Newtons laws of motion are three, first law, second law and third.
What are Newton's law of motion?Newton's law of motion are three and they include the following;
Newton's frist law of motion, it states that an object at rest or uniform motion in a strainght line will continue in that state unless an external force act on them.
Newton's second law of motion, states that the force applied to an object is proprotional to the product of mass and accelertion of the object.
Newton's third law of motion states that force every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction.
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On a 100km track , a train travels the first 30km with a speed of 30km/h . How fast the train travel the next 70 km if the average speed for the entire journey is 40km/h?
Answer:
v = 46.67 km/h
Explanation:
We will use the following formula throughout this numerical:
s = vt
where,
s = distance covered
v = speed
t = time taken
FOR FIRST 30 km:
s = 30 km
v = 30 km/h
t = t₃₀ = ?
Therefore,
30 km = (30 km/h)(t₃₀)
t₃₀ = (30 km)/(30 km/h)
t₃₀ = 1 h
FOR TOTAL 100 km:
s = 100 km
v = 40 km/h (Average Speed)
t = total time = ?
Therefore,
100 km = (40 km/h)(t)
t = (100 km)/(40 km/h)
t = 2.5 h
FOR LAST 70 km:
s = 70 km
t₇₀ = t - t₃₀ = 2.5 h - 1 h = 1.5 h
v = v₇₀ = ?
Therefore,
70 km = v(1.5 h)
v = 70 km/1.5 h
v = 46.67 km/h
PLEASE ANSWER ASAP! It would be EXTREMELY appreciated if you could answer both. These are free responses, so try to make your answer somewhat original. Thanks in advance! And I will mark brainliest!
**100 points** PLEASE ANSWER IN 3 PARAGRAPHS
How do centripetal force, mass, and radius affect the velocity of an object moving with uniform circular motion?
Answer:
In the previous section, we defined circular motion. The simplest case of circular motion is uniform circular motion, where an object travels a circular path at a constant speed. Note that, unlike speed, the linear velocity of an object in circular motion is constantly changing because it is always changing direction. We know from kinematics that acceleration is a change in velocity, either in magnitude or in direction or both. Therefore, an object undergoing uniform circular motion is always accelerating, even though the magnitude of its velocity is constant.
You experience this acceleration yourself every time you ride in a car while it turns a corner. If you hold the steering wheel steady during the turn and move at a constant speed, you are executing uniform circular motion. What you notice is a feeling of sliding (or being flung, depending on the speed) away from the center of the turn. This isn’t an actual force that is acting on you—it only happens because your body wants to continue moving in a straight line (as per Newton’s first law) whereas the car is turning off this straight-line path. Inside the car it appears as if you are forced away from the center of the turn. This fictitious force is known as the centrifugal force. The sharper the curve and the greater your speed, the more noticeable this effect becomes.
Figure 6.7 shows an object moving in a circular path at constant speed. The direction of the instantaneous tangential velocity is shown at two points along the path. Acceleration is in the direction of the change in velocity; in this case it points roughly toward the center of rotation. (The center of rotation is at the center of the circular path). If we imagine Δs becoming smaller and smaller, then the acceleration would point exactly toward the center of rotation, but this case is hard to draw. We call the acceleration of an object moving in uniform circular motion the centripetal acceleration ac because centripetal means center seeking.
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according to huygens' principle, every point on a wave question 1 options: is a diffraction source. behaves as a source of new waves. is the superposition of every other part of the wave. all of these
Every point on a wave acts as a generator of new waves in accordance with Huygens' principle.
Option b is correct.
What does wave theory's Huygens principle entail?According to Huygens' principle, any point on a wave front can be thought of as a source of secondary waves. The superposition of two waves is referred to as interference, whereas interference caused by several waves is referred to as diffraction.
Is refraction subject to the Huygens principle?All waves, including those in water, sound, and light, can be explained by Huygens's principle. It helps explain the rules of reflection and refraction in addition to how light waves travel through space.
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how is gas different from liquid?
Answer:
Gas is different from liquid. Liquid has a definite volume but takes the shape of the container it is in. Gas on the other hand, has no definite shape or volume.
