what attire is required at all times for the BSCI 223

Answer: Replication

Explanation: When the cell is preparing to divide it will replicate its DNA so that both of the daughter cells will have a complete set of the DNA. It's like a book of instructions and the cell has to perfectly replicate it so that when it splits into two both of the new cells will have a perfectly made copy of it! Hope this helps :)

Question 2

Answer

H2PO4- is a hydrogen-ion donor (acid) and HPO42- is a hydrogen-ion acceptor (base).

Explanation

Given the equation:

Required: Which ion plays the role of hydrogen-ion donor (acid) and which ion plays the role of hydrogen-ion acceptor (base) in PBS?

Solution:

H2PO4- is a hydrogen-ion donor (acid) and HPO4^2- is a hydrogen-ion acceptor (base).

In the equation above, the H2PO4- serves as a hydrogen donor, what happens is that Na2HPO4 dissociates into Na+ and HPO4-, this then results in a molecule being a proton acceptor. Where as in PBS solution, KH2PO4 dissociates into K+ and H2PO4-, this is a proton donor.

Many biological laboratories utilize PBS, a non-toxic solution known as phosphate buffered saline. PBS, unlike water, stops cells from rupturing or shriveling up as a result of osmosis.

It is a salt solution based on water that includes sodium chloride, potassium chloride, and potassium dihydrogen phosphate in some formulations.

The buffer aids in keeping the pH steady. The solutions' osmolarity and ion concentrations are comparable to those found in the human body (isotonic).

As its name suggests, phosphate buffered saline functions as a buffer. In an effort to preserve the cell or tissue sample and preserve the osmolarity of the cells, it works to keep the pH at a neutral level. Additionally, it does not harm cells.

Therefore, Disodium hydrogen phosphate and sodium chloride make up PBS. Potassium phosphate or potassium chloride are both common additions. PBS from Biological is offered in concentrations of 1x or 10x.

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In this procedure, the number of plates needed depends on the number of samples to be taken. Each plate will be labeled and contain a specific sample. The plates will be divided into sections, each containing a different antibiotic disc. The antibiotic discs used will depend on the specific experiment or study being conducted.

1. Determine the number of plates needed based on the number of samples to be taken. Each sample will require a separate plate for analysis.

2. Label each plate with a unique identifier or sample name to keep track of them during the experiment.

3. Divide each plate into sections or quadrants using a sterile technique. This allows for different samples or treatments to be placed on each section.

4. Prepare the agar medium according to the specific experiment's requirements. Agar is a gelatinous substance that provides a solid surface for microbial growth.

5. Pour the prepared agar medium into each labeled plate, ensuring an even distribution and level surface.

6. In each section of the plate, place a different sample or treatment. These samples can be obtained from various sources, such as environmental samples, clinical specimens, or experimental cultures.

7. Ensure that each sample is properly transferred to the corresponding section of the plate using sterile techniques to avoid contamination.

8. Using sterile forceps or a disk dispenser, place antibiotic discs on the surface of each plate in the respective sections. The choice of antibiotic discs will depend on the specific experiment or study objectives. These discs typically contain a known concentration of antibiotics, allowing for testing the susceptibility of microorganisms to different antibiotics.

9. Incubate the plates at the appropriate temperature and conditions required for the growth of the microorganisms being studied. This allows the microorganisms to multiply and form visible colonies.

10. After the incubation period, observe the plates and record the growth patterns and sizes of the bacterial colonies in each section.

By following these steps, the experiment can determine the effects of different antibiotics on various microbial samples and assess their susceptibility to the antibiotics being tested.

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Answer: it has long days

Explanation:

Answer:

An energy pyramid.

Explanation:

Answer:

eukaryotic cells have a nucleus and membrane-bound organelles.  prokaryotic cells have neither.

