been found or discovered. Continued exploration, research, and observation are required to uncover the biodiversity of a habitat fully.

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The bacteria in a petri dish increases according to continuous exponential growth model, with a growth rate of 1.2% per hour. How much bacteria will you have after 24 hours from an initial sample of 2000 bacteria?

Answers

The number of bacteria growth after 24 hours is determined as 2,663 bacteria.

Number of bacteria after 1 hour

The number of bacteria growth after 1 hour can be calculated using the rate equation.

N(t) = N₀(1 + r)^t

where;

r is the rate = 1.2% = 0.012t is time = 24 hoursN₀ is the initial number

N(24) = 2000(1 + 0.012)^24

N(24) = 2,663 bacteria

Thus, the number of bacteria growth after 24 hours is determined as 2,663 bacteria.

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Describe the impact of crabs going extinct in this ecosystem. Who will be the most positively affected?
Who will be the most negatively affected? Explain.

Answers

Answer:

the prey of crabs would be positively affected, and the predators of crabs would take a negative effect to the extinction of crabs

Explanation:

small clams, starfish, snails, worms, squid, mussels, shrimp and small fish would all be positively affected if crabs were to go extinct, because all that is listed are part of a crabs diet, for both large and small crabs. the ones which would be negatively affected would be the predators of crabs, such as cobia, eels, striped bass, jellyfish, red drum, American eels, sharks, dogfish, sea rays, and smaller fish. they would take a negative affect to the extinction of crabs because as said before, these are all predators of crabs, so the extinction would remove them from their diet, forcing them to find other sources for food

In which animal tongue controls the temperature?.

Answers

I think the answer is a dog

To detect immunoglobulin m (igm)antibodies in an acute phase,blood should be collected in _____ days after the onset of infection.

Answers

To detect immunoglobulin m (IgM)antibodies in an acute phase, blood should be collected 7 days after the onset of infection.

IgM and IgG antibodies to SARS-CoV-2 may both be found shortly after infection. IgG is typically detectable for extended periods of time, but IgM is most effective for diagnosing recent infection and typically becomes undetectable weeks to months after infection. IgM antibody detection is frequently viewed as a sign of an acute infection. Due to cross-reactivity with IgM antibodies to other, closely related bacteria or other interfering chemicals, false-positive IgM findings are, nonetheless, frequently observed. A positive IgM result may not always indicate an "acute" infection, and additional testing (such as IgG testing) may be required to interpret results because IgM antibodies may be detectable for 2-4 months (or longer) after disease resolution. For many infections, the onset of a measurable antibody response is 5-7 days after the infection. If samples are taken before infection, the initial IgM test results may be negative. Antibody production Immunosuppressed patients may also continue to be seronegative.

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HURRY I'M DESPERATE
What is sustainable development?

Answers

Answer:

Sustainable development is an organizing principle for meeting human development goals while simultaneously sustaining the ability of natural systems to provide the natural resources and ecosystem services on which the economy and society depend on.

Explanation:

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