Explanation:
when electromagnetic radiation (e.g., light) is doppler-shifted by motion of the source away from the detector the
When electromagnetic radiation is Doppler-shifted by motion away from the detector, the observed wavelength increases.
What causes Doppler shift effect?When an object emitting electromagnetic radiation, such as light, is moving away from an observer (detector), the wavelengths of the observed radiation are stretched or increased.
This phenomenon is known as the Doppler shift. It occurs because the motion of the source affects the perceived frequency or wavelength of the radiation. When the source is moving away, the observed wavelength is longer compared to the emitted wavelength.
This effect can be observed in various contexts, such as the redshift observed in the light from distant galaxies, indicating their recession from us due to the expansion of the universe.
Additionally, it is relevant in understanding the behavior of stars, galaxies, and other astronomical objects. By analyzing the Doppler shift, scientists can infer important information about the motion and velocity of celestial objects.
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The following is a partial chemical equation:
? → CO2 + 2H20
What can you infer about the reactants in this reaction?
A. The reactants include 2 carbon dioxide molecules and 1 water
molecule.
B. The reactants include 1 carbon dioxide molecule and 2 water
molecules.
O C. The reactants include 1 carbon atom, 2 oxygen atoms, and 2 water
molecules.
D. The reactants include 1 carbon atom, 4 oxygen atoms, and 4
hydrogen atoms.
Answer:
Option D
Explanation:
A chemical reaction, in general, has two sides. A reactant side, and a a product side.
The products of a chemical reaction doesn't necessarily have the compounds of the reactants, in fact, it usually begins with different compounds to form another compound. This is actually what makes sense of a chemical reaction.
But, a chemical reaction needs to be balanced, which means that no matter what compound or element we have in the reactants, we should have the same number of atoms and element on each side of the reaction.
Now, according to the given chemical reaction, the products of this reaction are CO₂ and H₂O. You can also see that the water molecule has a number 2, behind the compound. This number represents, chemically speaking, number of moles of the compound, but it also tell us another information and its the fact that this number multiply the number of atoms of the compound. So, if we have 2H₂O, then we actually have 2 atoms of oxygen, and 4 atoms of hydrogen.
In the case of CO₂, we only have 1 atom of carbon and 2 atoms of oxygen. The information we can get from this, and according to the above explanation, we should have in the reactants, one or more compounds that have in its inner structure, Carbon, oxigen and hydrogen; it doesn't necessarily mean that it should be one compound at once, it could be 2 or more compounds, but these elements have to be in there.
How many atoms of each element? We said it before, a chemical reaction needs to be balanced, so if we have in the products, 2 atoms of Carbon, 4 atoms of hydrogen and 4 atoms of oxygen (2 from the CO₂ and 2 from the water), then in the reactants, we need to have 4 atoms of hydrogen and oxygen, and 1 atom of Carbon at least.
The correct option should be D.
Hope this helps
6. A suitcase weighing 120 N sits on a counter 1.8 m high
in the airport. How much gravitational potential
energy does it have?
Answer:
216 J
Explanation:
h = 1.8
a = 9.8
m = 12.2
GPE = HAM = 216
The gravitational potential energy of a suitcase weighing 120 N sits on a counter 1.8 m high in the airport is 216 Joules.
What is Gravitational Potential Energy?Gravitational potential energy is the energy which is present inside the body of an object which is at rest. This energy is transformed into kinetic energy as soon as the object changes its state of rest to motion.
The gravitational potential energy of an object can be calculated through the formula:
GPE = m × g × h
where, GPE = Gravitational Potential Energy,
m = mass of the object,
h = height covered by the object
w = m × g
where, w = weight of the object
So, the gravitational potential energy of the object is:
GPE = 120 × 1.8
GPE = 216 Joules
Therefore, the gravitational potential energy of the suitcase is 216 Joules.
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you do no know an objects velocity until you know its _____.
