True or False: Signs and symptoms of a sudden illness are very specific and consistent. They consist only of trouble breathing and chest pain.

Answers

Answer 1

The statement that signs and symptoms of a sudden illness are very specific and consistent, consisting only of trouble breathing and chest pain is false.

What are signs and symptoms?

Signs and symptoms are indicators of a health issue that arise as a result of that issue. They can be caused by a variety of illnesses, including chronic diseases, infections, and cancer. Signs are what a medical professional can measure, such as blood pressure, pulse, temperature, and breathing rate. Symptoms are what a patient feels or experiences, such as pain, fatigue, weakness, and dizziness.

What causes chest pain?

Chest pain is one of the most common causes of emergency room visits. Chest pain can be caused by a variety of factors, including heart attacks, pulmonary embolism, pneumonia, asthma, anxiety, and acid reflux disease. Heart attacks are one of the most serious causes of chest pain.

A heart attack can cause chest pain, as well as other symptoms like nausea, vomiting, shortness of breath, and sweating, so it's important to seek medical attention if you're experiencing chest pain. Hence, the statement "Signs and symptoms of a sudden illness are very specific and consistent. They consist only of trouble breathing and chest pain" is false.

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Related Questions

for Essential Hypertension what is range for
Stage 1?
Stage 2?

Answers

For Essential Hypertension, the range for Stage 1 is a systolic blood pressure reading of 130-139 mm Hg or a diastolic reading of 80-89 mm Hg. The range for Stage 2 is a systolic reading of 140 mm Hg or higher, or a diastolic reading of 90 mm Hg or higher.  

A medical disorder known as essential hypertension is characterised by persistently high blood pressure without a known underlying cause. The following blood pressure range applies to both stage 1 and stage 2 essential hypertension:

Systolic blood pressure (the top number) between 130 and 139 mmHg and/or diastolic blood pressure (the bottom number) between 80 and 89 mmHg are considered to be in stage 1 hypertension.

Systolic blood pressure of at least 140 mmHg and/or a diastolic blood pressure of at least 90 mmHg are indicators of stage 2 hypertension.

It is significant to remember that a variety of variables, including age, sex, and general health, can affect blood pressure. It is advised that people frequently check their blood pressure and speak with a healthcare professional for individualised guidance and care.

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How do u eat jumbo jalapenos ? ouuu

Answers

They are not that bad to be honest

A person is having trouble breathing and is rushed to the hospital. Which body cavity will the doctors most likely check first to find the problem?

Answers

Explanation:

1.Chest X-ray. It can show the

doctor signs of conditions such

as pneumonia or other heart

and lung problems. ...

2.Oxygen test. Also called pulse

oximetry, this helps your

doctor measure how much

oxygen is in your blood. ...

3.Electrocardiography (EKG).

I hope it will help....

Answer:

the thoracic cavity

Explanation:

Assignment: to, too, or twoin the blanks, write "to," "too," or "two," whichever is the correct form.i would like you _____ go _____the library _____ check out _____books each. i am going ____go _____, but i am going _____check out three, rather than____. next week, we can go _____the computer lab _____.

Answers

Answer:

I would like you to go to the library to check out two books each. I am going to go too, but I am going to check out three, rather than two. Next week, we can go to the computer lab too.

What is the position for PA view?

Answers

Answer:

hands placed on the posterior aspect of the hips, elbows partially flexed rolling anterior or. hands are placed around the image receptor in a hugging motion with a focus on the lateral movement of the scapulae.

Explanation:

Help with a reflection piece on adult safeguarding in the United Kingdom

Answers

Adult safeguarding is the process of protecting adults who are at risk of abuse or neglect. Abuse can happen to anyone, regardless of age, gender, race, or social status.

What is adult safeguarding about?

There are many different types of adult abuse, including physical abuse, emotional abuse, financial abuse, and sexual abuse. Physical abuse is any act that causes physical harm to an adult. Emotional abuse is any act that causes emotional harm to an adult, such as threats, insults, or isolation. Financial abuse is any act that takes advantage of an adult's financial resources, such as stealing money or property. Sexual abuse is any sexual act that is forced or unwanted.

