These are called multiallelic traits. If GGHHII was crossed with gghhii, what would the genotype for every offspring be?

a. ggGGhhHHIIii
b. GGhHII
c. GgHhIi
d. ggHHii

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

In the crossing of individuals with multiallelic traits, the crossing of a GGHHII individual with a gghhii individual would produce offspring of hybrid individuals for all three traits whose genotype would be GgHhIi (option c).

Explanation:

The individuals GGHHII and gghhii are pure lines for each of the traits —multiallelic traits— they express, one of them having the three dominant traits and the other three recessive traits. The product of crossing two pure lines with dominant and recessive traits is an offspring of 100% heterozygous individuals.

This can be tested by making a Punnett square for this cross:

GGHHII X gghhii

Alleles     GHI        GHI

ghi         GgHhIi   GgHhIi

ghi         GgHhIi   GgHhIi

Thus the offspring in the cross of two individuals, dominant and recessive, for multiallelic traits G, H and I is GgHhIi


Related Questions

what qualitative information can a high-resolution transmission electron microscope (hr-tem) reveal about a material? (check all that apply.)

Answers

A high-resolution transmission electron microscope (HR-TEM) can reveal several qualitative information about a material, including its crystal structure, lattice defects, grain boundaries, chemical composition, and the presence of nanoparticles or nanoscale features.

A high-resolution transmission electron microscope (HR-TEM) is a powerful tool for investigating the structure and properties of materials at the atomic scale. By using a focused electron beam to transmit through a thin specimen, HR-TEM can provide detailed qualitative information about the material under study.

Firstly, HR-TEM can reveal the crystal structure of a material. By analyzing the diffraction patterns produced by the electron beam interacting with the crystal lattice, researchers can determine the arrangement of atoms within the material.

Secondly, HR-TEM can identify lattice defects within a material. These defects include vacancies, dislocations, stacking faults, and other structural imperfections that can affect the material's mechanical, electrical, or optical properties. HR-TEM allows researchers to visualize and characterize these defects at high resolution.

Furthermore, HR-TEM can detect and analyze grain boundaries in polycrystalline materials. Grain boundaries are interfaces between adjacent crystalline grains and can significantly influence the material's properties. HR-TEM enables researchers to examine the structure and properties of grain boundaries, providing insights into the material's behavior.

Additionally, HR-TEM can provide information about the chemical composition of a material. By utilizing energy-dispersive X-ray spectroscopy (EDS) in combination with TEM, researchers can map and identify the elements present in the material, aiding in the understanding of its composition and elemental distribution.

Lastly, HR-TEM is capable of visualizing nanoparticles and nanoscale features within a material. The high-resolution imaging capability of HR-TEM allows for the observation and characterization of nanoscale structures, such as nanoparticles, nanotubes, and nanowires, providing valuable insights into their size, shape, and arrangement.

In summary, a high-resolution transmission electron microscope (HR-TEM) can reveal qualitative information about a material's crystal structure, lattice defects, grain boundaries, chemical composition, and the presence of nanoparticles or nanoscale features. This information is crucial for understanding the material's properties and behavior at the atomic and nanoscale levels.

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Which statement describes an advantage of sexual reproduction over asexual reproduction?​​​​​​​

Answers

Answer:

One advantage is that secual reproduction provide variation which can help living things survive in different environment. Asexuals cannot have variation.

Explanation:

One advantage is that sexual reproduction provide variation which can help living things survive in different environment. Asexuals cannot have variation.

What is sexual reproduction?

When sperm from a male parent fertilizes an egg from a female parent during sexual reproduction, the result is an offspring that is genetically distinct from both parents.

The genetic diversity of organisms is a result of sexual reproduction. Meiosis, a process that creates sperm and egg cells, is the first step in sexual reproduction.

Because they have half as many chromosomes as the parent, these cells are known as haploids. A diploid zygote is created during sexual reproduction when a male parent's haploid sperm fertilizes a female parent's haploid egg.

Therefore, One advantage is that sexual reproduction provide variation which can help living things survive in different environment. Asexuals cannot have variation.

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which of the following are features of operons? select all that apply. choose one or more: a. riboswitch b. start codon (aug) c. poly (u) tail d. promoter e. protein-coding genes f. operator

Answers

Operons are regulatory units found in prokaryotic cells, responsible for controlling the expression of genes involved in specific functions. Features of operons include: a. Riboswitch: Not a typical feature of operons, but can regulate certain operons by binding small molecules and affecting the gene expression.


b. Start codon (AUG): Not specific to operons, but present in all genes as the initiation signal for protein synthesis.
c. Poly (U) tail: Not a feature of operons, as it is specific to eukaryotic mRNA, not found in prokaryotes.
d. Promoter: A feature of operons; a DNA sequence recognized by RNA polymerase for initiating transcription.
e. Protein-coding genes: A key feature of operons; they consist of functionally related protein-coding genes that are transcribed together as a single unit.
f. Operator: A feature of operons; a DNA sequence that controls the access of RNA polymerase to the promoter, regulating gene expression through the binding of regulatory proteins like repressors or activators.
In summary, the features of operons include the promoter, protein-coding genes, and operator.

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How do plants use flowers

Answers

Answer:

I don't know the answer, but it won't let me delete my previous answer.

Explanation:

What is the difference between inorganic and organic compounds? A. Organic compounds are beneficial to the environment and inorganic compounds are not. B. Organic compounds contain carbon and inorganic compounds do not. C. Organic compounds contain ionic bonds and inorganic compounds contain covalent bonds. D. Organic compounds are produced naturally and inorganic compounds are human-made.

Answers

Answer: B would be the best answer

Explanation: The primary difference that lies between these organic compounds and inorganic compounds is that organic compounds always have a carbon atom while most of the inorganic compounds do not contain the carbon atom in them. Almost all the organic compounds contain the carbon-hydrogen or a simple C-H bond in them.

Option B is the right answer.

Organic compounds contain carbon and inorganic compounds do not.

Organic compounds contain one or more carbon atoms covalently linked to atoms of other elements, most commonly hydrogen, oxygen, or nitrogen. Carbides, carbonates, and cyanides are among the few carbon-containing compounds that are not classified as organic.

Organic compounds have covalently bound carbon, hydrogen, and frequently other elements. In chemistry, an inorganic compound lacks carbon-hydrogen bonds, i.e. is not an organic compound. Inorganic chemistry is a discipline of chemistry that studies inorganic compounds.

The most obvious difference between organic and inorganic substances is that organic compounds are primarily the outcome of the activity of a living being. In contrast, inorganic chemicals are obtained through natural processes unrelated to any of the Earth's life forms.

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The end of the spinal cord forms the ___? What is it called ?

Answers

The spinal cord begins at the bottom of the brain stem (at the area called the medulla oblongata) and ends in the lower back, as it tapers to form a cone called the conus medullaris.

Leg muscles are predominantly composed of which type of muscle fiber?
a. Slow oxidative
b. Fast glycolytic
c. Fast oxidative-glycolytic
d. Slow glycolytic
e. Fast oxidative

Answers

Leg muscles are predominantly composed of slow oxidative muscle fiber. What are muscle fibers? Muscle fibers are muscle cells that are long and cylindrical. They contract in response to stimuli, which leads to the movement of body parts.

Muscle fibers are responsible for the movement of the body and are made up of two types of muscle fibers: slow oxidative and fast glycolytic.

Type of muscle fiber in leg muscles: Slow oxidative muscle fibers are more prevalent in leg muscles than other types of muscle fibers. Slow oxidative muscle fibers are suited for long, steady, submaximal exercises because they have a lot of mitochondria and myoglobin, which provide oxygen for energy production. They have a lower glycolytic capacity, which means they use carbohydrates less effectively to generate energy. Slow oxidative muscle fibers are essential for activities that require endurance, such as walking, running, and cycling.

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If the calvin cycle were to be temporarily restricted, the highest concentration of nadph would likely be in the.

Answers

If the Calvin cycle were to be temporarily restricted, the highest concentration of NADPH would likely be in option  C. stroma.

The Calvin cycle, light-impartial reactions, bio-artificial phase, dark reactions, or photosynthetic carbon discount cycle of photosynthesis is a chain of chemical reactions that convert carbon dioxide and hydrogen-carrier compounds into glucose.

The Calvin cycle is defined because of the series of chemical reactions of plant life by way of turning or lowering carbon dioxide into glucose. it is also referred to as the C3 cycle or in any other case known as the Calvin-Benson-Bassham (CBB) cycle. The C3 cycle alludes to the darkish response of photosynthesis.

The Calvin Cycle takes place in the stroma of a chloroplast in a plant cell. The stroma is the colorless fluid that surrounds the grana of the chloroplast, in which step one of photosynthesis takes area.

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Disclaimer:- your question is incomplete, please see below for the complete question.

If the Calvin cycle were to be temporarily restricted, the highest concentration of NADPH would likely be in the.

A. thylakoid membrane.

B. thylakoid space.

C. stroma.

D. chloroplast outer membrane.

When during the cell cycle is a cell’s DNA replicated

Answers

Answer:

In the eukaryotic cell cycle, chromosome duplication occurs.

Explanation:

Answer:

S phase

Explanation:NA is replicated during the S phase of the cell cycle. After passing the G1 checkpoint, which evaluates whether a cell has the size, nutrients, and DNA integrity to continue with replication, the cell becomes committed to division.

Compare and contrast inhalation and exhalation in terms of what takes place between the lungs
and the diaphragm muscle.

Answers

During inhalation, the diaphragm contracts. As it contracts, the diaphragm moves downward, increasing the volume within the thoracic cavity. Due to this increased volume in the thoracic cavity, a negative pressure gradient is generated which causes air to flow from the environment into the lungs. The lungs expand as the alveoli of the lungs fill with air.

During exhalation, the diaphragm relaxes and rises into the thoracic cavity, decreasing the volume in the thoracic cavity. The decreased volume in the thoracic cavity results in an increased pressure which causes air to flow from the lungs out to the environment. At the same time, the lungs are elastic and act to help air flow out as the retract after being expanded.

Three genes in Drosophila-black, dumpy,and vestigial-are linked to each other From series of two-factor crosses, the following map distances are obtained dumpy-black 34 map units dumpy-vestigial 50 map units vestigial-black 19 map units a. What is the order of these three genes? b. dumpy is found at position 13 on the standard map of the chromosome What would be the positions associated with black and vestigial, based on these data? (Modified from Sib, Owen, and Edgar, General Genetics, 2nd edition, 1965) n tomatoes round fruit is dominant over elongated fruit, and smooth skin is dominant over fuzzy or peach skin. An F, plant with round fruit and smooth skin is test-crossed The following plants were found in the next generation Round and smooth Round and peach Elongated and smooth 124 Elongated and peach

Answers

Based on the given data, the positions associated with black and vestigial would be 47 and 63 map units, respectively.

a. Based on the given map distances, the order of the three genes can be determined as follows:

black - vestigial - dumpy

b. The position of black and vestigial genes can be determined by comparing their distances to the known position of the dumpy. Since dumpy is found at position 13 on the standard map, we can calculate the positions associated with black and vestigial as follows:

Black: The distance between black and dumpy is 34 map units. Therefore, the position of black would be 13 + 34 = 47 map units.

vestigial: The distance between vestigial and dumpy is 50 map units. Therefore, the position of vestigial would be 13 + 50 = 63 map units.

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A force of 900 N pushes a wedge 0. 10m into a log. If the work done on the log is 50 j, what is the efficiency of the wedge

Answers

The efficiency of the wedge is approximately 55.56%.

The efficiency of the wedge can be calculated using the formula:

Efficiency = (Work output / Work input) x 100%

Where work output is the useful work done by the wedge, and work input is the total work done on the wedge.

In this case, the work input is the force multiplied by the distance the wedge is pushed into the log:

Work input = Force x Distance

⇒                 = 900 N x 0.1 m

⇒                 = 90 J

The work output is given as 50 J.

Therefore, the efficiency of the wedge is:

Efficiency = (50 J / 90 J) x 100%

⇒               = 55.56%

As a result, the wedge's efficiency is approximately 55.56%. This means that only 55.56% of the total work done on the wedge is converted into useful work, while the remaining energy is lost due to factors such as friction and deformation.

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Calibration of ocular micrometer: stage micrometer is a glass slide having precisely spaced lines etched at know intervals, the smallest space in stage micrometer is 1 µm. The length of 1 ocular unit (the smallest single space of ocular micrometer) is ________ µm.

Calibration of ocular micrometer: stage micrometer is a glass slide having precisely spaced lines etched

Answers

The correct answer is 0.2 micrometers. Since 5 single spaces of the ocular micrometer fit in one space of the stage micrometer. That is 5 single spaces of the ocular micrometer = 1 space of the stage micrometer (which stands for 1 micrometer).

The tiny particles called atoms are the basic building blocks of all___

Answers

Answer: The tiny particles called atoms are the basic building blocks of all matter

what kind of science fair projects can I do that has two variables.

I will give brainliest to the best answer.

Answers

Answer:

Ethylene gas or pill bugs

Explanation:

The ethylene gas experiment is basically finding out if the plant hormone, ethylene, keeps leaves on the stem healthier. have a bag with a apple and a tree steam with any number of leaves on it then have the control with a tree stem that has the same number of leaves but no apple.

The Pill bug (rollie-pollies) experiment is try to determine whether or not pill bugs prefer a dry or damp environments.  

Which statement is true about viruses?
O They are more complex in structure and function than bacteria
O They are eukaryotic cells
O
They consist of a nucleic acid surrounded by a protein coat
о O
They are usually not pathogenic

Answers

Answer:

option C is correct

Explanation:

virus are made up of nucleic acid and surrounded by protein coat

what change occurred in each population of bacteria from the early generation to the later generation ?

Answers

The maximal population of some bacterial species at the end of the log phase can reach a density of 10 to 30 billion cells per milliliter under ideal circumstances.

Since the very beginning of life on Earth, bacteria have existed.

There is strong evidence that bacteria have existed since the early Precambrian Period, or roughly 3.5 billion years ago, as evidenced by the discovery of fossilized bacteria in rocks from the Devonian Period (419.2 million to 358.9 million years ago).

At least since the Paleoproterozoic period, which lasted for around 1.8 billion years, when oxygen was produced by cyanobacteria and entered the atmosphere, bacteria have been present in large numbers on Earth.

As a result, bacteria have had plenty of time to evolve into a variety of offspring forms and adapt to their environs.

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Lysogenic viruses do not

Answers

Answer:

Unlike a lytic virus, a lysogenic virus does not cause the host cell to lyse away. A lysogenic virus can remain inactive for a period of time. In lysogenic infection, viral DNA gets integrated with the host cell's DNA, where it is copied along with the host cell's DNA when the host cell replicates.

Explanation:

A study conducted for the Trybow chicken company in 2000 proved that chickens receiving antibiotic treatment do not harm those who eat it. The data was collected from a sample of 3 chickens and was conducted by a company that is not licensed in conducting animal testing. All of the other studies found in scientific journals prove that antibiotics used to treat chickens are harmful to human beings that eat it. Evaluate how credible this data is using 4 of the criteria presented in the chapter. Make sure to present it in a bullet point format.

Answers

Here are four criteria that can be used to evaluate the credibility of the data presented in the study conducted for the Trybow chicken company in 2000:

Sample size: The study only included 3 chickens, which is a very small sample size. A larger sample size would be needed to draw reliable conclusions about the effects of antibiotic treatment on chickens.

Source of data: The data was collected by a company that is not licensed to conduct animal testing, which raises questions about the reliability and validity of the data. It is important to use data collected by trained and qualified professionals to ensure the validity and reliability of the results.

Methodology: The study did not provide any information about the methodology used to collect the data or to analyze the results, which raises questions about the validity and reliability of the study. A well-designed study should include a clear methodology that is explained in detail.

Conclusion: The study concluded that antibiotics used to treat chickens do not harm those who eat it, but this conclusion is contradicted by other studies that have found that antibiotics used in animal agriculture can harm human health. It is important to consider the consensus of scientific evidence when evaluating the credibility of a study.

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how does doppler evaluation demonstrate that the pulmonary vascular resistance is normally lower than resistance in the systemic vascular system?

Answers

Aortic valve flow achieves peak velocity more quickly than pulmonary valve flow does.

This is due to the fact that the metarterioles & precapillary sphincters inside the pulmonary circuit have had less smooth muscle than their equivalents in the systemic circulation, which makes them less blood flow resistant! Blood is expelled by the left ventricle through the aortic valve despite the systemic circulation's high pressure, frequently referred as systemic vascular resistance (SVR). The right ventricle dislodges blood thru the pulmonic valve against by the low pressure of a pulmonary circulation, as well as pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR) (PVR). The pressure gradient inside the systemic circulation is 100 mmHg, whereas the pressure decreases from the pulmonary artery to the lungs to the left atrium is only about 10 mmHg. PVR is therefore one-tenth of systemic circulation's resistance.

(how does doppler evaluation demonstrate that the pulmonary vascular resistance is normally lower than resistance in the systemic vascular system

a. the flow through the aortic valve reaches peak velocity faster than the flow through the pulmonary valve

b. the aortic flow pattern is more rounded while the pulmonary artery flow pattern is more peaked

c. the flow through pulmonary valve reaches a peak velocity faster than the flow through the aortic valve

d. the pulmonary valve tracing always demonstrates a lower peak velocity than the aortic valve tracing)

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Explain why harmful mutations are less likely to be passed to offspring

Answers

A gene mutation is a permanent alteration in the DNA sequence that makes up a gene, such that the sequence differs from what is found in most people. ... Acquired mutations in somatic cells (cells other than sperm and egg cells) cannot be passed to the next generation.

Which extracellular matrix component is expressed in a cell-specific manner and binds to the tripeptide sequence Arg-Gly-Asp

Answers

The extracellular matrix component that is expressed in a cell-specific manner and binds to the tripeptide sequence Arg-Gly-Asp (RGD) is fibronectin.

Fibronectin is a glycoprotein found in the extracellular matrix that plays a crucial role in cell adhesion, migration, and signaling. It is composed of repeating structural motifs and contains binding sites for various molecules, including integrins on cell surfaces. The tripeptide sequence Arg-Gly-Asp (RGD) is a recognized motif within fibronectin that serves as a binding site for integrin receptors.

Integrins are cell surface receptors that mediate interactions between cells and the extracellular matrix. When the RGD sequence in fibronectin binds to specific integrins on the cell surface, it promotes adhesion and signaling, allowing cells to interact with and respond to their surrounding matrix environment.

The expression of fibronectin can be cell-specific, meaning that different cell types can produce and secrete fibronectin with specific variations or isoforms. These variations can affect the binding properties and functions of fibronectin, contributing to the specificity of cell-matrix interactions in different tissues and physiological contexts.

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The meiotic cell cycle involves ________ number of cell division(s) and ________ number of dna replication(s). two; two one; two two; one one; one two; zero

Answers

The meiotic cell cycle which involves the two number of the cell division(s) and one number of the dna replication(s).

The DNA replicates is both mitosis and the meiosis. In meiosis, the cell was undergoes the  two divisions, i.e. meiosis I and II. Meiosis I is the reduction division and the meiosis II is similar to mitosis but the DNA replicates only once during the meiosis, i.e. before the meiosis I in S phase

The S phase of the cell cycle occurs during the interphase, before the mitosis or meiosis, and is also responsible for the synthesis of the  replication of the DNA.

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Illustration hkw echolocation works for the bat. How does this
Help the bat?

Answers

Echolocation helps the bat to find the prey about where they prey is located with the help of the vibrations of its echo.

To find out if the bats could anticipate where the insects would move, researchers watched the bats' head motions while echolocating insects. The bat gauges the distance to its prey by measuring the interval between each echolocation call and the subsequent echoes.

They slant their heads to detect the shifting echoes' intensities and determine the location of the prey in the horizontal plane. To successfully follow a wildly flying bug, bats must combine echo information regarding object distance and direction.

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Correct question:

Illustrate how echolocation works for the bat. How does this help the bat?

Anyone know this question?​

Anyone know this question?

Answers

won’t let me do it hold on

Answer:

Its below in the explanation

Explanation:

the

AA is Hh

Bb is Hh

Cc-Hh

Dd-Hh

Ee-Hh

ff-HH

GG-HH  

HH-HH

ii-Hh

Jj-Hh

kk-HH

Ll-Hh

Mm-Hh

nn-HH

oo-HH

Pp- Hh

the first species to populate an area when primary succession begins are called:________

Answers

The pioneer species is the first species to populate an area when primary succession begins.

Mosses and lichens are often the first organisms to appear in areas of primary succession. These organisms are known as pioneer species because they were the first to appear; pioneer species, like human pioneers, must be hardy and strong.

A pioneer species is the first to colonize a desolate ecosystem. These hardy plant and microbial species are also the first to re-establish themselves in environments that have been disrupted by events such as wildfires and deforestation. Pioneer species help the ecosystem recover by making it more hospitable to later species. Typically, this is accomplished through soil stabilization, nutrient enrichment, reduced light availability and wind exposure, and temperature regulation.

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if a dna molecule is composed of 18% adenine bases, what percent of the dna is composed of the following bases: thymine: % cytosine: % guanine: % uracil: %

Answers

The percentages are as follows: Thymine: 18%, Cytosine: 32%, Guanine: 32%, and Uracil: 0%.

Based on the given information, we can determine the percentage of each base in the DNA molecule using Chargaff's rules.

Since DNA is composed of complementary base pairs, the percentage of adenine (A) equals the percentage of thymine (T), and the percentage of cytosine (C) equals the percentage of guanine (G). Uracil is not present in DNA, as it is a component of RNA.

Given that the DNA molecule is composed of 18% adenine bases, we have:

Thymine (T): 18% (equal to adenine)

Since A+T = 36%, the remaining percentage for C+G is 100% - 36% = 64%. Assuming C and G are equal, we get:

Cytosine (C): 32% (half of the C+G percentage)
Guanine (G): 32% (half of the C+G percentage)
Uracil (U): 0% (not present in DNA)

So, the percentages are as follows: Thymine: 18%, Cytosine: 32%, Guanine: 32%, and Uracil: 0%.

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Which of the following chromosomal abnormalities is incompatible with life? A) Monosomy 21. B) Trisomy 21. C) Monosomy X D) Trisomy

Answers

Chromosomal abnormalities are structural or numerical abnormalities in the chromosomes. Monosomy X (Turner syndrome) is the chromosomal abnormality that is considered incompatible with life.

Monosomy X (Turner syndrome) is a chromosomal abnormality in which a female is born with only one X chromosome instead of the usual two. It is caused by the complete or partial absence of the second sex chromosome. Though girls born with Turner syndrome usually have good odds for a normal life, the majority of babies with the condition are lost to miscarriage or stillbirth.

Individuals with Turner syndrome often experience various physical and developmental abnormalities, including short stature, infertility, heart defects, and certain learning disabilities. While Turner syndrome can present significant challenges and medical issues, with appropriate medical care and support, individuals with this condition can lead fulfilling lives.

Trisomy 21 (Down syndrome) is a chromosomal abnormality where there is an extra copy of chromosome 21. While it can lead to developmental delays and health issues, individuals with Down syndrome can live into adulthood and have a wide range of abilities.

It's important to note that every individual and case is unique, and the impact of a chromosomal abnormality on an individual's life can vary. The term "incompatible with life" is subjective and should be used with caution as it can be stigmatizing and misleading.

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Complete the table by filling in the missing information. Use these choices:

frameshift
substitution


7. UGU-CCG-GAA-CGA

UGC-CGG-GAA-CGA

8. GAA-CGU-AGC-GGU

GAU-CGU-AGC-GGU

9. UGU-UUC-CCU-UAA

UGU-UCC-CUU-AA

Complete the table by filling in the missing information. Use these choices:frameshiftsubstitution7.

Answers

Answer:

7. Substitution mutation

8. Substitution mutation

9. Frameshift mutation

Explanation:

A substitution mutation is any kind of mutation that involves replacement of one or more nucleotide base by another in a sequence.

A frameshift mutation, on the other hand, is a mutation that changes the reading frame of the sequence. Two types of mutations cause frameshift viz: insertion and deletion mutation.

In the following sequences, mutation has occured as follows:

7. UGU-CCG-GAA-CGA to UGC-CGG-GAA-CGA - Substitution mutation has occured because nucleotides C and G has replaced C and U in the first and second codons respectively.

8. GAA-CGU-AGC-GGU to GAU-CGU-AGC-GGU- A substitution mutation because nucleotide U has replaced A in the first codon.

9. UGU-UUC-CCU-UAA to UGU-UCC-CUU-AA - A frameshift mutation because nucleotide U has been removed from the second codon, hence, causing a change in the reading frame.

The human body is a complex system. Which pair of systems below is most directly required to make the human body move?

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

The answer to your question: The muscular and skeletal systems! Hope this helped :)

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