In a regression analysis, if sse = 200 and ssr = 300, then the coefficient of determination is:_________
0.600
In a regression analysis, if sse = 200 and ssr = 300, then the coefficient of determination is: 0.600
1. You have that the data set having SSR=300 and SSE=200
2. Therefore you have the coefficient of determination is:
r²=SSR/SSTO
SSTO=SSR+SSE
3. Then, when you substitute the values, you obtain:
SSTO=200+300
SSTO=500
r²=300/500
4. So, you have that the result is:
r²=0.6
As a result, as you can see, the solution to the previous exercise is that the coefficient of determination is 0.6
What exactly is the connection between SST, SSR, and SSE?The difference between SST and SSR is the amount of Y's variability that is still unaccounted for after using the regression model, also known as the sum of squared errors (SSE). Sum of squares of residual can be used to directly calculate SSE.To learn more about regression analysis visit:
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An object has three forces acting upon it, the first force is 58.2 N to the right and the second force is 14.0 N to the left. What is the magnitude of the third force, such that the object travels at a constant velocity? Answer in units of N and be sure to include all necessary work, as well as a free body diagram.
Help Please!
Answer:
44.2 N towards left
or
-44.2 N towards right
Explanation:
pls refer attachment for detailed solution
the density of a material is the mass per volume of 'one piece' of the material. the bulk density of the same material is...
While the density of a material refers to the mass per volume of one piece, the bulk density refers to the mass per unit volume of a larger sample or bulk quantity of the material.
The bulk density of a material refers to the mass per unit volume of a large quantity or a bulk sample of the material. It takes into account the overall volume occupied by multiple pieces or particles of the material.
Unlike the density of a single piece of the material, which considers the mass and volume of an individual unit, the bulk density considers the collective mass and volume of a larger sample that contains multiple pieces or particles.
It provides an average measure of the material's density when it is present in a larger quantity or in bulk form.
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kinetic energy is _____ proportional to the ____ velocity
directly amount
directly square
directly cube
inversely square
Answer:
Kinetic energy is DIRECTLY PROPORTIONAL TO MASS AND VELOCITY
Explain why heavy things and light things hit the ground at the same time ?
Answer:
GRavity
Explanation:
We want to look at a number of thermodynamic transitions and see how much heat and work they produce. In all cases, the system considered is n
moles of an ideal gas with a specific heat of c~. All transitions are reversible. (a) The system starts at a temperature T and entropy Si, and goes isothermally to the state with temperature T and entropy S2. What is the work done and the heat produced? Express your answer in terms of T, S1, S, & and n (you
may or may not need all of these quantities). (b) The system starts at a temperature T1 and entropy S, and goes at constant entropy to the state with temperature T2 and entropy S. What is the work done and the the heat produced? Express your answer in terms of Th, T2, S, co
and n (you may or may not need all of these quantities).
:(a) The work done during the isothermal transition is zero, and the heat produced is Q = T(S2 - S1). (b) The work done during the constant-entropy transition is W = n(coT2 - ThT1), and the heat produced is Q = nTh(T2 - T1).
What are the work done and heat produced during the given thermodynamic transitions?(a) During an isothermal transition of an ideal gas from temperature T and entropy S1 to temperature T and entropy S2, the work done is zero. This is because the volume change during the transition occurs at a constant temperature, resulting in no net work.
The heat produced during this transition can be calculated using the formula Q = T(S2 - S1), where T is the temperature and S2 and S1 are the entropies at the respective states.
(b) In a constant-entropy transition of an ideal gas from temperature T1 and entropy S to temperature T2 and entropy S, the work done can be determined using the formula W = n(coT2 - ThT1), where n is the number of moles of the gas, co is the specific heat, and Th is the absolute temperature. The heat produced during this transition can be calculated using the formula Q = nTh(T2 - T1).
the calculations involved in determining the work done and heat produced during different thermodynamic transitions of an ideal gas.
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scientists are concerned about the decrease in ozone is allowing more ultraviolet. (True or False)
The given statement "scientists are concerned about the decrease in ozone is allowing more ultraviolet" is true because ozone is a molecule made up of three oxygen atoms that exist in the Earth's atmosphere. It's a form of oxygen that absorbs almost all of the Sun's harmful ultraviolet light.