Explanation:

Answer:Problem Set 4 Answers

1a. The template DNA strand, from which the mRNA is synthesized, is 5’ CAAACTACCCTGGGTTGCCAT 3’

(RNA synthesis proceeds in a 5’ à 3’ direction, so the template strand and the mRNA will be complementary to each other)

b. The coding DNA strand, which is complementary to the template strand, is 5’ ATGGCAACCCAGGGTAGTTTG 3’

c. The sequence of the mRNA is 5’ AUGGCAACCCAGGGUAGUUUG 3’

(the sequence of the mRNA is complementary to the template strand and identical to the coding strand with U substituted for T)

d. The third codon is 5’ ACC 3’.  Therefore, the corresponding anti-codon is 5’ GGU 3’

2. Below is a table for the genetic code:

T

C

A

G

T

TTT Phe (F)

TTC "

TTA Leu (L)

TTG "

TCT Ser (S)

TCC "

TCA "

TCG "

TAT Tyr (Y)

TAC "

TAA Stop

TAG Stop

TGT Cys (C)

TGC "

TGA Stop

TGG Trp (W)

C

CTT Leu (L)

CTC "

CTA "

CTG "

CCT Pro (P)

CCC "

CCA "

CCG "

CAT His (H)

CAC "

CAA Gln (Q)

CAG "

CGT Arg (R)

CGC "

CGA "

CGG "

A

ATT Ile (I)

ATC "

ATA "

ATG Met (M)

ACT Thr (T)

ACC "

ACA "

ACG "

AAT Asn (N)

AAC "

AAA Lys (K)

AAG "

AGT Ser (S)

AGC "

AGA Arg (R)

AGG "

G

GTT Val (V)

GTC "

GTA "

GTG "

GCT Ala (A)

GCC "

GCA "

GCG "

GAT Asp (D)

GAC "

GAA Glu (E)

GAG "

GGT Gly (G)

GGC "

GGA "

GGG "

a. The following codons can be mutated by one base to produce an amber codon:

CAG    Gln

AAG    Lys

GAG    Glu

TCG    Ser

TTG    Leu

TGG    Trp

TAA    Stop

TAT    Tyr

TAC    Tyr

b. From part a, CAG (Gln) and TGG (Trp) can become amber stop codons through EMS.

c. From part b, both of the resulting amber codons could be suppressed by amber nonsense suppressors generated by EMS.

3a. The codon is the three nucleotide sequence in the mRNA that indicates which amino acid should be incorporated in the growing polypeptide chain.  The anticodon is the complementary three nucleotide sequence in the appropriate tRNA.

b. Template strand is the DNA strand off which the mRNA is synthesized.  The coding, or non-template, strand is the DNA strand complementary to the template strand; it has the same sequence (except for T for U substitutions) as the mRNA.

c. The Pribnow box is a sequence of six nucleotides (TATAAT) positioned at -10 that signals where transcription initiation should begin in prokaryotic DNA.  The Shine-Delgarno sequence is a short, purine-rich region in the mRNA that is complementary to the rRNA within the 16S ribosomal subunit.  The sequence signals which AUG acts as the translation start in mRNA.

4a. False, a wobble allows the anticodon in the tRNA to hybridize with different codons in mRNA.

b. False, a frameshift mutation affects all the subsequent amino acids.

c. False, only one codon (AUG) encodes for the start of protein synthesis; three codons signal the end of protein synthesis.

d. False, the wobble is first base (5’ to 3’) in the anticodon.

e. True, RNA can be used as a template for DNA synthesis in a process known as reverse transcription.

f. True.  For example, a single base substitution causing CAT to change to AAT would signal a termination.

g. False, the Wobble Hypothesis explains how alternate base pairing can occur with the first nucleotide (going from 5' to 3') in the anticodon.

5a. Digestion of RNA with alkali will cleave the strand after each 3’ phosphate.  Therefore, the products remaining will consist of pppNp, Np, and N-OH

b. If RNA was synthesized in the 3’ to 5’ direction (i.e. by adding ribonucleotides to the 5’ end), then the pppNp and Np fragments should be labeled with tritium.

c. If RNA was synthesized in the 5’ to 3’ direction (i.e. by adding ribonucleotides to the 3’ end), then the Np and N-OH fragments should be labeled with tritium.

d. Since the N-OH fragments were labeled with tritium, RNA synthesis must occur in a 5' to 3' direction.

