Answer:
one of the spleen's major jobs is filter the blood.
Explanation:
One of the spleen’s main jobs is to filter your blood. It affects the number of red blood cells that carry oxygen throughout your body, and the number of platelets, which are cells that help your blood to clot. It does this by breaking down and removing cells that are abnormal, old, or damaged.
The spleen also stores red blood cells, platelets, and infection-fighting white blood cells.
The spleen plays an important role in your immune system response. When it detects bacteria, viruses, or other germs in your blood, it produces white blood cells, called lymphocytes, to fight off these infections.
enumerate the parts of the heart and its functions
Answer:
Atria, Ventricles, Epicardium, Myocardium, Endocardium, Atrioventricular Bundle, Atrioventricular Node, Purkinje Fibers, Sinoatrial Node, Aortic valve, Mitral valve, Pulmonary valve, Tricuspid valve, Aorta, Brachiocephalic artery, Carotid arteries, Common iliac arteries, Coronary arteries, Pulmonary artery, Subclavian arteries, Brachiocephalic veins, Common iliac veins, Pulmonary veins, and the Vena cava.
Explanation:
The heart is a vital organ that helps supply blood and oxygen to every part of your body. It's divided by a partition (or septum) into 2 halves. Each half is, in turn, divided into 4 chambers. The heart is situated within the cavity of the chest and surrounded by a sac filled with fluid called the pericardium. This amazing muscle produces electrical impulses that cause the heart to contract, pumping blood throughout your body. The heart and the circulatory system when working together make up the cardiovascular system.
The heart consists up of 4 chambers; The Atria are the upper 2 chambers of the heart, and the ventricles are lower 2 chambers of the heart. The heart wall consists up of 3 layers; The Epicardium is the outer layer of the wall of the heart, The Myocardium is the muscular middle layer of the wall of the heart, and the Endocardium is the inner layer of the heart.
The heart also has nodes and nerve fibers that send electrical signals, causing the heart to contrast. Cardiac conduction is the rate which the heart conducts electrical impulses. The Heart has nodes and nerve fibers which play an important role in causing the heart to contract. The Atrioventricular Bundle is a bundle of fibers that carry cardiac impulses, the Purkinje Fibers are fiber branches that extend from the atrioventricular bundle, the Atrioventricular Node is an area of nodal tissue that delays and relays cardiac impulses, and the Sinoatrial Node is an area of nodal tissue that sets the rate of contraction for the heart.
Then there is the Cardiac cycle which is the sequence of events that occur when the heart beats. There are 2 phases of the cardiac cycle, Diastole and Systole Phase. Diastole phase is when the heart ventricles are relaxed and the heart fills with blood. Systole phase is when the ventricles contract and pump blood to the arteries.
The heart has 4 valves which control the direction of the flow of the blood through the heart. Heart valves are flap-like structures that allow blood to flow in one direction. The 4 valves are the Aortic valve, the Mitral valve, the Pulmonary valve, and the Tricuspid valve. The Aortic valve prevents the back flow of blood as it is being pumped from the left ventricle to the aorta. The Mitral valve prevents the back flow of blood as it is being pumped from the left atrium to the left ventricle. The Pulmonary valve prevents the back flow of blood as it is being pumped from the right ventricle to the pulmonary artery. And the Tricuspid valve prevents the back flow of blood as it is being pumped from the right atrium to the right ventricle. This makes it easy for the blood to flow in and out with no issues.
And finally, we get to the blood vessels. Blood vessels are intricately detailed networks of hollow tubes that move your blood throughout the entire body. These are some of the main Arteries and Veins in the heart.
The largest artery in the body is the Aorta, from which most major arteries branch off of, the Brachiocephalic artery carries oxygenated blood from the aorta to the head, neck, and arm regions of the body. The Carotid arteries supply oxygenated blood to the head and neck regions of the body. Common iliac arteries carry oxygenated blood from the abdominal aorta to the legs and feet. The Coronary arteries carry oxygenated and nutrient-filled blood to the heart muscle. The Pulmonary artery carries deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle to the lungs. The Subclavian arteries supply oxygenated blood to the arms. The Brachiocephalic veins are 2 large veins that join to form the superior vena cava. The Common iliac veins join to form the inferior vena cava. Pulmonary veins carry oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart, And the Vena cava transport de-oxygenated blood from various regions of the body to the heart.
