Answers
True. of the three core functions of public health, includes development of a competent public health workforce.it comes under the category of assurance.
Environmental health services are crucial and align with the three main public health functions (assessment, policy development, and assurance). Together, these roles contribute to the restoration, enhancement, promotion, and protection of the greater good's health through collective action. Assurance enforce laws and rules that safeguard the environment and guarantee safety. Connecting individuals to the necessary environmental health services and ensuring their delivery when those services are unavailable are two ways to ensure their provision. Ensure that the environmental health workforce is skilled. Assess the efficiency, usability, and standard of personal and community-based environmental health services. research to find fresh perspectives and creative answers to environmental health issues.
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Related Questions
Is jumping on a trampoline gravatational energy
Answers
Answer:There are Multiple different types of energy transfer, including gravitational potential energy, elastic energy, and kinetic energy.
Explanation:When you use your potential energy to jump, the trampoline uses its potential energy in its springs to push back against you.
What is the reason for the drop in the age adjusted cancer death rate as of 2017?
Answers
Answer:
Record Drop in the age adjusted cancer death rate as of 2017 due to Improved Lung Cancer Treatment.
Three features of a microscope
Answers
Answer:
The Functions & Parts of a Microscope.
Eyepiece Lens: the lens at the top that you look through, usually 10x or 15x power.
Tube: Connects the eyepiece to the objective lenses.
Arm: Supports the tube and connects it to the base.
Base: The bottom of the microscope, used for support.
Which of the following are ways in which masks help prevent the spread of 5 points
viruses? (Select all that apply.) *
A Masks catch respiratory droplets before they evaporate, preventing them from
becoming microdroplets that can be easily carried through the air.
B. Masks reroute droplets to the sides of a person's face.
C. Masks reduce the momentum of droplets they don't catch.
D. Masks prevent us from breathing as deeply, making us produce fewer droplets.
Answers
Which action would the home health nurse take when caring for a client with a pink and moist left leg venous stasis ulcer?
1. Teach the client to keep the left leg in a dependent position to improve blood flow.
2. Monitor for increases in bruising or bleeding caused by use of anticoagulant medications.
3. Clean the wound with normal saline and apply prescribed hydrocolloid dressings weekly.
4. Educate the client about the need for vascular surgery to improve blood flow to the wound.
Answers
When caring for a client with such a pink and wet left leg venous stasis ulcer, the home health nurse cleans the lesion with normal saline and applies recommended hydrocolloid dressings weekly. Option 3 is correct.
Compression therapy is often regarded as the most effective treatment for venous stasis ulcers. Furthermore, leg elevation lowers edoema in venous stasis patients and is indicated for individuals with the disease, generally for 30 minutes a few times a day. Arterial ulcers are often excruciatingly painful; discomfort is frequently eased by dependent leg position & exacerbated by elevation.
Hydrocolloid dressings are an excellent alternative for treating venous leg ulcers because they can handle up to moderate amounts of exudate while facilitating autolytic debridement of sloughy tissue and preserving existing granulation tissue. High pressure in the veins of the lower leg causes venous ulcers. One-way valves in the veins maintain blood flowing up toward your heart. Blood can flow backward and pool in your legs if these valves become weak or the veins become damaged and obstructed. This causes increased pressure in the lower leg veins.
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The nurse assesses a client with cirrhosis and find 4+ pitting Edema of the feet and legs and a massive ascites. Which medication contribute to Edema and ascites is client with cirrhosis?
A) Hypoalbuminemia that results in a decreased colloidal oncotic pressure.
B) Hyperaldosteronism causing an increased sodium reabsorption in renal tubules.
C) Degrees portaocaval pressure with greater collateral circulation.
D) Degrees renin-angiotensin response related to an increase in renal blood flow.
Answers
Hypoalbuminemia that results in a decreased colloid oncotic pressure, the correct answer is (A)
Hypoalbuminemia is a common complication of cirrhosis due to decreased production of albumin by the liver. Albumin is an important protein that helps maintain the balance of fluids between the blood vessels and the tissues.
When the level of albumin in the blood decreases, there is a decrease in colloid oncotic pressure, which results in fluid shifting from the blood vessels into the surrounding tissues, leading to edema. Ascites, which is the accumulation of fluid in the abdominal cavity, is also a common complication of cirrhosis the correct option is (A)
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the surgical removal of all or part of a lung
Answers
Answer:
A pneumonectomy is a type of surgery to remove one of your lungs because of cancer, trauma, or some other condition.