Ultraviolet rays are very harmful to humans, causing skin cancer, immune system breakdowns, and cataracts in the eyes. When the ozone layer is damaged or thinned, it can allow more ultraviolet rays to penetrate the atmosphere, which is why scientists are so concerned about ozone depletion.What are the impacts of ozone depletion?It is estimated that a 1% reduction in the ozone layer increases the incidence of non-melanoma skin cancer by 2%.A decrease of 10% in the ozone layer may result in a 20% increase in the incidence of skin cancer.The thinning of the ozone layer may result in a decrease in plant production, which may result in food supply shortages.A decrease in ozone may have an impact on phytoplankton, which play a crucial role in ocean food webs. These tiny creatures consume carbon dioxide and produce half of the world's oxygen. As phytoplankton numbers decline, ocean ecosystems may change, affecting everything from fish populations to weather patterns.
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A ball of mass 0.5 kg is swinging at a small angle from a light string of length 0.25 m. What is the period of this pendulum? Round answer to two significant digits.
Answer: 1.0
Explanation:
not sure why but that is the correct answer
Answer:
1.0
Explanation:
Correct answer on Khan Academy
A solenoid with 372 turns per meter and a diameter of 17.9 cm has a magnetic flux through its core of magnitude 1.27x10^-4 Tm^2
A) find the current in this solenoid
B) how would answer A change in the solenoid were doubled? Explain.
A) The current in the solenoid is 0.22 A. B) If the solenoid were doubled, the current would remain the same.
A) The magnetic flux through the solenoid is given by Φ = μ₀n²πr²I, where μ₀ is the permeability of free space, n is the number of turns per unit length, r is the radius of the solenoid, and I is the current.
Solving for I, we get I = Φ/(μ₀n²πr²)
= (1.27x10⁻⁴ Tm²)/(4πx10⁻⁷ TmA⁻¹x372²/m²x(0.179/2)²m²)
= 0.22 A.
B) Doubling the solenoid would double the number of turns per unit length (n) and the radius (r), but the magnetic flux would remain the same.
Therefore, using the same equation as before, we see that the current would remain unchanged, since the increase in n and r would cancel each other out.
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pls help me with this question I need it by Monday thanks Q1 and 2
1) current
2) in series
3) voltage
4) In parallel
How are ammeters and voltmeters connected?Ammeters are connected in series with the component or part of the circuit being measured, so that the entire current flows through the ammeter. This means that the ammeter must have a very low resistance, so that it does not significantly alter the current being measured. Typically, ammeters have a built-in shunt resistor to achieve this low resistance.
On the other hand, voltmeters are connected in parallel with the component or part of the circuit being measured, so that they measure the voltage across the component or part. This means that the voltmeter must have a very high resistance, so that it does not draw significant current from the circuit and alter the voltage being measured. Typically, voltmeters have a built-in series resistor to achieve this high resistance.
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In fair weather, the electric field in the air at a particular location immediately above the Earth's surface is 120 N/C directed downward. (a) What is the surface charge density on the ground? Is it positive or negative? (b) Imagine the surface charge density is uniform over the planet. What then is the charge of the whole surface of the Earth? (c) What is the Earth's electric potential due to this charge? (d) What is the difference in potential between the head and the feet of a person 1.75 m tall? (Ignore any charges in the atmosphere.) (e) Imagine the Moon, with 27.3% of the radius of the Earth, had a charge 27.3% as large, with the same sign. Find the electric force the Earth would then exert on the Moon. (f) State how the answer to part (e) compares with the gravitational force the Earth exerts on the Moon.
Answer:
a. 1.062 × 10⁻⁹ C/m² b. 5.472 × 10⁵ C c. 7.685 × 10⁹ V d. -210.12 V e. 4.972 × 10³ N f. F the electric force is much less than the gravitational force F₁ of the earth on the moon.
Explanation:
a. The surface charge density D = ε₀E where E = 120 N/C
D = ε₀E = 8.854 × 10⁻¹² F/m × 120 N/C = 1.062 × 10⁻⁹ C/m²
The charge density is positive since the electric field is positive or directed downwards. Only a positive charge could direct an electric field out of itself.
b. Since the surface charge density is uniform over the planet and charge, Q = DA where A = area of earth = 4πr² where r = radius of earth = 6.4 × 10⁶ m.