Write a short explanation understandable to a patient's family on why antibiotics are being combined in the treatment of their family member.
we are adding antibiotics to your (family member enter here) treatment because your (family member enter here) is rejecting the treatment or the treatment is not strong enough.
A nurse is reinforcing teaching about the pacemaker to a client who is preparing to undergo the procedure to have one placed for arrhythmias. What are teaching points the nurse can discuss with the client?
Answer:
A nurse is reinforcing teaching about the pacemaker to a client who is preparing to undergo the procedure to have one placed for arrhythmias. ... Extraneous exercise can be harmful to the function of a pacemaker.
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One of the best ways to prepare for a test is to take a practice test;you can do this by
what are tubes that carry blood back to the heart ?
a. arteries
b.veins
c.pipes
d.tubes
Answer:
arteries and veins
Explanation:
those two are the answers
Answer:
I think it's veins.
Explanation:
Arteries carry the blood away from the heart and the veins carry the blood back to the heart.
Which of the following statements is WRONG about performing chest
compressions? *
Allow the chest to completely rise back up after a chest compression
Press down at least 6 inches in adults
Position yourself at the victim's side
Keep interruptions to a minimum
A 21-year-old man receives a penetrating knife wound in the abdomen and is injured in both the superior mesenteric artery and the vagus nerve. Which portion of the colon would most likely be impaired by this injury
If a 21-year-old man receives a penetrating knife wound in the abdomen that injures both the superior mesenteric artery and the vagus nerve, the portions of the colon most likely to be affected are the ascending and transverse colons.
The ascending and transverse colons are supplied with blood by the superior mesenteric artery. Damage to this artery can compromise the blood supply to these parts of the colon, leading to ischemia and potential tissue damage.
Additionally, the vagus nerve provides parasympathetic innervation to the gastrointestinal tract, including the ascending and transverse colons. Injury to the vagus nerve can disrupt the normal functioning of the colon, affecting motility and other digestive processes.
On the other hand, the descending and sigmoid colons receive blood supply from the inferior mesenteric artery and parasympathetic innervation from the pelvic splanchnic nerves, which arise from sacral spinal nerves (S2-S4).
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MED 125-MEDICINE TEST 2
Clinical features of pulmonary tuberculosis include all the following,
Marked weight loss and malaise.
O Coughing for at least ten (10) days.
O Dullness at the base of the neck
O Presence of acid fast bacilli.
Back
Next
TB is contracted by someone coughing, sneezing.obviously, spread thru exposure thru, grouping ppl, with the same disease.. used old med. philcilities, 2 treat TB in late 20's & 30's..main reason how TB spread...
Which of the following is NOT within the LPN's job description:
Record vital signs including blood pressure and oxygen rate
Change bandaging as directed by a registered nurse
Give an enema
Increase a patient's dose of prescription medication and order additional injections
Answer:
give enema
Explanation:
thats is doctors work
Time period before the onset of labor; before giving birth.
Answer:
depends on manny things like the size of the baby and the womens {()} and also on how much force the women has when giveing birth. but usally lasts around 45 minues
Explanation:
The chemical that is in aspirin travels in what part of the blood.
Red Blood Cell
White Blood Cell
Platelet
Plasma
Answer:
These include glucose, amino acids, fats, cholesterol, phospholipids, vitamins and minerals. Some oxygen and carbon dioxide are transported by plasma.
The primary source of microorganisms for catheter related infections include the skin and which the following?
- Catheter hub- Pneumothorax- watery stools
The primary source of microorganisms for catheter-related infections include the skin and the catheter hub.
The catheter-related infections are infections that occur as a result of the catheter's insertion.
These infections can be caused by a variety of bacteria that come into contact with the catheter. The bacteria colonize the catheter surface and then enter the patient's bloodstream through the catheter.