Explanation:
May I have Brainliest please? My next rank will be the highest one: A GENIUS! Please help me on this journey to become top of the ranks! I only need 15 more brainliest to become a genius! I would really appreciate it, and it would make my day! Thank you so much, and have a wonderful rest of your day!
which animal foods are high in carbonhydrate?
Answers
Answer:Dairy- This is the one animal food that contains carbohydrate. Milk, cheese, and yogurt contain naturally-occurring lactose. If dairy (like yogurt) is sweetened, then it will also contain added sugar like sucrose (white cane sugar) or fructose and glucose (honey and/or HFCS).
The main source of carbohydrates in livestock feed are grains such as oats, wheat, barley, corn, sorghum etc. forages and hay. Fats are an important part of the animal diet; nevertheless, they are needed in small amounts.
Which class of diuretic can decrease calcium in the body?
Answers
Explanation:
Thiazode Diuretics can decrease calcium in the body.receptive field updating occurs when receptive fields transiently remap towards the point of fixation and?
Answers
Receptive field updating refers to the phenomenon where the receptive fields of neurons in the visual system transiently remap towards the point of fixation during eye movements.
This updating is necessary to maintain spatial consistency in the visual representation despite changes in the location of visual stimuli on the retina caused by eye movements.
When the eyes move, the receptive fields of neurons in the visual system shift to maintain their relative position in the visual field. This shift is important because the visual system must integrate information from different parts of the visual field to create a stable, coherent perceptual experience.
Receptive field updating is particularly important in tasks that require accurate eye movements, such as reading or visual search. Without updating, visual information would be mislocalized and perception would be disrupted. Therefore, the ability to update receptive fields is crucial for efficient visual processing and perception.
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A student in the second grade has a behavioral disorder. Each day when the parent drives the student to school, the student becomes restless and agitated and frequently refuses to get out of the car to walk into the school. One of the new Individualized Education Program goals is to reduce the frequency of these daily behaviors. Which action is a PRIORITY to include as part of the student’s intervention to support initial progress toward this goal?
Develop a predictable checklist of expectations related to arriving at school.
Identify factors in the morning routine that influence the student’s conduct.
Set up a calming area for the student to use prior to entering the classroom.
Answers
Answer: The priority action to include as part of the student's intervention to support initial progress toward the goal of reducing the frequency of daily disruptive behaviors is to identify factors in the morning routine that influence the student's conduct.
Explanation:
what are teratogens give 5 examples and explain how they cause teratogenic effects in pregnancy and how a pregnant mother can avoid these from happening?
Answers
Teratogens are substances or agents that can cause congenital malformations or birth defects in developing embryos or fetuses during pregnancy. Some examples are Alcohol, Tobacco smoke, Certain medications, Environmental toxins and Infectious agents.
Here are five examples of teratogens and how they can cause teratogenic effects:Drinking alcohol during pregnancy can cause fetal alcohol spectrum disorders (FASDs) which can lead to physical, behavioral, and intellectual disabilities. Alcohol easily crosses the placenta and reaches the developing fetus, affecting the development of the brain and other organs. Pregnant women can avoid this by avoiding alcohol completely during pregnancy.Cigarette smoking during pregnancy can lead to low birth weight, premature birth, stillbirth, and sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). The chemicals in tobacco smoke reduce the amount of oxygen that the developing fetus receives, leading to poor fetal growth and development. Pregnant women can avoid this by quitting smoking completely or avoiding exposure to secondhand smoke.Certain medications, such as thalidomide, isotretinoin, and some anticonvulsants, can cause birth defects if taken during pregnancy. These medications can interfere with fetal development and cause malformations of the limbs, heart, and other organs. Pregnant women should always consult with their healthcare provider before taking any medication.Exposure to environmental toxins, such as lead, mercury, and pesticides, can cause birth defects and developmental delays. These toxins can cross the placenta and accumulate in the developing fetus, affecting the development of the brain and other organs. Pregnant women can avoid this by avoiding exposure to these toxins as much as possible.Some infections, such as rubella, cytomegalovirus (CMV), and toxoplasmosis, can cause birth defects if contracted during pregnancy. These infections can cross the placenta and infect the developing fetus, leading to malformations of the brain, eyes, and other organs. Pregnant women can avoid this by practicing good hygiene and avoiding contact with people who have infectious diseases.To know more about the Teratogens, here
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a nursing informatics specialist is preparing a presentation about nursing-focused standardized terminologies recognized by the ana. which system would the nurse specialist most likely describe as a reference terminology?
