true or false? a lack of this mineral, zinc, can create a condition that resembles the night blindness caused by vitamin a deficiency.

Answers

Answer 1

True,  a lack of this mineral, zinc, can create a condition that resembles the night blindness caused by vitamin a deficiency.

What results in night vision loss?

Although it can also be a sign of severe or progressive myopia, a vitamin A deficiency, or other ocular conditions, night blindness is often a symptom of an underlying retinal problem. One of the most frequent causes of night blindness is a vitamin A deficiency.

What can those who are night blind see?

People who suffer from night blindness sometimes struggle to see the stars on a clear night or to move through a dark space, such as a theatre. These issues frequently get worse shortly after a person leaves a brightly illuminated area. Milder instances could just struggle to adjust to darkness.

Does night vision get better?

Treatment options exist for night blindness brought on by nearsightedness, vitamin A deficiency, refractive surgery, and cataracts, allowing you to regain normal levels of vision in low light. Other factors, such as progressive illnesses and genetic abnormalities, could be treatable, but the issue won't go away in the end.

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Related Questions

After applying a bandage, you notice the fingers below the injury site are becoming cool to the touch. What might be the reason for this, and how can you remedy the situation

Answers

Answer:

there could be lack of circulation from blood flow to the fingers

Explanation:

Explain the positive and negative aspects of the living arrangements for the elderly listed below. Be sure to thoroughly evaluate each option. Living in own home Living with their children Assisted living facility Nursing home with intermediate care Nursing home with skilled nursing care and make recommendations for healthy and disabled elderly

Answers

Answer:

See explanation below

Explanation:

Living arrangements for the elderly refers to the composition and organization of the living environment of elderly people.

There are various kinds of living arrangements available for the elderly and they are:

1.) Living in own home: This is a preferred option for most elderly people. It involves them living in their own homes with occasional assistance. The positive side to this is that they maintain and enjoy the comfort of their homes and also the sense of independence that comes with it. The negative aspect is the cost of having a paid caregiver and the constant support from family and friend. Living in own homes can also have mental effects on them - they may lonely and start overthinking.

2.) Living with Children: Elderly ones that have good relationships with their children are advised to live with them. It is a very good economic decision because the cost of having and maintaining a different house and catering for a cared giver will be eliminated. There is also the advantage of companionship and reduced stress because family is around to help. The negative side to this is the tightness of the house for families with small houses.

3.) Assisted Living Facility: This is a facility that offers personal care services to the elderly such as: transportation, meals, bathing and dressing. It is like a community with active adults who need personal care services. The positive side to this is the feeling of having a community, the daily activities that keep them occupied. The major negative side is the cost of living in an assisted living facility. Another is the loss of flexibility and privacy.

4.) Nursing Home with Intermediate Care: This is very similar to the Nursing Home with skilled nursing cares. It is usually regarded as a lower level skilled nursing care facility. The difference is that residents of an intermediate care facility require less assistance with their daily lives. 8 hourly supervision is enough for a day. The advantages and disadvantages are also the same with the skilled nursing care facility.

5.) Nursing Home with Skilled Nursing Care: This is a facility licensed to offer personal as well as medical services. They are usually a 24-hour care facility with nurses and licensed medical professionals around. The downside to this kind of facility is the unsatisfaction because the facility may be understaffed and there may be so many people that need to be attended to. And also the cost of both personal and medical services.

RECOMMENDATIONS

There are things to consider in choosing a living arrangement for elderly ones. They include: financial budget, medical. physical and emotional needs. It is also important to speak with a doctor first.

Healthy Elders are healthy and have no issues and can live in their own homes may opt to hire caregivers if they want

Disabled Elders should register in assisted living facilities where they have access to enough personal care services.

 A patient has a urinary tract infection so Dr. Padron prescribes Ancef. A 1200 mL bag contains 400 mg of Ancef. If the patient receives 600 mL of fluid, how many mg of Ancef did the patient receive?



Answers

Answer:

The patient received 200 mg of Ancef

Explanation:

The bag contained 1200 mL and 400 mg, with this information we know that the amount of mg is a third of the amount of mL so if it is 600 mL that means there is 200 mg of Ancef

Blood vessels (capillaries) that selectively let certain substances enter brain tissue and keep others out.

-
Type of glial (neuroglial) cell that transports water and salts from capillaries.

-
Collection of spinal nerves below the end of the spinal cord.