6. In a missense mutation, the new nucleotide alters the codon so as to produce an altered amino acid in the protein product.  With a nonsense mutation, the new nucleotide changes a codon that specified an amino acid to one of the stop codons (TAA, TAG, or TGA). Therefore, translation of the messenger RNA transcribed from this mutant gene will stop prematurely.

Explanation:

The complementary strand of  the mentioned DNA strand is AGCTCCGATT.

DNA  is a hereditary material  which is present in human beings as well as all other living organisms.  Every cell which is present in an organism's body has DNA  which is the same. Most of the DNA is situated in the cell's nucleus and small amount of it can be found in the cell's mitochondria as well.

Information which is stored in DNA is stored as codes made up of four chemical bases namely, adenine, thymine , cytosine and guanine.Human DNA consists of 3 billion bases .The order of the bases determines information which is required for building and maintaining an organism.

DNA bases are capable of pairing up with each other. Adenine pairs with thymine and guanine pairs up with cytosine .Each base is also attached to a sugar molecule and a phosphate group. A base, phosphate  sugar are together called as nucleotides.

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Your question is incomplete but most probably your full question  was ,one Strand of DNA is listed below. Which of the following best

represents the complementary strand of DNA?

DNA Strand: TCGAGGCTAA

A. ACGUCCGAUU

B. GATCTTAGCC

C. AGTCCGAUU

D. AGCTCCGATT.

Answer:

GUA

Explanation:

Hello There!

These are the base pairs for transcription

IMPORTANT

when transcribing; Adenine transcribes to Uracil not Thymine

so it would be

Adenine to Uracil

Thymine to Adenine

Cytosine to Guanine

Guanine to cytosine

so we want to find the mRNA codon of the dna sequence CAT

Cytosine to Guanine (G)

Adenine to Uracil (U)

Thymine to Adenine (A)

your answer is GUA

The nervous, endocrine, respiratory, cardiovascular, renal, digestive, and integumentary systems all play a major role in maintaining homeostasis.

Homeostasis refers to the body's ability to maintain a stable internal environment despite external changes. Several organ systems work together to maintain homeostasis.

The following are the organ systems that play a major role in homeostasis:

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Answer:

According to Cochran, these sensors become temporary seismic stations, enabling scientists to automatically monitor and retrieve data from six months to a year after an earthquake. Therefore, scientist can detect earthquake through information collected from the last earthquake.

Explanation:

Answer:

Dr. Cochran has invented a device to use on any laptop to detect an earthquake. This device can warn people about earthquakes immediately. These detectors are inexpensive and work on any computer. Scientists can create more of these sensors and distribute them to all residents in earthquake-prone areas. The sensors would let people know about earthquakes so they could go somewhere safe without wasting time.

Explanation:

Edmentum answer (:

Answer:

=A substance.

.............

Answer:

Due to Kinetic energy

Explanation:

At low temperatures enzymes are simply inactive. As temperature is increased the enzymes and substrate gain kinetic energy

Answer:

Volcanic Eruption

Explanation:

(I also know because I took the quiz) The volcano is the one that rapidly changes. It can erupt any time.

Forest Succession is slower than a volcanic eruption. It might take years for the trees in a forest to grow and for the population of animals to get there. It has to be just right, it needs all the plants and animals for it to be a forest, well not all of it but most of it.

Decomposition is also slower than a volcanic eruption.

Tree growth takes a long time. It might not even be a full tree until years later. It also takes time and water.

Answer: volcanic eruption

Explanation:

if anyone needs the other answer here you go

the other answers will be on my quizlet

aniyaboykin6

Answer: bleeding

Explanation: because low platelets means the pt will have slow or no clotting factors which will cause them to continue bleeding when they have a cut.