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The nursing informatics specialist would most likely describe the Systematized Nomenclature of Medicine - Clinical Terms (SNOMED-CT) as a reference terminology.
SNOMED-CT is a comprehensive and standardized clinical vocabulary that provides a structured way of capturing, encoding, and exchanging clinical information across healthcare systems. It is recognized by the American Nurses Association (ANA) as one of the nursing-focused standardized terminologies that are essential for supporting nursing practice, research, and education. SNOMED-CT is widely used in electronic health records (EHRs) and other health information systems to ensure consistent and accurate representation of clinical concepts and enable interoperability between different healthcare systems.
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Individuals diagnosed with a personality disorder will likely demonstrate all of the following except __________.
a) the tendency to be impulsive
b) the need for instant gratification
c) suspicion and mistrust of others
d) restraint from becoming too intimate
The correct answer is D
Answers
Answer:
ur right its D
Please mark as brainliest if answer is right
Have a great day, be safe and healthy
Thank u
XD
The Individuals diagnosed with a personality disorder does not represent the option d. restraint from becoming too intimate.
What is a personality disorder?It is the long-term pattern that should be different in a significant manner.
At the time when the individual iagnosed with a personality disorder so there is the tendency for impulsive, instant gratification, and mistrust of others.
Hence, the option d is correct.
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Which of these actions is legally required when dealing with medical records?
Answers
In this model of the rock cycle, A represents
rock and arrow B represents the process of
.
Answers
In this model of the rock cycle, A represents metamorphic rock and arrow B represents the process of weathering.
What is a rock cycle?A rock cycle simply refers to a concept that is used to describe and illustrate the continuous chemical and biological processes that leads to the formation (creation) of a rock, its transformation from one kind to another, its destruction and reformation over a specific period of time.
In Science, some examples of the natural phenomenon that influences rock cycle are;
Plate tectonic activityErosionWeatheringWeathering involves both the physical and chemical breakdown of rock into smaller pieces while metamorphic rock is a type of rock which is formed due to the transformation of an existing rock.
Based on the model in the image attached below, we can infer and logically conclude that item A represents a metamorphic rock while arrow B represents the process of weathering.
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why is it important for jessica to have her blood levels of the antiepileptic medications checked on a regular basis
Answers
Answer:Blood tests are often checked before starting an antiepileptic drug (AED). Blood tests may be done again after you have been taking the seizure medicine for a while, especially if there’s been a change in dose or if you have a change in how you feel.How often blood tests are done depends on each seizure medicine, the need for monitoring, and other health problems you have or medicines you take. The frequency of testing also varies from doctor to doctor and even country to country.
The frequency of blood tests to check for side effects depends on the medicine you take. Many of the older seizure medicines need more monitoring than the newer ones.
Blood tests may be done before starting a drug then periodically once you are on the medicine. Some medicines may need blood tests every few weeks or months when starting the medicine. After a person is used to the medicine, these blood tests may be needed only once in a while or if problems develop. Other medicines, especially some of the newer ones, need blood test monitoring much less often if at all.
Blood tests to measure the amount of medicine in your system can also vary. Again, blood levels of the older medicines are done more often to help guide changes in doses. Well-established ranges for blood levels are available for the older drugs, but not as much for newer seizures medicines. For some of the newer seizure medicines, tests for blood levels may not be available or helpful in adjusting doses of a medicine.
Explanation:Blood tests may be done to check how much medicine is in your body, usually called drug or AED levels. (AED stands for antiepileptic drugs)
Blood tests may also be used to see how your body is tolerating the medicine. The types of blood test will vary depending on what possible side effects may be seen with your seizure medicine. These blood tests may include levels of electrolytes (substances in the body such as sodium and potassium), kidneys and liver function, and blood cell counts (such as white blood cells, red blood cells, platelet counts).The best way to tell if a medicine is working is to talk to you and your family. How often seizures occur and if you have any side effects that bother you is often more important than a blood test. This information comes from you and your family, not a test.
The blood level helps the doctor judge if the medicine dose is high enough, too high, or if it may be time for a change. It’s a piece of information that is looked at together with how you feel. The doctor or nurse will also want to do a ‘neuro exam’ that can help pick up side effects of medicines. So remember:
The blood level is only a guide. Some people will do well at low levels of medicine. Other people may need higher amounts.
Results of a blood level need to be looked together with other information.
How did David’s condition increase doctors and researchers understanding of the immune system and diseases such as cancer?