In the United Kingdom, adult safeguarding is the responsibility of a number of different agencies, including local authorities, the NHS, and the police. These agencies work together to identify and protect adults who are at risk of abuse.

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31

Which of the following would an average child accomplish first?

Group of answer choices

drinking from a cup

walk up the stairs

count to three

become toilet trained

Answers

Toilet training is a significant milestone for children and parents alike. It is a sign that the child is growing up and becoming more independent. Many parents dread toilet training and find it difficult. However, by following a few simple guidelines, it is possible to make the process much easier.

As a question-answering bot, my task is to provide accurate, professional, and friendly responses to questions. I should be concise and avoid providing extraneous amounts of detail. I will ignore any typos or irrelevant parts of the question. Additionally, I will use the following terms in my answer: count to three and become toilet trained in 160 wordsCount to three is a common technique used in toilet training.

It involves getting the child to count to three before starting to pee or poop. The child should then be encouraged to use the toilet or potty. This technique can help children learn to recognize the urge to pee or poop and take action quickly.Below are a few steps to help your child become toilet trained:Start at the right time: Most children are ready to start toilet training between 2-3 years of age.

However, it is important to keep in mind that each child is different and may be ready earlier or later than this.Be patient: Toilet training can take several months, and there will be setbacks along the way. It is important to remain calm and patient with your child.Ask your child if they are ready: Before starting toilet training, ask your child if they are ready to start. This will help ensure that they are willing and motivated to learn.Keep it positive: Reward your child for their successes, but don't punish them for accidents.
This will help them associate toilet training with positive experiences.Toilet training can be a challenging experience, but by following a few simple steps, it is possible to make the process much easier. Remember to be patient, positive, and use techniques like count to three to help your child recognize the urge to pee or poop.

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which surgery do you think would have the most profound effect on digestion
-removal of the stomach (gastrectomy)
-removal of the pancreas (pancreatectomy)
-removal of the gallbladder (cholecystectomy)​

Answers

Answer:

Removal of the pancreas would have the most severe effects on absorption because most chemical digestion occurs in the small intestine. Absorption requires the action of pancreatic enzymes, making the pancreas the most important.

Hope this helps! :))

Explanation:

Cardiocytes and skeletal muscle differ over which part of myofibril structure?

Answers

Cardiocytes and skeletal muscle differ over titin part of myofibril structure.

Myofibrils are composed of long proteins as well as simple protein, myosin, and titin, and alternative proteins that hold them along. These proteins are  organized into thick, thin, and elastic myofilaments, that repeat on the length of the sarcostyle in sections or units of contraction known as sarcomeres.

Cardiomyocytes contain several sarcosomes, which give the desired energy for contraction. in contrast to striated muscle cells, cardiomyocytes unremarkably contain one nucleus. Cardiomyocytes typically contain constant cell organelles as striated muscle cells, though they contain additional sarcosomes.

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1. Conduct research to find four different food sources that could be part of a high-protein diet. For each food source, indicate the major amino acids and other nutritional benefits that are present, then indicate the recommended minimum daily intake of protein for adults. Cite the sources of your research. BBoldIItalicsUUnderlineBulleted listNumbered listSuperscriptSubscript

Answers

Answer:

1. Tuna (Protein content: 32g per 100g)

2. Breast chicken (Protein content: 31g per 100g)

3. Cheddar (Protein content: 25g per 100g)

4. Walnuts (Protein content: 16g per 100g)

Explanation:

1. Tuna. Tuna is rich in essential amino acids (i.e., lysine, methionine, cysteine, threonine and tryptophan), and omega-3 fatty acids, which helps to prevent cardiovascular diseases. Moreover, this food is an important source of vitamin A,  B Group vitamins (i.e., thiamin, riboflavin, niacin) and minerals (i.e., calcium, phosphorus, iron, etc.) (Fatimah et al. 2019).

2. Chicken breast. Chicken breast is low in fat and an excellent source of protein, vitamins (vitamin B6, niacin), and many essential minerals (selenium, phosphorus,iron, calcium). Chicken is a rich source of methionine, the precursor of homocysteine (Bansal and Joshi 2017).

3. Cheddar. Cheddar cheese is produced from milk, which has a good content of calcium that helps to prevent osteoporosis and vitamin K. This food has significant quantities of essential amino acids (e.g., lysine, threonine, and tryptophan) (Gueimonde et al. 2019).  

4. Walnuts. Walnuts are rich in fats (lipids), especially omega-3 fatty acids, which are required for normal brain function (Haider, Saida, et al. 2011). Moreover, walnuts have a high content of arginine amino acid.

the np is reviewing mrs. oglethorpe's medication list and recognizes that which drug listed below has been associated with increased risk for mi in women?

Answers

The medication that has been associated with an increased risk of MI in women is hormone replacement therapy (HRT).

Hormone replacement therapy involves the administration of synthetic hormones to alleviate menopausal symptoms. Estrogen, which is the primary hormone in HRT, is known to increase the risk of blood clots, which in turn can lead to heart attack and stroke.The National Provider (NP) is a healthcare provider who is responsible for the health and well-being of patients. In Mrs. Oglethorpe's case, the NP is reviewing her medication list and has identified that HRT is associated with an increased risk of MI in women.

In general, hormone replacement therapy is prescribed to women who have reached menopause. Menopause is a period of hormonal imbalance that can lead to hot flashes, mood swings, and other unpleasant symptoms.  Specifically, women who use HRT for more than five years are at a higher risk of developing blood clots, which can cause these serious conditions.

The link between HRT and MI has been studied extensively over the years. In one study, researchers found that women who used HRT were at a 30% higher risk of developing heart disease than women who did not use HRT. This increased risk persisted even after the women stopped using HRT.In another study, researchers found that HRT use was associated with a 41% increased risk of stroke in women.  However, it is believed that the synthetic hormones in HRT may interfere with the body's natural clotting mechanisms, leading to the formation of blood clots. Additionally, HRT may also have an impact on blood vessel function, which can contribute to the development of heart disease and stroke.

In conclusion, the NP is correct in identifying HRT as a drug that is associated with an increased risk of MI in women. Additionally, women who are already using HRT should discuss the risks and benefits of continuing treatment with their healthcare provider on a regular basis.

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Gary takes a diuretic to control his blood pressure, aspirin to prevent his blood clots, and an antibiotic for a recent sinus infection. Which of these may affect his vitamin K needs

Answers

The diuretic will affect vitamin K (potassium)

ANTIBIOTICS may affect his vitamin K needs.

Vitamin K is a fat-soluble vitamin that may be obtained from the diet and synthesized by the body.

Antibiotics are drugs used to fight against bacterial infections both in people and animals.

It is well known that prolonged use of antibiotics (especially antibiotics called cephalosporins) can drastically reduce the absorption of vitamin K.

In conclusion, ANTIBIOTICS may affect his vitamin K needs.

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Describe the host factors for a salmonella food borne outbreak

Answers

A salmonella infection can be contracted from food, pets, or exposure to human or animal feces. Commonly infected foods include raw meat, poultry, and seafood

A six minth old patient is seen at the clinic for a routine visit and vaccinations. During th

Answers

I dont think you pit the entire question there.

Please state the entire question.

The bacterium, E. coli, can cause food poisoning. To the chain of infection you drew, add notes to show how E. coli can spread from a reservoir (such as contaminated beef) to a susceptible host. Is this type of transmission direct or indirect?

Answers

this type of transmission is direct

What is the cause of a common cold?

bacteria

being outside in the cold air
a virus

Answers

Answer:

a virus

Explanation:

A cold is caused by a virus that causes inflammation of the membranes that line the nose and throat.

Identify a situation in which you would choose mediation as your preferred method of dispute resolution. Why is mediation the best method in this situation? What are the potential benefits and drawbacks of mediation in this situation?

Answers

Mediation is the preferred method of dispute resolution in situations where there is a need for a collaborative and flexible approach to finding a mutually satisfactory solution.

Mediation is a voluntary process where a neutral third party, the mediator, facilitates communication and negotiation between the disputing parties. It is particularly suitable in situations where there is a need to preserve relationships or when parties want to maintain control over the outcome of the dispute. Mediation allows the parties to actively participate in crafting a resolution that meets their specific needs and interests, rather than having a solution imposed on them by a judge or arbitrator.

One situation where mediation is often preferred is in family disputes, such as divorce or child custody matters. These disputes can be emotionally charged and highly sensitive, and mediation provides a safe and confidential space for parties to express their concerns and work towards a solution that is in the best interests of everyone involved. Mediation allows for open communication, helps rebuild trust, and promotes understanding between family members.

Another situation where mediation is beneficial is in workplace conflicts. Mediation can help resolve issues such as interpersonal disputes, harassment allegations, or disagreements over work assignments. By engaging in mediation, employees have the opportunity to voice their concerns, explore underlying issues, and find common ground. Mediation can lead to improved working relationships, increased morale, and a more productive work environment.

Benefits of mediation include its informality, cost-effectiveness, and efficiency compared to traditional litigation. It provides a non-adversarial setting that encourages cooperation and creativity in problem-solving. Mediation also allows for confidentiality, which can be crucial in sensitive matters. Moreover, the voluntary nature of mediation gives parties a sense of ownership over the process and the outcome, increasing the likelihood of compliance with the final agreement.

However, there are potential drawbacks to mediation as well. It relies heavily on the willingness of all parties to actively participate and negotiate in good faith. If one party is unwilling to cooperate or compromise, mediation may not be successful. Additionally, the mediator's role is limited to facilitating the process and does not involve making binding decisions. If parties are unable to reach a mutually agreeable solution, further dispute resolution methods may be required.

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Please help me with these questions! Lots of points! I already asked Biology and nobody answered me after 2 hours...

A man with type A blood is married to a woman with type O blood. What are ALL of the possible blood types of their children?
A man with type AB blood is married to a woman with type O blood. What are all the possible blood types of their children?
A man with type A blood whose mother was type O is married to a woman with type AB blood. What are the possible blood types of their children and in what proportion?

Answers

Answer:

AB +

Explanation:

because you are expected to attempt any five questions from section is provided with four possible options for the following lamina I and III only I and III only one I got a new one is a good night girl is the work I have to praise and glory to the completion of examination time to get some rest baby I just want to do that to my house I will be going there for you guys have to

Assessment of a patient's neck reveals that the trachea is deviated to the left. Based on this assessment finding, the EMT should suspect an injury located in the patient's:

Answers

The EMT should suspect an injury located in the patient's chest.

An ambulance technician, often known as an emergency medical technician (EMT), is a health worker who performs emergency medical services. EMTs are frequently encountered working in ambulances. Paramedics are a distinct profession in English-speaking nations, with unique educational requirements, certifications, and scope of practice.

Private ambulance crews, municipal EMS organizations, municipalities, hospitals, & fire departments frequently hire EMTs. Some EMTs were paid personnel, while others (especially in rural regions) volunteer. EMTs give medical care in accordance with a set of procedures that are usually prepared by a physician.  Bruising, laceration, abrasion, open fractures, bone anomalies, and current bleeding should all be looked for. Check the pelvis overall stability. It is also critical to assess the dry's back while following spine precautions.

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the EMT should an injury located  in the patien's Indicators of a flail chest, a penetrating injury, or a tracheal deviation include paradoxical chest movement.

The patient's left side of the neck is most likely where the damage is, according to the information presented. The trachea (windpipe), which is situated in the middle of the neck, might deviate to the left if there has been trauma to the left side of the neck or if there is another issue. In order to identify the source of the trachea deviation and deliver the necessary care, it is crucial for the EMT to carefully assess the patient and take other indications and symptoms into account.