So Q = DA
= 1.063 × 10⁻⁹ C/m² × 4π × (6.4 × 10⁶ m)²
= 5.4715 × 10⁵ C
≅ 5.472 × 10⁵ C
c. The earth's electric potential due to this charge Q is V = Q/4πε₀r
= 5.472 × 10⁵ C ÷ (4π × 8.854 × 10⁻¹² F/m × 6.4 × 10⁶ m)
= 5.472 × 10⁵ C ÷ 712.081 × 10⁻⁶ F
= 0.07685 × 10¹¹ V
= 7.685 × 10⁹ V
= 7.685 GV
d. Since V = Q/4πε₀r, and we are going to be dealing with a small change in length compared to r, we differentiate V to get the differential change in potential.
So, dV/dr = -Q/4πε₀r²
dV = -Qdr/4πε₀r² ,dr = 1.75 m
dV = -5.472 × 10⁵ C × 1.75 m ÷ [4π × 8.854 × 10⁻¹² F/m × (6.4 × 10⁶ m)²]
dV = -9.576 × 10⁵ Cm ÷ 4557.318 Fm
dV = -210.124 V
dV ≅ -210.12 V
e. Let Q₁ = charge on moon and Q₂ = charge on earth. Given that Q₁ = 0.273Q₂, the force of attraction between earth and moon is F = Q₁Q₂/4πε₀R² where R = distance between earth and moon = 3.844 × 10⁸ m
F = Q₁Q₂/4πε₀R²
= 0.273Q²/4πε₀R²
= 0.273 × (5.472 × 10⁵ C)²/ [4π × 8.854 × 10⁻¹² F/m × (3.844 × 10⁸ m)²]
= 8.1744 × 10¹⁰ C²/1644.054 Fm × 10⁴
= 0.004972 × 10⁶ N
= 4.972 × 10³ N
= 4.972 kN
f. The gravitational force between earth and moon F₁ = Gm₁m₂/R² where m₁ = mass of moon = 7.3 × 10²² kg and m₂ = mass of earth = 5.97 × 10²⁴ kg.
F₁ = 6.67 × 10⁻¹¹ Nm²/kg² × 5.97 × 10²⁴ kg × 7.3 × 10²² kg/(3.844 × 10⁸ m)²
= 290.685 × 10³⁵ Nm²/14.776 × 10¹⁶ m²
= 19.67 × 10¹⁹ N
= 1.967 × 10²⁰ N
≅ 2 × 10²⁰ N
Since F₁/F = 1.967 × 10²⁰ N/4.972 × 10³ N = 3.95 × 10¹⁶ ≅ 4 × 10¹⁶.
F the electric force is much less than the gravitational force F₁ of the earth on the moon.
A sample of lead is heated up to a temperature of 100°C and then placed in a sample of water with an initial temperature of 5°C. If the mixture is thermally isolated from its surroundings, then it:
exchanges no thermal energy with the environment outside the system as it comes to a final temperature.
gains thermal energy from the environment outside the system as it comes to a final temperature.
both gains and loses thermal energy to the environment outside as it comes to a final temperature.
loses thermal energy to the environment outside as it comes to a final temperature.
None of these choices are correct.
If the mixture is thermally isolated from its surroundings, then it, loses thermal energy to the environment outside as it comes to a final temperature. The correct answer is d.
When the sample of lead is placed in the water, heat will flow from the lead to the water until they reach a common final temperature. Since the final temperature will be less than the initial temperature of the lead, heat must have flowed out of the lead into the surroundings, causing the lead to lose thermal energy to the environment outside the system.
Since the mixture is thermally isolated from its surroundings, no thermal energy is exchanged between the system (lead and water) and the environment during the process. However, heat can still flow within the system itself until thermal equilibrium is reached. Option d is correct.
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State government approves a series of grants to fund job training. Which of the following is a negative externality? (5 points
Businesses would not necessarily increase hiring rates.
Economic recession would result in a backlog of applicants.
Money for conservation efforts would be eliminated.
The state would have to provide child care for parents in training.
None of the options listed is a negative externality. A negative externality is an unintended consequence of an economic activity that affects a third party who is not directly involved in the activity.
If I were to choose: Businesses would not necessarily increase hiring rates.
This could be considered a negative externality because the grant funding is intended to fund job training in order to increase employment opportunities, but if businesses do not increase their hiring rates despite having a pool of trained workers, then the intended benefit of the grant may not be fully realized. This could result in a loss of resources and a missed opportunity to address unemployment in the community.