Answers
Studying David's Syndrome provided researchers with insights into the genetic mutations, molecular pathways, and immune response mechanisms, leading to a deeper understanding of the immune system's complexities and its role in combating diseases.
David's condition, often referred to as "David's Syndrome," presented a unique opportunity for doctors and researchers to deepen their understanding of the immune system and diseases like cancer.
David's Syndrome is a rare genetic disorder that rendered him with an exceptionally weak immune system, making him highly susceptible to infections and other immune-related complications.
Studying David's condition allowed researchers to explore the intricacies of the immune system in unprecedented detail. By examining the specific genetic mutations responsible for his weakened immune response, scientists gained insights into the genes and molecular pathways involved in immune function.
This knowledge contributed to a broader understanding of the immune system's complex mechanisms and its role in fighting diseases. Moreover, David's susceptibility to infections offered valuable insights into the body's defense mechanisms against pathogens.
Researchers closely analyzed how his immune system responded to various infectious agents, leading to a better comprehension of the immune response's intricacies and potential vulnerabilities.
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3.What adjustments to afferent or efferent radius can be made to compensate for the effect of reduced blood pressure on GFR
Answers
Answer:
Increasing the afferent radius or decreasing the efferent would compensate for lowered blood pressure. Increasing the afferent radius had a greater effect than decreasing the efferent radius because there was a greater increase in glomerular pressure.
15. In order to grow, all microorganisms require:
A. liquid water
B. organic substances
C. oxygen
D. warm temperatures -
E. low pressure
Answers
Answer:
A
Explanation:
i dont khow but i guess A will be the answer
In order to grow, all microorganisms require liquid water.
What are the functions of microorganisms?A microorganism, or microbe, is an organism of microscopic size, which may exist in its single-celled form or as a colony of cells. The possible existence of unseen microbial life was suspected from ancient times.
Microscopic creatures—including bacteria, fungi and viruses—can make you ill. But what you may not realize is that trillions of microbes are living in and on your body right now. Most don't harm you at all. In fact, they help you digest food, protect against infection and even maintain your reproductive health.
Microbes help digest food, absorb nutrients, and out-compete harmful bacteria in the intestine. They produce vitamins and proteins that human genes cannot produce.
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5. What is one way that you can use one of the learning theories to influence another human or animal in your life? What theory of learning would you use? Why?
Answers
Learning theories give teachers models for creating lessons that promote better learning by describing the circumstances and procedures through which learning takes place.
What is learning theories?Learning theories are defined as the theory based on the behaviorism, cognitivism, and constructivism psychological perspectives.
The biological processes of learning start in neurons, which are electrically stimulated brain cells.
Synaptic plasticity, which involves modifying the number and strength of neuronal connections, is the mechanism by which learning occurs.
Thus, learning theories give teachers models for creating lessons that promote better learning by describing the circumstances and procedures through which learning takes place.
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What action can you take as a team during and after a resuscitation attempt that
helps individual team members perform better and brings awareness to system
strengths and deficiencies?
CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER
Overthinking
Practicing mutual respect
Debriefing
Criticizing
Answers
Debriefing is the action can you take as a team during and after a resuscitation attempt that helps individual team members perform better and brings awareness to system strengths and deficiencies.
What is debriefing?Debriefing is a fundamental action during critical response processes such as cardiopulmonary resuscitation.
Debriefing refers to the actions and procedures that involve communication between the members of a medical team in a clinical case.
Debriefing can result in a fundamental issue for understanding a medical problem/issue and thus safe lives.
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Which of the following agencies is responsible for enforcing
safety standards in the workplace?
FDA
OSHA
EPA
Answers
Sorry hope that helps!!
Cydney presents with a history of asthma. She has not been treated for a while. She complains of daily but not continual symptoms, greater than 1 week and at nighttime. She has been using her rescue inhaler. Her FEV1 is 60% to 80% predicted. How would you classify her asthma severity
Answers
A nurse at a rehab facilities performs three tasks as a part of her 8-hour-per-day job: assisting patients with their therapy (EE= 4.5kcal/min), pushing patients in their wheel chairs (EE=3.5kcal/min), and sitting while doing clerical work (EE=1.0kcal/min). If she spends 30 minutes every hour assisting patients with their therapy, how many minutes does she need to spend every hour sitting and doing clerical work so her overall energy expenditure does not exceed her recommended work rate. Her aerobic capacity (AC) is 10.92kcal/min, and recommended work rate =[(log4400−logt) (AC)]/3 where: t= working time (min) and AC= aerobic capacity (kcal/min).