Catheter-associated urinary tract infections (CAUTIs) are the most prevalent form of healthcare-associated infection caused by catheters in patients. CAUTIs can account for up to 80% of hospital-acquired urinary tract infections and up to 50% of all antibiotic use in hospitals.
Catheter-associated bloodstream infections (CABSIs) are a close second to CAUTIs in terms of frequency.
The primary source of microorganisms for catheter-related infections include the skin and the catheter hub. The skin around the catheter insertion site is a significant reservoir for microorganisms that can cause infection. The microorganisms can grow on the catheter's external surface and then transfer to the catheter lumen, where they can cause an infection.
The catheter hub is also a common site of bacterial colonization, particularly when the catheter is changed or manipulated. The hub is a junction point between the catheter and the tubing, and it can become contaminated with bacteria during catheter insertion or manipulation. Therefore, it is essential to maintain a sterile technique while changing or handling catheters to prevent catheter-related infections.
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cryosurgical ablation of the prostate is performed for prostate cancer. what cpt® and icd-10-cm codes are reported for this service?
CPT® code: 55873 - Cryosurgical ablation of the prostate
ICD-10-CM codes: C61 - Malignant neoplasm of prostate
The specific CPT® (Current Procedural Terminology) and ICD-10-CM (International Classification of Diseases, 10th Revision, Clinical Modification) codes reported for cryosurgical ablation of the prostate may vary depending on the specific details of the procedure and the diagnosis.
It is essential to consult the latest coding guidelines and work with a qualified healthcare professional or coding specialist to ensure accurate coding.
That being said, here are some commonly used codes for cryosurgical ablation of the prostate:
CPT® code:
55873 - Cryosurgical ablation of the prostate, including ultrasound guidance and monitoring, periprostatic anesthesia, and erectile dysfunction by any method
ICD-10-CM codes:
C61 - Malignant neoplasm of prostate
It is important to note that additional codes may be required to provide a complete and accurate representation of the patient's condition and the services provided.
The specific codes used may vary depending on factors such as the patient's medical history, any additional procedures performed, and any associated complications or comorbidities.
It is recommended to consult the latest coding guidelines and seek assistance from a qualified coding professional for accurate and up-to-date coding information.
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a physician orders diphenhydramaine 50mg im q4 h.the available stock is 25 mg/2ml caculate the amount to dispense
Answer:
4mL q4h
Explanation:
In order to calculate the amount to dispense, multiply the ordered dose by the dosage available
50 mg x (2mL / 25mg) = 100 mg mL / 25 mg = 4 mL
Dispense 4mL diphenhydramine IM every 4 hours
The dose ordered is diphenhydramine 50 mg IM every 4 hours
The available stock is 25 mg/2 ml
This means each ml of the stock solution contains 12.5 mg of diphenhydramine (25 mg/2ml = 12.5 mg/ml)
To calculate the volume to dispense:
Dose ordered divided by concentration per ml = volume to dispense
50 mg divided by 12.5 mg/ml = 4 ml
So the amount of diphenhydramine 25 mg/2ml stock solution to dispense for a 50 mg IM dose is 4 ml.
In summary:
Dose ordered: diphenhydramine 50 mg IM
Available stock concentration: 25 mg/2 ml (12.5 mg/ml)
Volume to dispense: 50 mg / 12.5 mg/ml = 4 ml
The amount to dispense is 4 ml of the diphenhydramine 25 mg/2ml stock solution to achieve a 50 mg IM dose.
During her study of Chinese history, Sarah must write a report as if she were a person living in ancient China. She can
pick her job, so Sarah decides that she will be someone who takes care of animals. Sarah researches to find that there
were, indeed, records of those whose job it was to diagnose a disease in an animal. For the sake of providing an
example in her report, what kind of animal should Sarah discuss working with to keep her report historically accurate?
She seemed to have no idea whether her coworkers had chosen to depart. She just goes on the supposition that the employees are being paid more elsewhere.
The very first stage of the Organizational Application's three-stage process (or method) is identification of the problem.
In the pursuit of great performance in history's complicated environment, problem-solving abilities are becoming more and more important. Employees throughout all organizational levels must be capable of thinking critically, assume responsibility for issues effectively make judgments inside the moment.