A nurse is admitting a infant who has leukemia and a severely low platelet count then bleeding is the precautions the nurse ought to initiate. accurate alternative is B. Bleeding.

There are 3 foremost styles of bleeding: arterial, venous, and capillary bleeding. Arterial bleeding happens withinside the arteries, which delivery blood from the coronary heart to the body. Venous bleeding takes place withinside the veins, which convey blood lower back to the heart. Capillary bleeding takes area withinside the capillaries, which are tiny blood vessels that join the arteries to the veins.

Bleeding from the arteries and veins may be severe. When this happens, it is important for someone to acquire instantaneously scientific interest. However, capillary bleeding is the maximum not unusualplace form of bleeding, and it's far typically easy Trusted Source to govern via the utility of strain. Applying strain also can assist with arterial and venous bleeding, at least initially. However, human beings want instantaneously scientific interest in those cases.

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Answer: intraspecific competition

hopes this helps.

Answer:

A. Interspecific is my best guess.

Explanation:

“Inter” means inside, so I’m guessing it would relate to the organisms being of the same species. “Intra” means outside. And invasive just doesn’t make any sense.

Answer: Movement, breathing or respiration, excretion, growth, sensitivity and reproduction.

Explanation: "There are seven characteristics of living things: movement, breathing or respiration, excretion, growth, sensitivity and reproduction. Some non-living things may show one or two of these characteristics but living things show all seven characteristics."

Hope it helps <3

Answer:

responsiveness to the environment;

growth and change;

ability to reproduce;

have a metabolism and breathe;

maintain homeostasis;

being made of cells; and.

passing traits onto offspring.

Matter is anything that has mass and takes up space. There are different types of matter, including solids, liquids, gases, and plasma. Classification of matter depends on their composition, structure, and properties.

The classification of matter is significant in chemistry because it allows chemists to categorize materials and understand their behavior. One classification of matter includes materials that cannot be identified by their individual properties, which is known as a mixture. A mixture is made up of two or more substances that are physically combined but not chemically combined.

Mixtures can be classified into two categories: homogeneous mixtures and heterogeneous mixtures. Homogeneous mixtures are uniform throughout, while heterogeneous mixtures are non-uniform throughout. Mixtures can be separated through physical methods, such as filtration, distillation, and chromatography. In summary, the classification of matter includes mixtures that cannot be identified by their individual properties.

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The biological species idea, which is the definition of a species that is most frequently used, states that a species is indeed a group of creatures that has the potential to interbreed or mate with one another in order to generate live, fertile offspring.

A group of microorganisms that may interbreed and produce fertile offspring is referred to as a species. a collection of related creatures that can mate and have fruitful offspring. (Biological science) the ability to conceive naturally or artificially and produce babies. the quality of being fertile and capable of having children. The biological species idea, which is the definition of a species that is most frequently used, states that a species is indeed a group of creatures that has the potential to interbreed or mate with one another in order to generate live, fertile offspring.The number of live births per 1,000 people per year in a given area in relation to its population Without regard to age, one can refer to a parent's children as "minor children," "adult children," "baby children," as well as "teenage children" according to their ages. Male children are referred to as sons, and female children as daughters (see kinship).

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Answer:

They increase the amount of carbon in the atmosphere

Explanation:

Carbon is usually introduced into the atmosphere in a gaseous form. The atmosphere is the gaseous envelope round the earth.

When animals respire, they take up food materials from plants and other sources. They then metabolically break it down.

Oxygen is needed for respiration and in turn, the waste product is usually carbon dioxide.

So, respiration by animals releases carbon dioxide as a by product.

A. The removal of otter populations off the coast of the Aleutian Islands in the 19th century had detrimental effects on the urchin and kelp populations, as well as the diverse array of species inhabiting the kelp forests.