A ball is dropped from the roof of the A200 building. How fast is a traveling 0.5 seconds later?
ANYTHING that's dropped near the Earth's surface and isn't affected by air resistance falls 9.8 m/s faster at any time than it did 1 second earlier.
0.5 second after it was dropped with zero speed, it's falling at
(0.5) x (9.8 m/s) = 4.9 m/s .
It makes no difference which building it was dropped from.
you move an 8-newton weight five meters in 4 seconds. how much power have you generated?
By moving an 8-newton weight a distance of 5 meters in 4 seconds. you have generated 10 watts of power.
Power is defined as the rate at which work is done or energy is transferred. In this scenario, you have moved an 8-newton weight a distance of 5 meters in 4 seconds. To calculate the power generated, we can use the formula:
Power = Work / Time
The work done can be calculated using the formula:
Work = Force × Distance
In this case, the force is 8 newtons and the distance is 5 meters. Plugging these values into the formula, we get:
Work = 8 N × 5 m = 40 Joules
Now, we can calculate the power:
Power = Work / Time = 40 J / 4 s = 10 Watts
Therefore, you have generated 10 watts of power by moving the 8-newton weight a distance of 5 meters in 4 seconds.
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The roof on a shed is a square-based pyramid. if the base has a side length of 10 feet and the slant height of the roof is 9.4 feet, find the area of the roof.
If the base has a side length of 10 feet and the slant height of the roof is 9.4, then the area of the roof is 159.2 square feet.
To find the area of the roof, we need to determine the area of each of the four triangular faces.
We know that the base of each triangle is 10 feet, and the slant height is 9.4 feet. To find the height of the triangle, we can use the Pythagorean theorem:
h = √(slant height^2 - base length^2/4)
h = √(9.4^2 - 10^2/4)
h = √(88.36 - 25)
h = √63.36
h = 7.96 feet
Now that we know the height of the triangle, we can find the area of each face:
Area of one face = 1/2(base x height)
Area of one face = 1/2(10 x 7.96)
Area of one face = 39.8 square feet
Since there are four faces, the total area of the roof is:
Total area = 4 x 39.8
Total area = 159.2 square feet
Therefore, the area of the roof is 159.2 square feet.
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An individual electron can be thought of as a spinning sphere of negative charge. A charged spinning sphere will generate a magnetic field, whose direction is indicated by the magnetic moment of the object, vector mu. In what direction will the electron rotate, based on the direction of its magnetic moment and the direction of the uniform magnetic field that it is immersed in?
Answer:
based on the direction of its magnetic moment and the direction of the uniform magnetic field that it is immersed in, the electron will rotate in a clockwise direction
Select the correct answer. when do sea breezes occur? a. daytime b. nighttime
c. both day and night d. at thermal equilibrium
The sea breezes occur during the day when land surfaces heats up faster than water surfaces.
The cooler air above the water is moving across the surface of the land to replace the rising heated air as it rises over the land is called sea breezes.
Sea breezes mostly occur during hot days i.e., summer time as there is unequal heating of land and water surfaces. The land surface get heat up first and during the day the land get heat up faster than water surfaces due to which there is high temperature and low pressure.
The winds always blows from the high pressure to low pressure or low temperature to high temperature i.e., from water to land surfaces durning day time and in night time it happens opposite the wind flows from land surfaces to water surfaces
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The sea breeze occurs during the daytime as the land masses heat up faster than water.
The breeze blowing towards the land from the sea is known as sea breeze.
Due to the differences in pressure, the air flows from high pressure areas over the sea to the low pressure areas on the land. In summer there is unequal heating of land and water masses. This results in the formation of sea breeze.
The winds always blows from the high pressure to low pressure or low temperature to high temperature i.e., from water to land surfaces durning day time and in night time it happens opposite the wind flows from land surfaces to water surfaces.
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I took a picture of how they want the question answered
The amount of work done by the applied force is 500 J.
How much work is done by the applied force?The amount of work done by the applied force is equal to the product of the applied force and the displacement of the object.