Throughout your profession and across all organizational levels, you might face moral concerns.
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Of the factors that influence diffusion of respiratory gases, the most variable and, therefore, important factor to consider is the.
The gradient of concentration is the most important factor to consider to study the influence of diffusion of respiratory gases.
The Latin word diffuser, which means to spread out, is the source of the word diffusion. which refers to something that disperses or moves from one place to another. Diffusion is distinct from other transport mechanisms like advection or convection, which use bulk motion to move particles from one location to another.
Molecule mobility is extremely small in solids, reasonably large in liquids, and extremely massive in gases. And this molecule movement must result in a phenomenon known as diffusion.
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if the two balls are moving at the same speed , and the basketball has a kinetic energy of 10.0 j , what is the kinetic energy of the basketball
Answer:
10.0 j ...?
Explanation:
What privacy rights does a forensie patient have in consulting with his doctor and regarding release of personal information about a tumor?
non forons le pallen
Answer:
The rights are the same as a nonforensic patient, except a guard must stay within view of the conversation.
Explanation:
PEP (post-exposure prophylaxis) means taking antiretroviral medicines (ART) after being potentially exposed to HIV to prevent becoming infected.
PEP should be used only in emergency situations and must be started within 72 hours after a recent possible exposure to HIV. If you think you’ve recently been exposed to HIV during sex or through sharing needles and works to prepare drugs or if you’ve been sexually assaulted, talk to your health care provider or an emergency room doctor about PEP right away.
–Centers for Disease Control, 2016
Who may need to take antiretroviral medicines?
When is PEP most effective?
The answers include the following:
The people who may need to take antiretroviral medicines are those who have been exposed or infected with HIV.PEP most effective within 72 hours after a recent possible exposure to HIV.What is PEP?This is known as post-exposure prophylaxis and is usually taken within 72 hours after a recent possible exposure to HIV.
The exposure may be as a result of unprotected sex or sharing of needles and taking PEP within the time frame prevents the infection from occurring thereby making it the most appropriate choice.
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During a marathon, a runner had to drop out after 16 miles because of severe muscle spasms. Which type of pain is the runner experiencing?
The runner in this scenario is likely experiencing muscle cramps or muscle spasms. Muscle cramps are involuntary contractions or spasms of a muscle or group of muscles.
They can occur during or after physical activity, such as running a marathon, and are often associated with fatigue, dehydration, electrolyte imbalances (such as low levels of potassium or magnesium), and muscle overuse. Muscle cramps can be quite painful and can force individuals to discontinue their activity until the muscle spasm resolves. They commonly affect the calf muscles, but can also occur in other muscles, such as the thighs, hamstrings, or feet. The spasms may be brief, lasting only a few seconds, or they can persist for several minutes. To manage and prevent muscle cramps during prolonged physical activity like a marathon, it's important for runners to maintain proper hydration, ensure adequate electrolyte balance, warm up and stretch before the race, and gradually increase their training intensity and duration to allow the muscles to adapt.
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The staff of a medical unit has agreed to pilot test a new, evidence-based educational initiative that addresses the learning needs of adults who have been recently diagnosed with type 2 diabetes. which result would a pilot test likely to accomplish
A pilot test of the new, evidence-based educational initiative for adults recently diagnosed with type 2 diabetes is likely to accomplish several results. First and foremost, it will allow the staff of the medical unit to determine whether the educational initiative is effective in addressing the learning needs of this population.
This will help to ensure that patients receive the information and support they need to manage their condition and improve their health outcomes. Additionally, the pilot test may reveal areas where the educational initiative can be improved or refined to better meet the needs of patients. Finally, the pilot test will provide valuable feedback and data that can be used to evaluate the success of the educational initiative and make informed decisions about whether to implement it on a larger scale. Overall, a pilot test is an important step in ensuring that the educational initiative is effective and meets the needs of patients with type 2 diabetes.
The staff of a medical unit has agreed to pilot test a new, evidence-based educational initiative that addresses the learning needs of adults who have been recently diagnosed with type 2 diabetes. A pilot test is likely to accomplish several results:
1. Identify strengths and weaknesses of the educational initiative, allowing for improvements to be made before full implementation.