Otters are natural predators of sea urchins, and their removal led to a rapid increase in the urchin populations. The thriving urchins overgrazed the kelp, resulting in significant damage to the kelp populations. As kelp serves as a critical habitat and food source for numerous species, the decline in kelp availability had a cascading effect on the entire ecosystem. The reduction in suitable habitats caused a negative impact on the populations of hundreds of other species residing in the kelp forests, potentially leading to declines, disruptions in species interactions, and even local extinctions.

The absence of otters not only affected the direct relationship between urchins and kelp but also disrupted the intricate web of species interactions within the ecosystem. Various species, such as fish, crustaceans, marine birds, and marine mammals, rely on the kelp forests for food, shelter, and breeding grounds. The removal of otters likely resulted in altered predator-prey dynamics, changes in species abundances, and shifts in community structure, which could have far-reaching consequences for the entire ecosystem.

In summary, the removal of otters in the 19th century off the coast of the Aleutian Islands had significant impacts on the urchin and kelp populations, as well as the diverse array of species residing in the kelp forests. The repercussions included overgrazing of kelp by proliferating urchins, disruptions in species interactions, and potential declines or local extinctions of numerous species that depend on the kelp forests for their survival.

B. If an otter population were removed in an area that had populations of sheephead and spiny lobster, the consequences for the kelp forest and its inhabitants would be significant.

Otters, sheephead, and spiny lobsters all consume urchins as part of their diet. With the removal of otters, the urchin populations would likely increase without their natural predator to keep them in check. The rising urchin populations would then intensify their grazing on kelp, similar to the situation in the Aleutian Islands. This excessive grazing would lead to the degradation of the kelp forest, resulting in reduced habitat availability and food resources for other species.

In the absence of otters, the populations of sheephead and spiny lobster, which also feed on urchins, might be affected differently. Initially, their populations could benefit from the increased food supply due to the booming urchin populations. However, this would likely be short-lived as the kelp forest declines. The loss of kelp habitat would eventually lead to reduced prey availability, affecting the sheephead and spiny lobster populations.

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Answer:

Breed it to a Smooth haired

Explanation:

If you breed it with a smooth haired dog. The smooth haired dog genotype would be ww and then when you breed it if you get some smooth haired dogs then you know that the wire haired gene in your wire haired dog is Ww whereas if you only get wire haired then you know that it has a WW genotype.

All the given events induce(s) the cardiac centers to call for an increase in cardiac output.

E is the correct answer.

Numerous signalling mechanisms, such as the stimulation of sympathetic tone, the release of catecholamines, and the movement of thyroid hormone, can increase cardiac output.

The elevated heart rate and somewhat elevated stroke volume are both responsible for the rise in cardiac output. Reduced parasympathetic activity of the SA node and increased sympathetic activity are the causes of the rise in heart rate.

Aspects that impact heart rate and stroke volume are among those that have an impact on cardiac output. Exercise, the autonomic nervous system, hormones, and body temperature are some of these variables.

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Answer:

Approximately the number of individuals with each phenotype is:

Explanation:

Available data:

Let us say that the two diallelic genes are R (alleles R and r) and S (alleles S and s)

Heterozygous parents might have the following genotype RS / rs  

We know that there are 12mp between genes, which means that the recombination frequency equals 0.12 or 12%.

0.12 of the gametes are recombinants and 0.88 are parentals. There are two types of parentals and two types of recombinant, so 0.06 + 0.06 are recombinants while 0.44 + 0.44 are parentals. This is:

Cross:

Parentals)      RS/rs     x     RS/rs

Gametes)    RS (parental) 0.44

                   rs (parental) 0.44

                   Rs (Recombinant) 0.06

                   rS (Recombinant) 0.06

Punnet square)         RS           rs             Rs             rS

                      RS    RS/RS      RS/rs      RS/Rs        RS/rS

                      rs      RS/rs       rs/rs       Rs/rs          rS/rs

                      Rs     RS/Rs      rs/Rs       Rs/Rs        rS/Rs

                      rS     RS/rS        rs/rS       Rs/rS          rS/rS

F1) Genotypes:

Phenotypes:

Now, to know how many individuals would occur in each phenotypic category, you just need to multiply it by 1000, that is the total number of individuals

The date of burial is unknown. The predicted age, and ancestry of the victim are adult male, Caucasian/European, and unknown, respectively.