A.
Neurotransmitter chemical released at the ends of nerve cells.

-
Microscopic fiber that carries the nervous impulse along a nerve cell.

-
Carries messages toward the brain and spinal cord from receptors.

-
Lower portion of the brain that connects the cerebrum with the spinal cord.

-
Part of a nerve cell that contains the nucleus.

-
Middle layer of the meninges.

-
Contains nerves that control involuntary body functions or muscles, glands, and internal organs.
A. Acetylcholine
B. afferent nerve
C. arachnoid membrane
D. astrocyte
E. autonomic nervous system
F. axon
G. blood-brain barrier
H. brainstem
I. cauda equina
J. cell body

Answers

A would be your answer hope this helped

The blood vessels control entry into the brain is blood-brain barrier (G), the glial cell is the astrocyte (D), the collection of spinal nerves is cauda equina (I), Neurotransmitter is Acetylcholine (A), Microscopic fiber is axon (F), carries messages on an afferent nerve (B), connects the cerebrum and brainstem (H), is part of a nerve cell body (J), middle layer is the arachnoid membrane (C), and controls the involuntary body is the autonomic nervous system (E).

What is the blood brain barrier?

This is a specialized system of blood vessels that helps to protect the brain by selectively allowing certain substances, such as oxygen and nutrients, to enter while keeping others, such as toxins and pathogens, out, and the blood-brain barrier is made up of tightly packed cells and specialized transport proteins that control what can pass from the bloodstream into the brain tissue.

Hence, blood vessels control entry into the brain is blood-brain barrier (G), the type of glial cell is the astrocyte (D), the collection of spinal nerves is the cauda equina (I), Neurotransmitter is Acetylcholine (A), Microscopic fiber is an axon (F), carries messages on an afferent nerve (B), connects the cerebrum and brainstem (H), is part of a nerve cell body (J), middle layer is the arachnoid membrane (C), and controls the involuntary body is the autonomic nervous system (E).

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What features of EHRs are important to training specialists

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Training specialists need to be well aware of the wide variety of information stored in electronic health records. For everyday practice, one needs to know how and when to pull up such documents such as patient demographics, medical diagnoses, and treatments. Knowing where different providers' orders are stored is also crucial, for knowing when a specific order will take effect. There's a lot more that goes into learning what an EHR does than just understanding its features - there's a whole science behind how these systems work.

Although the extent to which EHRs are beneficial for training specialists is still debated, it is known that they can help to minimize errors in clinical documentation and improve efficiency. This has been shown across multiple studies - some children hospitals have seen reduced medication discrepancies after implementing electronic health records. The completion of tasks, including filling laboratory orders and checking labs, also improved significantly when using modern technology during patient care rounds at a large research hospital in New York. At the same time, some experts argue that process-driven activities through these systems could reduce face-to-face interactions between doctors on team shifts with each other's patients on observation status, leading to

dentify the true statement.
a.
PK is not a good predictor of how quickly the PD effect will start.
b.
How quickly a drug is distributed in the body is a study of pharmacodynamics of a drug.,
c.
How slow (or fast) a drug is metabolized can allow us to determine the dosing schedule of a drug.
d.
Both b and c

Answers

The true statement is b. How quickly a drug is distributed in the body is a study of pharmacodynamics of a drug.

Pharmacodynamic actions of a drug include stimulating activity by directly inhibiting a receptor and its downstream effects. Depressing activity by direct receptor inhibition and its downstream effects. Antagonistic or obstruction a receptor by binding to that, however not activating it.

4 stages of pharmacodynamics are Absorption: Describes however the drug moves from the location of administration to the location of action. Distribution: Describes the journey of the drug through the blood to varied tissues of the body. Metabolism: Describes the method that breaks down the drug. Excretion: Describes the removal of the drug from the body.

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In ECG, Improper electrode placement will lead to:

a)weak or no signals
b) waveform interference

Please answer the correct one :) it’s urgent! Will give brainly only if correct!

Answers

b) waveform interference

What ICD-10 -CM code is reported for carcinoma of the bladder dome?

Answers

The ICD-10-CM code for carcinoma of the bladder dome is C67.1

which specifically refers to malignant neoplasms of the trigone of the urinary bladder. The International Classification of Diseases, Tenth Revision, Clinical Modification (ICD-10-CM) is a system used to classify and code various diseases, signs, symptoms, and external causes of injury.