2. Assess the effectiveness of the program in meeting the learning needs of the target population, ensuring that the content is relevant and understandable.
3. Gather feedback from participants to understand their perspectives and preferences, leading to a more patient-centered approach.
4. Determine the feasibility and logistics of implementing the initiative in the medical unit, including necessary resources and potential barriers.
5. Evaluate the impact of the educational initiative on patient outcomes, such as improved self-management of diabetes and better glycemic control, ultimately contributing to better overall health.
By conducting a pilot test, the medical staff can fine-tune the educational initiative and better address the learning needs of adults with type 2 diabetes, leading to more successful outcomes for patients.
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An indemnity is a fee for service plan and provides payment on a service by service basis? True or false
Answer:
True
Explanation:
Indemnity - With an indemnity plan (sometimes called fee-for-service), you can use any medical provider (such as a doctor and hospital). You or the provider sends the bill to the insurance company, which pays part of it. Usually, you have a deductible—such as $200—to pay each year before the insurer starts paying.
Betamethasone effects in newborn if used 24-37 weeks gestation?
Betamethasone in 24-37 weeks gestation reduces newborn's risk of respiratory distress syndrome, intraventricular hemorrhage, and necrotizing enterocolitis.
Betamethasone, a corticosteroid, is administered to pregnant women between 24-37 weeks gestation to enhance fetal lung maturation and reduce the risk of complications in preterm births.
Its primary effect in newborns is the reduction of respiratory distress syndrome, a condition where the infant's lungs struggle to function properly.
Additionally, betamethasone has been shown to decrease the incidence of intraventricular hemorrhage, which is bleeding in the brain, and necrotizing enterocolitis, a severe intestinal condition.
However, it is important to note that betamethasone should only be used under medical supervision, as its inappropriate use may lead to potential adverse effects.
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Patients with posterior column lesions may experience allodynia, which causes pain when applying pressure to various musculoskeletal locations. Or is it more likely that fibromyalgia is to blame for this? How do carbamazepine and gabapentin's clinical success rates compare? How may dissociative sensory loss be detected clinically? How much urograffin is advised to take before undergoing contrast-enhanced computed tomography? When a suspected intracerebral abscess or glial tumour is present, how far in advance should this be supplied before imaging?
Patients with posterior column lesions may experience allodynia, as can those with fibromyalgia. Carbamazepine and gabapentin are both useful drugs for reducing neuropathic pain.
Allodynia, a symptom in which pain occurs with ordinary pressure, is a neurological symptom that may appear in the setting of other medical conditions. Patients with posterior column lesions, for example, are likely to experience allodynia. Fibromyalgia, on the other hand, is a musculoskeletal disorder characterized by chronic widespread pain and tenderness. Patients with fibromyalgia may experience allodynia as well.
Carbamazepine and gabapentin are both effective medications for treating neuropathic pain, with gabapentin having a higher success rate. Pinprick and temperature sensation tests can be used to detect dissociative sensory loss, which is a lack of sensation in response to pinpricks and temperature changes. A patient should consume 1000 ml of urograffin or a comparable contrast agent before undergoing contrast-enhanced computed tomography. Prior to the imaging exam, intravenous dexamethasone, a corticosteroid drug, should be given if a suspected intracerebral abscess or glioma is present.
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which of the following is a characteristic of the intrarenal category of acute renal failure?
Acute renal failure (ARF) is a sudden onset of kidney dysfunction that is characterized by a rapid reduction in glomerular filtration rate (GFR). There are three categories of ARF: prerenal, intrarenal, and postrenal. Each category has its own unique characteristics.