Burial is the act of placing a deceased person in the ground, typically in a cemetery. It is a funeral rite that is part of many cultures and religions, and is often a way to honor the deceased and provide a sense of closure. Depending on the culture, burial may involve a variety of customs, such as a funeral service or special clothing.

There is evidence of trauma, as seen in the bullet wound in the deceased's chest. There is evidence of disease, as seen in the presence of dental caries. The evidence suggests that the cause of death was homicide due to the bullet wound. The historical background of the case is unknown. Based on the evidence, it is likely that the deceased was a Caucasian/European male adult who died as the result of a gunshot wound.

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The genotype is the allele combination, while the phenotype is the expression of a trait coded by genes. 1) Phenotype, 2) Yellow - Dominant, 3) Capital letter - lowercase letter, 4) Heterozygous, 5) Homozygous, 6) Genotype, 7) Phenotype, 8) Variation.

When talking about genotype we refer to allele combination in an organism concerning a gene coding for a trait. This gene can be diallelic or multiallelic.

Individuals can be either homozygous or heterozygous.

Usually, dominant alleles are represented with a capital letter, while recessive alleles are represented with a lowercase.

The phenotype is how an organism expresses or evidences a feature. It is the expression of a gene that codes for a trait.

It refers to the organism's observable physical, biochemical, or behavioral characteristics.

The phenotype is influenced by the individual's genotype and the action of the environment. It depends on how many genes are involved in the feature expression, the interaction among them, and the inheritance pattern.

1) Phenotype

2) Yellow - Dominant

3) Capital letter - lowercase letter

4) Heterozygous

5) Homozygous

6) Genotype

7) Phenotype

8) Variation

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Answer:

Whats the question? There isn't a question

The "adaptor" molecule that Francis Crick hypothesized to link amino acids to mRNA is actually a type of RNA known as transfer RNA (tRNA).

The correct answer is option c.

tRNA is responsible for transferring specific amino acids to the growing polypeptide chain during protein synthesis. Each tRNA molecule has a specific anticodon sequence that binds to the complementary codon sequence on mRNA, which helps to ensure that the correct amino acid is added to the polypeptide chain.

tRNA also has a binding site for the corresponding amino acid, which it carries to the ribosome where protein synthesis occurs. In this way, tRNA plays a crucial role in translating the genetic code from mRNA into the sequence of amino acids that make up proteins.

While DNA and proteins are also involved in protein synthesis, it is tRNA that acts as the key adaptor molecule in linking amino acids to mRNA.

Therefore, option c is correct.

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The shape and orientation of the bones at the joint affect the joint's stability by determining the range of motion allowed by the joint. For example, the hip joint is a ball-and-socket joint, which allows for a wide range of motion but also makes it more susceptible to dislocation.

The strength and elasticity of the surrounding tissues also play a role in joint stability. Ligaments are strong, fibrous tissues that connect bones to each other and provide stability to the joint. Tendons connect muscles to bones and help control joint movement. Cartilage provides a smooth surface for bones to glide over and also absorbs shock.

The hip bone, also known as the coxal bone or pelvic bone, is a large, flat bone that forms part of the pelvis in humans and other vertebrates. The hip bone is actually made up of three fused bones: the ilium, ischium, and pubis.

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DNA replication and cell replication both ate different but are connected to each other

in DNA replication the amount of genetic material become double but in cell division a cell divided into two parts and amount of protoplasm and cytoplasm both get half

Answer:

The first part states that all organisms are made of cells. The second part states that cells are the basic units of life. These parts were based on a conclusion made by Schwann and Matthias Schleiden in 1838, after comparing their observations of plant and animal cells. The third part, which asserts that cells come from preexisting cells that have multiplied, was described by Rudolf Virchow in 1858, when he stated omnis cellula e cellula (all cells come from cells).

Explanation: