The Space Shuttle carried a reconnaissance satellite into a 173-nmi circular parking orbit. Now the satellite is to be placed into an elliptical orbit with perigee at 175 nmi and a period of 24 h.
Required:
a. Find the ΔV required along with the characteristics of the new orbit.
b. Find the ΔV required for a Hohmann transfer from the surface of a nonrotating Earth to the parking orbit.
Answers
To place the reconnaissance satellite into an elliptical orbit with a perigee of 175 nmi and a period of 24 hours, a ΔV is required, which can be calculated using the vis-viva equation. For a Hohmann transfer from the surface of a nonrotating Earth to the parking orbit, the ΔV can be determined by subtracting the velocity of the parking orbit from the velocity required for the transfer orbit.
a. To place the reconnaissance satellite into an elliptical orbit with perigee at 175 nautical miles (nmi) and a period of 24 hours, a ΔV (change in velocity) is required. The ΔV can be calculated using the vis-viva equation, which relates the velocity of an object in orbit to the semimajor axis of the orbit. By determining the required semimajor axis for the new orbit, we can find the corresponding velocity change.
b. To calculate the ΔV required for a Hohmann transfer from the surface of a nonrotating Earth to the parking orbit, we need to consider the difference in velocities between the two orbits. The ΔV can be obtained by subtracting the velocity of the parking orbit from the velocity required for the transfer orbit.
This difference in velocities accounts for the energy needed to transition from one orbit to another and is typically achieved by performing two engine burns: one to raise the perigee and another to raise the apogee.
In summary, for part a, the ΔV required and characteristics of the new elliptical orbit can be determined by calculating the required semimajor axis and corresponding velocity change. For part b, the ΔV required for a Hohmann transfer can be calculated by finding the difference in velocities between the parking orbit and the transfer orbit.
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Related Questions
the primary concern in establishing the firing order for an opposed engine is to
Answers
The primary concern in establishing the firing order for an opposed engine is to achieve balance and minimize vibrations. It is crucial for smooth operation and improved performance.
Opposed engines, also known as flat engines or boxer engines, have their cylinders arranged in a horizontally opposed configuration, with pairs of cylinders facing each other. The firing order refers to the sequence in which the spark plugs ignite the fuel-air mixture in the cylinders. It is crucial to determine the firing order correctly to maintain engine balance and minimize vibrations.
A well-designed firing order helps distribute the firing impulses evenly across the engine's rotation cycle. This balance reduces engine vibrations, improves overall performance, and enhances driver comfort. By having an optimized firing order, opposing forces generated by the reciprocating motion of the pistons are counterbalanced, resulting in smoother operation and reduced engine noise.
The firing order selection considers factors such as piston motion, crankshaft layout, and engine design. It aims to minimize the occurrence of firing impulses in quick succession, which could lead to excessive engine vibrations. Additionally, the firing order takes into account the ignition timing, valve timing, and fuel injection sequencing to ensure proper combustion and maximize engine efficiency.
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Solve: cosine (x + pi) = one-half over the interval left-bracket startfraction pi over 2 endfraction, pi right-bracket. Startfraction pi over 2 endfraction startfraction 2 pi over 3 endfraction startfraction 3 pi over 4 endfraction startfraction 5 pi over 6 endfraction.
Answers
Answer:
2pi/3 - edge
Explanation:
trust
Answer:
2pi/3
Explanation:
A source current of 10 mA is supplied to a parallel circuit consisting of the following resistors three resistors, a 2200 a 500 and a 1KO. What is the source voltage required to
supply the current
Answers
what fraction of resist ends up on the wafer in spin coating?
Answers
The fraction of resist that ends up on the wafer in spin coating depends on various factors and can vary significantly.
In spin coating, a liquid resist is dispensed onto a rotating wafer, and centrifugal force spreads the resist into a thin and uniform film. The efficiency of this process, in terms of how much resist ends up on the wafer, is influenced by several key factors.
Firstly, the viscosity of the resist plays a crucial role. Higher viscosity resists tend to stay on the wafer better, resulting in a higher fraction of resist remaining on the surface. Conversely, lower viscosity resists may experience more splattering or dripping off the edges, leading to a lower fraction of resist on the wafer.
The spin speed also impacts the resist distribution. The force generated by the spinning motion affects the resist's movement and behavior. If the spin speed is too low, the resist may not spread evenly, resulting in uneven coating thickness and potentially leaving some areas of the wafer bare. On the other hand, excessively high spin speeds can cause the resist to be thrown off the wafer, resulting in a lower fraction of resist remaining on the surface.
Other factors, such as the dispensing technique, the size and shape of the wafer, and the properties of the resist itself, including its surface tension and wetting characteristics, can also influence the fraction of resist on the wafer.