The intrarenal category of ARF is also known as intrinsic renal failure. It occurs due to direct damage to the kidneys' structures, including glomeruli, tubules, interstitium, or blood vessels.One of the primary characteristics of intrarenal ARF is that it results in a decreased ability of the kidneys to filter waste products from the blood. This often leads to a buildup of toxins in the body, which can cause a variety of symptoms, including edema, hypertension, and electrolyte imbalances. Additionally, intrarenal ARF often results in decreased urine output, known as oliguria, or no urine output at all, known as anuria.The causes of intrarenal ARF are varied and can include conditions such as acute tubular necrosis (ATN), glomerulonephritis, acute interstitial nephritis, and renal vasculitis. Diagnosis is often made through clinical presentation, laboratory tests, and imaging studies.In conclusion, intrarenal ARF is characterized by direct damage to the kidneys' structures, leading to a decrease in the kidneys' ability to filter waste products from the blood, oliguria or anuria, and a buildup of toxins in the body.
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What are the Intrarenal causes of acute renal failure?
Rosita is excited about her first day at a physician's office as an administrative medial assistant. Which of the following should Rosita also keep in mind about her physical appearance while working at the office?
The options that should Rosita can also keep in mind about her physical appearance while working at the office is option C: Facial or tongue piercings are unacceptable in most offices.
What is Workplace etiquette about?How you come across to others at work matters whether you are beginning your first internship or have years of work experience under your belt. Building new relationships and ensuring you have a successful, happy experience at work require you to set a professional tone.
Note that In the majority of business and corporate settings, sandals and open-toed (and open-heel) shoes are not seen as appropriate attire Although open-toed shoes and a business suit can look fantastic together, they are nevertheless not accepted in a formal business atmosphere. Piercing of any kind that is visible on the face or body is not acceptable.
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See full question below
Which of the following should Rosita also keep in mind about her physical appearance while working at the office?
Shoes worn should be open-toed.
Name pins and tags need to be visible only when dealing with new patients.
Facial or tongue piercings are unacceptable in most offices.
Why & Who is your model teacher in nursing teaching professional subject/s?
Answer:
A role model is a person who inspires and encourages us to strive for greatness, live to our fullest potential and see the best in ourselves. A role model is someone we admire and someone we aspire to be like. We learn through them, through their commitment to excellence and through their ability to make us realize our own personal growth. We look to them for advice and guidance.
A role model can be anybody: a parent, a sibling, a friend but some of our most influential and life-changing role models are teachers.
Choose the answer.
Which resource can be used to help spell, pronounce, and define medical terms?
Hippocratic dictionary
Hippocratic thesaurus
medical dictionary
medical thesaurus
Answer:
medical dictionary
Explanation:
The resource that can be used to help spell, pronounce, and define medical terms is the medical dictionary.
The medical dictionary contains the lexicon of words that medical practitioners or students use. When there's a medical terms that a person doesn't understand, the medical dictionary can help the student as it gives the meaning of the term.In conclusion, the best option is C.
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the labor room nurse assists with the administration of a lumbar epidural block. how should the nurse check for the major side effect associated with this type of regional anesthesia?
To check for hypotension, the nurse should monitor the patient's blood pressure regularly. If the blood pressure drops, the nurse should take steps to raise it, such as administering fluids or giving medication.
The major side effect associated with the lumbar epidural block is hypotension. This is a drop in blood pressure that can occur when the anesthetic blocks the nerves that control the blood vessels in the lower part of the body.
Other side effects of lumbar epidural block include:
Nerve damage: The needle or catheter used to administer the anesthetic can damage nerves in the lower back. This is a rare complication, but it can cause numbness, tingling, or weakness in the legs.
Headache: A headache can occur if the dura mater, the membrane that surrounds the spinal cord, is punctured during the procedure. This is also a rare complication, but it can be severe.
Allergic reaction: The anesthetic used for the lumbar epidural block can cause an allergic reaction. This is also a rare complication, but it can be serious.
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It is important to check the uniformity of the measured signals always before accepting them. The most important factors to monitor in the signal acceptance window are:
Answer:
The most important factors are the distance between the signal peaks, the location of these peaks and the way the signal is being presented.
Explanation:
The factors presented above are the most important to be presented and monitored through the signal acceptance window. This is because, in addition to presenting extremely important information, these factors are capable of signaling other measurements that will or will not need to be performed on the patient. It is important that at least these three factors are presented in the signal acceptance window, if at least one of them is absent, the measurement will have to be taken again.