Answers
The nurse needs to spend every hour sitting and doing clerical work for at least 70 minutes so that her overall energy expenditure does not exceed her recommended work rate.
Given,
Assisting patients with their therapy (EE= 4.5kcal/min)
Pushing patients in their wheel chairs (EE=3.5kcal/min)Sitting while doing clerical work (EE=1.0kcal/min)
Aerobic capacity (AC) is 10.92kcal/minRecommended work rate = [(log4400−logt) (AC)]/3where, t = working time (min) and AC= aerobic capacity (kcal/min).
Let the nurse spends x minutes doing clerical work.
Hence, the total amount of energy expenditure must be less than or equal to the recommended work rate.
So,4.5kcal/min × 30 min + 3.5kcal/min × 30 min + 1.0kcal/min × x min ≤ [(log4400−log480) (10.92 kcal/min)]/3Simplifying the above equation:
135 + 105 + x ≤ 150∗ [(log4400−log480) (10.92 kcal/min)]/3Therefore,x ≤ 150 - 240/3x ≤ 70
Therefore, the nurse needs to spend every hour sitting and doing clerical work for at least 70 minutes so that her overall energy expenditure does not exceed her recommended work rate.
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Which diagnostic procedure and treatment would most likely be used for the same condition?
a kidney biopsy and a cystectomy
O a cystogram and a gout diet
O urinary catheterization and diabetes
O a sonogram and lithotripsy
Answers
Answer:
A sonogram and lithotripsy
Explanation:
Egd.
A sonogram and lithotripsy are the diagnostic procedure and treatment would most likely be used for the same condition
What is a diagnostic procedure?The term diagnostic procedure refers to the pattern in which a doctor tries to know what is wrong with a patient. Usually, when ailments are similar, they can be diagnosed by similar methods.
Thus, a sonogram and lithotripsy are the diagnostic procedure and treatment would most likely be used for the same condition.
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a nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for ciprofloxacin to treat an uncomplicated uti. which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Answers
Monitoring tendon pain is because it can cause tendinitis and tendon rupture.
What is ciprofloxacin?Fluoroquinolone (flor-o-KWIN-o-lone) antibiotic ciprofloxacin is used to treat several bacterial illnesses. People who have been exposed to anthrax or some forms of plague are also treated with it. The use of ciprofloxacin extended-release is only permitted in adults.
Fluoroquinolone drugs have potentially irreversible, significant, or debilitating adverse effects. Only infections that cannot be cured with a less dangerous antibiotic should be treated with ciprofloxacin.
Therefore, monitoring tendon pain is because it can cause tendinitis and tendon rupture.
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a patient has been receiving regular doses of an agonist for 2 weeks. which of the following should the nurse anticipate?
Answers
The nurse should anticipate the development of tolerance, dependence, and potential withdrawal symptoms when caring for a patient who has been taking an agonist for two weeks.
After two weeks of taking an agonist, patients may develop tolerance to its effects, which means that they will require a higher dose of the drug to achieve the same effect. Furthermore, long-term use of agonists increases the risk of dependence, which is a significant issue. When the drug is stopped, patients may experience withdrawal symptoms, such as agitation, anxiety, and tremors.The nurse should anticipate the development of tolerance and dependence, as well as potential withdrawal symptoms if the patient's agonist therapy is stopped. Furthermore, the nurse should ensure that the patient's dosage is properly adjusted to prevent the development of these adverse effects. The nurse should also educate the patient about the importance of following the medication schedule as prescribed and contacting the healthcare provider if any adverse effects occur. Furthermore, the nurse should evaluate the patient's pain level to see whether the medication is still effective and whether the dosage needs to be adjusted. Overall, the nurse should anticipate the development of tolerance, dependence, and potential withdrawal symptoms when caring for a patient who has been taking an agonist for two weeks.
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The USDA is responsible for regulating meat and agricultural products. Examples include cuts of beef and produce like spinach. The FDA is responsible for regulating other food and health-related items. Examples include processed foods and diet pills.
Answers
Answer:.
Explanation:
.
True or false: It is likely that the boy’s earlier bouts of pneumonia were due to complications stemming from CGD.
Answers
Answer:
true
Explanation:
thats the correct answer
It is likely that the boy’s earlier bouts of were due to complications stemming from CGD is True.
Are neutrophils part of the adaptive immune system?Neutrophils are capable of modulating adaptive immune reaction through interactions with T, B cells and possibly APCs.
Thus, the correct option is true.
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