Carcinoma is a type of cancer that arises from epithelial cells, which are the cells that line the inner and outer surfaces of the body. In the case of the bladder, the dome is the top portion of the organ, and carcinoma of the bladder dome indicates that cancer cells are present in this specific area.



To conclude, when reporting carcinoma of the bladder dome, the appropriate ICD-10-CM code to use is C67.1. This code allows for clear communication and understanding of the specific diagnosis, which in turn supports appropriate treatment, research, and billing practices.

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Reilly is a nursing assistant working with Hunter. Reilly didn't get a chance to read Hunter's chart before entering
Hunter's room. Reilly introduces himself and says he is going to take Hunter's vitals. Hunter seems to understand but
is quiet. When Reilly turns away to get equipment, he keeps talking to Hunter to make him comfortable. He notices that
when he turns away from Hunter, Hunter waves his arms until Reilly is speaking directly face-to-face. Reilly looks at
Hunter's chart and brings in an interpreter for sign language. Which kind of communication barrier did Reilly
overcome?

Answers

Answer:

A language communication barrier

Explanation:

sign LANGUAGE  :D

xây dựng công thức mỹ phẩm chế phẩm dùng ngoài da chống lão hóa

Answers

Answer:

lo siento no se que siginfiCA Y NECESITO PUNTOS :(

Explanation:

Was the deceased on any medication?​

Answers

Find your disease or condition and discover what medication option are…

select six statements made by the parent that indicate an understanding of the discharge teaching.the statements made by the parent that indicate an understanding of the discharge teaching are:

Answers

The parent has understood the discharge teaching and will take the necessary measures to ensure that their child recovers from their illness in the best possible manner.

There are some statements made by the parent that indicate an understanding of the discharge teaching. Six such statements are: Thank you so much for all your help. I will make sure to follow the medication schedule given by the doctor. I will keep track of my child's fever and keep her hydrated by giving plenty of fluids and I will ensure that my child will take rest properly. I will take my child to follow-up appointments to make sure she's recovering well and also to follow up on any further treatments that may be needed. I have understood the signs and symptoms of complications and I will reach out to the doctor immediately if I notice any unusual symptoms. Thank you for explaining them to me. I have been advised to keep my child away from crowded places and to ensure that she doesn't come into contact with anyone who is sick. I will make sure to follow the instructions provided to me to prevent the spread of infection. Thank you for explaining them to me. These statements indicate that the parent has understood the discharge teaching and will take the necessary measures to ensure that their child recovers from their illness in the best possible manner.

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Which stage of Kohlberg's theory of moral reasoning is based on one's personal code of ethics? A. unconventional B. conventional C. preconventional D. postconventional

Answers

Answer:

D. postconventional

Explanation:

Edg

Postconventional stage of Kohlberg's theory of moral reasoning is based on one's personal code of ethics. So, the correct option is (D).

What is Kohlberg's theory?

Kohlberg's theory focuses on the thought process that occurs when one decides whether a behavior is right or wrong. Therefore, the theoretical emphasis is on how one decides to respond to a moral dilemma, not what one decides or actually does.

There are different levels of this theory which are as follows:

Stage 1: Obedience and punishment

Stage 2: Self-interest.

Stage 3: Interpersonal accord and conformity

Stage 4: Authority and maintaining social order

Stage 5: Social contract

Stage 6: Universal ethical principles.

Pre-conventional levelConventional levelPost conventional level

The right behavior of the individual, in his opinion at the post conventional level, is therefore never a means to an end, but always an end in itself, not everyone reaches this level.

Thus, Postconventional stage of Kohlberg's theory of moral reasoning is based on one's personal code of ethics. So, the correct option is (D).

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What does the fox say?

Answers

ring ding ding ding ding ding ding

Answer: meow

Explanation: My dog said so.

HCPCS level II codes are: a. sometimes replaced by HCPCS level III temporary codes. b. intended for use by all private and public health insurers. c. maintained by the AMA's Editorial Board, which makes decisions about additions, revisions, and deletions. d. updated by CMS when necessary, without participation by the HCPCS National Panel.

Answers

Answer:

HCPCS Level II codes are alphanumeric medical procedure codes, primarily for non-physician services such as ambulance services and prosthetic devices,. They represent items, supplies and non-physician services not covered by CPT-4 codes (Level I).

Explanation:

How can someone mentally condition someone to longer be a furry?

Answers

Answer:

Below:

Explanation:

People often become furries either because of their love for animals/being an animal, or because of the great community there. Even if they don't love animals more than usual, they might enjoy socializing with furries anyway because of how friendly, and honestly cute they are.

Hope it helps...

It's Muska

coders can select diagnosis codes for signs and/or symptoms that are not part of a disease process of a more definitive code. T/F?

Answers

True, Coders can choose diagnosis codes for signs and symptoms that are not associated with a specific disease process.

In medical coding, there are specific codes called "sign and symptom codes" that are used when a patient's signs and symptoms do not lead to a specific diagnosis. These codes provide information about the symptoms a patient is experiencing without indicating a definitive disease or condition.

While it is generally preferred to code for the underlying cause or disease when possible, there are situations where signs and symptoms may be the primary focus of the medical encounter. In such cases, coders can select the appropriate sign and symptom codes to accurately reflect the patient's condition.

However, it's important for coders to exercise caution and ensure they are following the coding guidelines and accurately documenting the signs and symptoms. To learn more about medical coding and the proper selection of diagnosis codes, you can explore additional resources on the topic.

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muscles are not likely to tear from their bones because:
a. The tendons are partially ossified at their attachment points to the periosteum
b. A circumferential lamellaa sandwiches the ends of the tendon onto the surface of an adjacent lamella
c. Perforating fibers of collagen attach the tendon andperosteum to the cortial surface of bone
d. Elastin fibers in the tendon can allow for streching and recoil of the muscle

Answers

Muscles are not likely to tear from their bones because perforating fibers of collagen attach the tendons and periosteum to the cortical surfaces of bone. Option C is correct.

Skeletal muscle accounts for approximately 35% of the weight of the human body. Skeletal muscle functions include movement production, posture maintenance, temperature regulation, and joint stabilization. Skeletal muscle is an endocrine organ as well. The secretome of skeletal muscles contains subsets of 654 distinct proteins as well as lipids, amino acids, metabolites, and short RNAs under various physiological circumstances.

Skeletal muscles are mostly made up of multinucleated contractile muscle fibers (myocytes). Skeletal muscles, on the other hand, include a large number of resident and invading mononuclear cells. Myocytes account for the vast bulk of skeletal muscle volume. Myocytes in skeletal muscle are typically quite big, measuring around 2-3 cm long and 100 m in diameter.

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How did john watson have different view from sigmund freud ​

Answers

Explanation:

John Watson was fascinated by the discoveries of psychoanalysis, but he rejected Freud's central concept of the unconscious as incompatible with behaviorism.

Freud incorporated the concept of the unconscious to explain transference. Watson understood and was intrigued by Freud's definition of sexual transference, but he was searching for an explanation of transference that did not involve the unconscious (Watson & Morgan, 1917)

Answer:

John Watson was fascinated by the discoveries of psychoanalysis, but he rejected Freud's central concept of the unconscious as incompatible with behaviorism. After failing to explain psychoanalysis in terms of William James's concept of habit, Watson borrowed concepts from classical conditioning to explain Freud's discoveries. Watson's famous experiment with Little Albert is interpreted not only in the context of Pavlovian conditioning but also as a psychoanalytically inspired attempt to capture simplified analogues of adult phobic behavior, including the "transference" of emotion in an infant. Watson used his behavioristic concept of conditioned emotional responses to compete with Freud's concepts of displacement and the unconscious transference of emotion. Behind a mask of anti-Freudian bias, Watson surprisingly emerges as a psychologist who popularized Freud and pioneered the scientific appraisal of his ideas in the laboratory.

Explanation:

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the drug level required for the clinical treatment of a particular infection is called the

Answers

The drug level required for the clinical treatment of a particular infection is called the therapeutic drug level. Therapeutic drug level refers to the concentration of a medication in the body that is necessary to achieve the desired therapeutic effect.

It is the range of drug concentration in the bloodstream that is effective in treating the specific infection or medical condition for which the drug is prescribed.

Therapeutic drug levels are determined based on factors such as the drug's mechanism of action, potency, pharmacokinetics, and the specific infection or condition being treated. Healthcare providers monitor drug levels through blood tests to ensure that the medication is present in the appropriate concentration to effectively combat the infection or manage the condition.