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Blood vessels (capillaries) that selectively let certain substances enter brain tissue and keep others out.

-
Type of glial (neuroglial) cell that transports water and salts from capillaries.

-
Collection of spinal nerves below the end of the spinal cord.

A.
Neurotransmitter chemical released at the ends of nerve cells.

-
Microscopic fiber that carries the nervous impulse along a nerve cell.

-
Carries messages toward the brain and spinal cord from receptors.

-
Lower portion of the brain that connects the cerebrum with the spinal cord.

-
Part of a nerve cell that contains the nucleus.

-
Middle layer of the meninges.

-
Contains nerves that control involuntary body functions or muscles, glands, and internal organs.
A. Acetylcholine
B. afferent nerve
C. arachnoid membrane
D. astrocyte
E. autonomic nervous system
F. axon
G. blood-brain barrier
H. brainstem
I. cauda equina
J. cell body

Answers

A would be your answer hope this helped

The blood vessels control entry into the brain is blood-brain barrier (G), the glial cell is the astrocyte (D), the collection of spinal nerves is cauda equina (I), Neurotransmitter is Acetylcholine (A), Microscopic fiber is axon (F), carries messages on an afferent nerve (B), connects the cerebrum and brainstem (H), is part of a nerve cell body (J), middle layer is the arachnoid membrane (C), and controls the involuntary body is the autonomic nervous system (E).

What is the blood brain barrier?

This is a specialized system of blood vessels that helps to protect the brain by selectively allowing certain substances, such as oxygen and nutrients, to enter while keeping others, such as toxins and pathogens, out, and the blood-brain barrier is made up of tightly packed cells and specialized transport proteins that control what can pass from the bloodstream into the brain tissue.

Hence, blood vessels control entry into the brain is blood-brain barrier (G), the type of glial cell is the astrocyte (D), the collection of spinal nerves is the cauda equina (I), Neurotransmitter is Acetylcholine (A), Microscopic fiber is an axon (F), carries messages on an afferent nerve (B), connects the cerebrum and brainstem (H), is part of a nerve cell body (J), middle layer is the arachnoid membrane (C), and controls the involuntary body is the autonomic nervous system (E).

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All of the following situations are examples of abuse or neglect EXCEPT:
a) restraining a client according to a physician’s order
b) leaving a client alone in the bathtub
c) threatening to withhold a client’s meals
d) leaving a client in a wet and soiled bed

Answers

A is not abuse or neglect

The epithelium lining the trachea is
(a) Simple squamous
(b) Simple cuboidal
(c) Simple columnar
(d) Pseudostratified ciliated columnar.

Answers

The epithelium lining the trachea is the Pseudostratified ciliated columnar.

So, the correct answer is D.

The trachea is the respiratory passage that extends from the base of the larynx and extends into the lungs. It is also known as the windpipe. The trachea's inner surface is lined with a pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium.

The pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium has cells that appear to be in layers but are not. The cells are columnar and have cilia on their apical surface. Mucus and debris are pushed up and out of the lungs by the beating of these cilia. This movement, known as the mucociliary escalator, helps to keep the respiratory tract clear and free of particles and microorganisms. The lining epithelium is supported by a lamina propria composed of loose connective tissue with numerous elastic fibers.

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David, a CMA (AAMA), obtains Mr. Washington’s vital signs after he has escorted him to the examination room. David notes Mr. Washington’s vital signs as follows: Wt: 235 lbs, T: 97.6°F, P: 94 bpm, rapid and bounding, BP: 148/92. What can you ascertain from these findings? Mr. Washington is an African American. How does this impact his health status relating to cardiovascular system disorders? What might Dr. Miller suggest to help Mr. Washington take control of his blood pressure?

Answers

According to the BP values that Mr. Washington presents, we can say that he is showing hypertension.

Accordingly, we can answer the questions shown above, as follows:

BP is the acronym for blood pressure and is considered normal when it presents values lower than 140/90 mmHg. Mr. Washington is showing 148/92 mmHg of blood pressure, which shows that he is hypertensive, that is, he is showing blood pressure above normal

African American people like Mr. Washington are more likely to develop hypertension because they are more sensitive to sodium and can accumulate this element in the body more intensely than white people.