Mathematically, the formula for work done by an applied force is given as;
W = F d
where;
F is the applied forced is the displacement of the objectThe amount of work done by the applied force is calculated as;
W = 50 N x 10 m
W = 500 J
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a. Looking at the diagram above, what is the net force in the horizontal direction?
b. What is the net force in the vertical direction?
Answer:
A) Net force in the horizontal direction is 19.641 N
B) Net force in the vertical direction is 20 N
Explanation:
The normal force (20 N) and the weight force (20 N) cancel out.
Next lets find the horizontal and vertical components on the right side of the diagram.
We are given the angle and the hypotenuse.
First lets find the opposite side (vertical component).
\(sin(x)\frac{O}{H}\)
\(O=Hsin(x)\)
\(O=40sin(30)\)
\(O=20\)
Now lets find the adjacent side (horizontal component).
\(cos(x)=\frac{A}{H}\)
\(A=Hcos(x)\)
\(A=40cos(30)\)
\(A=34.641\)
Now we can ignore the 40 N force.
We are left with 1 force in the vertical direction.
So the net force in the vertical direction is 20 N
We are left with 2 forces in the horizontal direction.
We have 1 force of 15 Newtons moving in the left direction.
We also another force of 34.641 Newtons moving to the right.
So the net force in the horizontal direction is 19.641 N.
a commercial refrigerator with r-134a as the working fluid is used to keep the refrigerated space at -29 0c by rejecting its waste heat to cooling water that enters the condenser at 16 0c at a rate of 0.22 kg/s and leaves at 28 0c. the refrigerant enters the condenser at 1.2 mpa and 65 0c and leaves at 42 0c. the inlet state of the compressor is 60 kpa and -34 0c and the compressor is estimated to gain a net heat of 450 w from the surroundings. take the enthalpy at state 3 as the hf at operating temperature. determine the following; (1) the quality of the refrigerant at evaporator inlet. (2) the mass flow rate of the refrigerant. kg/s (3) net compressor power input. kw (4) the refrigeration load. kw (5) the cop of the refrigerator. (6) the theoretical maximum refrigeration load for the same power input to the compressor. kw hint: to find the theoretical maximum refrigeration load first find the maximum cop of the refrigerator for the same temperature limits based on reversed carnot cycle.
To solve this refrigerated problem, we can use the thermodynamic properties of R-134a from the data. Let's denote the states as follows:
State 1: Inlet to the compressor
State 2: Outlet of the compressor, inlet to the condenser
State 3: Outlet of the condenser, inlet to the evaporator
State 4: Outlet of the evaporator, inlet to the compressor.
We are given the following information:
T1 = -34°C
p1 = 60 kPa
T2 = 42°C
p2 = 1.2 MPa
T3 = -29°C
T4 = -34°C
m_dot = 0.22 kg/s
Tcw1 = 16°C
Tcw2 = 28°C
Q_net,in = 450 W
To find the quality of the refrigerant at evaporator inlet (state 3), we can use the following formula:
h4 = hf4 + x4 * (hfg4)
where h4 is the enthalpy at state 4 (inlet to compressor), hf4 and hfg4 are the enthalpy of saturated liquid and vapor at the same temperature as state 4, respectively, and x4 is the quality of the refrigerant at state 4. Since state 4 is at -34°C, we can find the values of hf4 and hfg4 from the R-134a tables:
hf4 = 83.97 kJ/kg
hfg4 = 248.32 kJ/kg
Substituting the given values, we get:
h4 = 83.97 + x4 * 248.32
At state 3, the refrigerant is a saturated vapor, so we have:
h3 = hg3 = 285.62 kJ/kg
Next, we can use the energy balance for the evaporator to relate the enthalpies at states 3 and 4:
m_dot * (h3 - h4) = QL
where QL is the refrigeration load. Substituting the values we know, we get:
0.22 * (285.62 - (83.97 + x4 * 248.32)) = QL
Solving for x4, we get:
x4 = 0.792
Therefore, the quality of the refrigerant at evaporator inlet is 0.792.
The mass flow rate of the refrigerant is given as m_dot = 0.22 kg/s.
The net compressor power input can be found from the energy balance for the compressor:
W_net,in = m_dot * (h2 - h1)
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