Maintaining therapeutic drug levels is important to ensure optimal treatment outcomes. If the drug level falls below the therapeutic range, it may be insufficient to combat the infection, leading to treatment failure. On the other hand, drug levels above the therapeutic range may increase the risk of adverse effects or toxicity.

Healthcare providers carefully monitor drug levels and adjust the dosage as needed to achieve and maintain therapeutic drug levels for optimal treatment efficacy and patient safety.

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when caring for a pregnant adolescent, the nurse emphasizes nutrition because she knows:

Answers

When caring for a pregnant adolescent, the nurse emphasizes nutrition because she knows that proper nutrition plays a crucial role in supporting the health and development of both the pregnant adolescent and the growing fetus.

Reasons why nutrition is emphasized:

Adequate fetal development: Proper nutrition provides essential nutrients, vitamins, and minerals necessary for the healthy growth and development of the fetus. Adequate intake of nutrients like folic acid, iron, calcium, and protein supports the formation of organs, tissues, and bones in the developing baby.Maternal health: A pregnant adolescent's body undergoes significant physiological changes to support the pregnancy. Adequate nutrition supports the mother's overall health, helps prevent complications such as anemia or gestational diabetes, and promotes healthy weight gain during pregnancy.Prevention of birth defects: Adequate intake of essential nutrients, particularly folic acid, during the early stages of pregnancy can reduce the risk of certain birth defects, such as neural tube defects (e.g., spina bifida).Energy and stamina: Pregnancy requires extra energy, and proper nutrition helps provide the necessary calories and nutrients to support the increased metabolic demands of the mother and the growing fetus. It helps maintain energy levels and prevents excessive fatigue.Prevention of pregnancy complications: Good nutrition is associated with a lower risk of pregnancy complications, such as preterm birth, low birth weight, and preeclampsia. Nutritional support can help reduce these risks and promote a healthier pregnancy outcome.Breastfeeding support: Adequate nutrition during pregnancy lays the foundation for successful breastfeeding. Proper nutrition helps ensure that the mother has sufficient stores of nutrients to produce breast milk and support the baby's nutritional needs after birth.Overall well-being: A balanced diet and good nutrition contribute to the overall well-being of the pregnant adolescent. It can help manage pregnancy discomforts, improve mood, and enhance the ability to cope with the physical and emotional demands of pregnancy.

The nurse will work closely with the pregnant adolescent to assess her nutritional status, provide education on healthy eating habits, recommend a well-balanced diet, and address any concerns or barriers to accessing nutritious food. Nutritional counseling, prenatal vitamins, and referrals to dietitians or support services may also be part of the nursing care provided to promote optimal nutrition during pregnancy.

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Gladys Swain slipped from a sidewalk curb and twisted her right ankle. Because of the severe pain she was suffering and the inability to bear weight on the foot, she sought treatment at her neighborhood hospital emergency department. The treating physicians were fairly confident that Ms. Swain had an ankle injury. The physician completed a problem-focused history regarding the injury and a problem-focused physical examination of her right foot and ankle. The MDM complexity was straightforward. The patient was immediately sent to the radiology department for an x-ray. A two-view x-ray of the right ankle was completed. The radiologist confirmed a simple closed fracture of the medial malleolus. The patient then returned to the emergency department, where the physician immobilized the ankle. The patient was referred to an orthopedic surgeon.
Code the emergency department service, and radiology service.

Answers

The emergency department service should be coded using an evaluation and management (E/M) code, while the radiology service should be coded using the appropriate CPT code for the two-view x-ray of the right ankle.

In this scenario, the patient, Gladys Swain, sought treatment at the hospital emergency department due to severe pain and inability to bear weight on her right foot after slipping and twisting her ankle. The treating physicians performed a problem-focused history and physical examination to assess the injury. The medical decision-making (MDM) complexity was determined to be straightforward, indicating that the patient's condition was not overly complex.

Following the initial evaluation, the physician ordered a two-view x-ray of the right ankle to further assess the injury. The radiologist confirmed a simple closed fracture of the medial malleolus, which is the bony prominence on the inner side of the ankle.

Once the fracture was confirmed, the patient returned to the emergency department, where the physician immobilized the ankle, providing immediate treatment to stabilize the injury. The patient was then referred to an orthopedic surgeon for further management.

To code the emergency department service, an evaluation and management (E/M) code should be used. The specific code would depend on the level of the visit, which is determined based on factors such as the extent of the history, examination, and medical decision-making involved in the patient's care.