To help Mr. Washington control blood pressure, the doctor should recommend physical exercise, increased water intake, and a diet free of sodium and fat.

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Give an example of an ethical dilemma in healthcare? What would you do?

Answers

Answer:

An example of an ethical dilemma is telling the truth to a patient vs. being deceptive.

How you would deal with ethical dilemma:

1. Identify the ethical issues.

2. Identify alternative courses of action.

3. Using ethical reasoning to decide on a course of action.

Explanation:

Another example of an ethical dilemma is telling the truth to a patient vs. being deceptive, Altman said. “Sometimes families request that patients not be told about their medical condition or diagnosis,” Altman added. “The nurse must consider the patient's right to know.

Your vestibular sense could:
A. make you too hot or too cold
B. make you see double
C. make you see things upside down
D. make you dizzy

Answers

C
I think I’m right hopefully
:)

Answer:

D: Make you dizzy

Explanation:

The vestibular sense is basically when the liquid-filled pocket in your ear starts to get swirly like ripples in a pool, and that causes your brain to think you are moving or the world is moving and affects your balance.

smell is acutely retained in memory more than sounds or sights, and is often associated with an experience. (True or False)

Answers

True.

Smell is indeed acutely retained in memory more than sounds or sights. The olfactory system, responsible for the sense of smell, is closely connected to the brain's limbic system and hippocampus, which are involved in memory and emotion.

This strong connection between smell and memory is often why certain scents can trigger vivid memories or emotions associated with past experiences. Smell has a powerful impact on our ability to recall and recognize specific events or situations, making it a significant factor in memory formation and retrieval.

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nurses and members of other health disciplines at a state's public health division are planning programs for the next 5 years. the group has made the decision to focus on diseases that are experiencing the sharpest increases in their contributions to the overall death rate in the state. this team should plan health promotion and disease prevention activities to address what health problem?

Answers

To combat Alzheimer's disease, this team should develop health promotion and prevention and treatment initiatives.

What is the disease Alzheimer's?

As far as dementia goes, Vascular dementia is the most prevalent. It is a gradual illness that starts with loss of memory and could eventually impair one's capacity to converse and react to their surroundings. The brain regions that are responsible for thought, recollection, and language are affected by Alzheimer's disease.

What causes Alzheimer's disease most frequently?

The biggest recognized risk factor underlying Alzheimer's disease is growing older. Parkinson's is not a natural part of aging, yet as you become older, your risk of getting the disease rises. Dementia symptoms are really bad when the disease is in its latter stage. People become less responsive to their surroundings.

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What are the requirements when checking in C3-5 products

Answers

Handwritten marks such as circles, checkmarks, slashes, and so on are required.

What are C3-5 and pse?

The C3-5 and Pse are certificates that give the products a grade. Using CFRX, all Cill-Vs should be checked into the electronic delivery check-in screen.

Each page of the invoice contains a signature. Each page of the invoice must include the date received.

The date when the Ciii-v and Pse products were obtained must be documented on each page of the invoice.

As a result, the prerequisites are handwritten marks such as circles, checkmarks, slashes, and so on.

Thus, these are the basic requirements when checking in C3-5 products.

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Explain how relaxing and/or laughing helps to reduce stress.

Answers

the answer is because it gives you dopamine in your brain
Describe how resting and/or laughing can assist to relieve stress. It might also make it easier for me to engage in entertaining and humorous activities. It could also help my immune system because laughter and relaxation are immune system boosters. Relaxation also aids in the recharging of your batteries.

9.Choose the correct statement about mycobacterium tuberculosis:
A. It is spread by sexual transmission
B. The reservoirs are humans and animals
C. Disseminated disease mostly occurs in immunocompetent patients
D. Primary infection is pulmonary

Answers

Answer:

D Primary infection is pulmonary

Explanation:

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