For the radiology service, the appropriate CPT code should be used to indicate the two-view x-ray of the right ankle that was performed to confirm the fracture.

In summary, the emergency department service should be coded using an E/M code, while the radiology service should be coded using the appropriate CPT code for the two-view x-ray of the right ankle.

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the national institute of health ranks health care disparities as third among its top five priorities. t or f

Answers

The statement that the national institute of health ranks health care disparities as third among its top five priorities is true.

The term health disparities is collectively used to describe the health issues of racial and ethnic minorities, poor people, and other disadvantaged groups. Mortality rate and morbidity also comes under this. Health is an important part of an individual which must be enhanced through nutritional diet and means. Government has the responsibility of improving the health status of it citizens who cannot afford healthy food. Research is fundamental to the understanding and ultimate correction of health disparities. Hence appropriate steps need to be taken by the government and inter governmental organizations to help and assist these people and provide them with healthy living condition and nourished food.  

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An athlete falls and sustains a dislocated right shoulder. How should the athlete be transported safely to the hospital

Answers

When the athlete dislocates his shoulder, it is best to immobilize the area and take him to the doctor as soon as possible to assess the severity of the injury.

What is a dislocation?

Dislocation is a type of injury in which the bones move out of their natural position causing extreme pain to the patient. Dislocations usually occur after a fall or a blow.

How to treat a dislocation before going to the hospital?

When a person suffers a dislocation, they should avoid moving the part that was dislocated and go to the hospital immediately. There the doctors will evaluate the severity of the injury and the appropriate procedure, in some cases surgery is needed and in other cases less complex procedures.

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the nurse is administering cephulac (lactulose) to decrease the ammonia level in a patient who has hepatic encephalopathy. what should the nurse carefully monitor for that may indicate a medication overdose?

Answers

The nurse is administering cephulic (lactulose) to decrease the ammonia level in a patient who has hepatic encephalopathy. the nurse keeps an eye out for symptoms like watery diarrhea that could mean a pharmaceutical overdose.

Why does hepatic encephalopathy occur?

When toxins that the liver typically removes from the body build up in the blood and eventually reach the brain, it results in hepatic encephalopathy. When detected and treated as soon as possible, many hepatic encephalopathy symptoms are reversible.

A patient with hepatic encephalopathy is receiving cephulic (lactulose), and the nurse is monitoring him for symptoms that could indicate a drug overdose, such as watery diarrhea.

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The nurse keeps an eye out for symptoms like watery diarrhea that could mean a pharmaceutical overdose of cephulic (lactulose)

Why does hepatic encephalopathy occur?

Hepatic encephalopathy is caused when the toxins that the liver usually gets rid of in the body build up in the blood and finally get to the brain. Many hepatic encephalopathy symptoms are curable when caught and treated right away.

A nurse is keeping an eye out for signs of a drug overdose, including watery diarrhea, in a patient with hepatic encephalopathy who is receiving cephulic (lactulose).

hence,the nurse keeps an eye out for symptoms like watery diarrhea that could mean a pharmaceutical overdose of cephulic (lactulose)

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cardiovascular system disorder questions with multiple choices

Answers

Answer:

You have to put the questions and their answers for people to be able to answer your questions.

Explanation:

If i took tylenol at about 6 or 7AM in the morning and took one now at 10PM will i be okay?

Answers

No you will not be okay

Explanation:

Hi. How are you. U good?

An indemnity is a fee for service plan and provides payment on a service by service basis? True or false

Answers

Answer:

True

Explanation:

Indemnity -  With an indemnity plan (sometimes called fee-for-service), you can use any medical provider (such as a doctor and hospital). You or the provider sends the bill to the insurance company, which pays part of it. Usually, you have a deductible—such as $200—to pay each year before the insurer starts paying.

3.2 Adding up the two equivalent fractions
Add the two equivalent fractions which now have a common denominator

Combine the numerators together, put the sum or difference over the common denominator then reduce to lowest terms if possible:

2 • (x-6) - (6 • 3) 2x - 30
——————————————————— = ———————
3 3

Answers

Answer:14

Explanation:

The correct reporting for stage 4 chronic kidney disease associated with diabetes Mel lotus, type 2?

Answers

you need to stop cheating on your collage classes because you really need to know this stuff when you have to save someone’s life. the answer is a
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