Given the complexities and interplay of these factors, it is challenging to provide a specific fraction for resist ending up on the wafer in spin coating. The fraction can range from a high percentage, approaching 100%, for optimized conditions and suitable resists, to much lower percentages in less ideal scenarios.
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3 4/5÷2/5 as a fraction
Answers
Answer:
9 1/2
Explanation:
3 4/5 is 3.8
2/5 is 0.4
divide 3.8 by 0.4 you get 9.5 which is 9 1/2 in a fraction
Consider the following recursive definition of a set S of strings. 1. Any letter in {a,b,c) is in S; 2. If XES, then XX ES: 3. If xes, then CXES Which of the following strings are in S? ba a ca cbca acac X cb cbcb cba cbccbc aa ccbccb ccaca Occb
Answers
Strings in S: ba, a, ca, cbca, acac, cb, cbcb, cba.
Which strings are in set S?The recursive definition of set S allows us to determine which strings are in S based on the given rules. Let's analyze each string mentioned and check if it belongs to S:
ba: This string satisfies rule 1, as both 'b' and 'a' are in {a, b, c}. Therefore, ba is in S.a: This string satisfies rule 1 since 'a' is in {a, b, c}. Thus, a is in S.ca: This string satisfies rule 1 as both 'c' and 'a' are in {a, b, c}. Therefore, ca is in S.cbca: This string satisfies rule 2 since cb is in S and ca is in S (by applying rule 3 to ca). Hence, cbca is in S.acac: This string satisfies rule 2 since ac is in S and ac is in S (by applying rule 1). Thus, acac is in S.X: The string X does not satisfy any of the given rules. Therefore, X is not in S.cb: This string satisfies rule 2 since cb is in S. Hence, cb is in S.cbcb: This string satisfies rule 2 since cb is in S, and cb is in S. Therefore, cbcb is in S.cba: This string satisfies rule 2 since cb is in S, and a is in S (by applying rule 1). Thus, cba is in S.cbccbc: This string satisfies rule 2 since cb is in S, and cbcb is in S. Therefore, cbccbc is in S.aa: This string satisfies rule 2 since a is in S. Hence, aa is in S.ccbccb: This string satisfies rule 2 since cc is in S, and ccb is in S. Therefore, ccbccb is in S.ccaca: This string satisfies rule 2 since cc is in S, and ac is in S. Thus, ccaca is in S.Occb: The string Occb does not satisfy any of the given rules. Therefore, Occb is not in S.In summary, the following strings are in S: ba, a, ca, cbca, acac, cb, cbcb, cba, cbccbc, aa, ccbccb, ccaca.
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In 3-5 sentences, explain one Internet of Things technology and how abstractions improve its functionality
Answers
One example of Internet of Things Technology is Go.o.gle Home Voice Controller. This technology is one of the most popular IoT devices in the world. It affords one the ability to use voice to control services such as:
In computer science, abstraction is defined similarly. It is a condensed form of anything technical, such as a software function or object. The purpose of "abstracting" data is to minimize complexity by eliminating irrelevant information.
By simplifying the commands required for the above device to work, abstraction has been utilized.
For example, with a simple command such as "Light" the above named device would turn on the light in a space where it has been set upo.
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A cylindrical specimen of some metal alloy having an elastic modulus of:________
Answers
A cylindrical specimen of some metal alloy having an elastic modulus of GPA.
The way a material is stiff is determined by its elastic modulus. To put it another way, it is a gauge for how easily a material can stretch or bend. It is the stress and strain diagram's slope up to the proportionality limit.
The ratio of tensile stress to tensile strain is known as the Young's modulus (E), a feature of the material that indicates how easily it can stretch and flex. Where strain is extension per unit length ( = dl/l) and stress is the amount of force applied per unit area ( = F/A). Young's modulus, which is also known as the elastic or tensile modulus.
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A visual lead of ________ seconds or 1 city block is appropriate when driving in traffic in urban areas.
Answers
The answer is
A visual lead of 12-15 seconds or 1 city block is appropriate when driving in traffic urban areas.
Urban driving involves a variety of complex driving situations.
when you driving in urban areas, look at least 12-15 seconds ahead of vehicle.
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Answer: 5
Explanation:
just took it
What statement about the print() function is true?
print() has a variable number of parameters.
print() can have only one parameter.
print() can be used to obtain values from the keyboard.
print() does not automatically add a line break to the display.
Answers
Explanation:
print() has a variable number of parameters. this is the answer.
hope this helps you
have a nice day
Which of the following is an implication of low
variety?
A. low unit cost
B. flexibility needed
C. high complexity
D. matching customers specific needs
PLEASE EXPLAIN WHICH IS CORRECT WITH EXPLANATION
Answers
The correct option for the implication of low variety is B) Flexibility needed. Variety refers to the number of different products, services, or activities that an organization offers. High variety means that a company offers a wide variety of products or services, while low variety means that a company provides a limited range of products or services.
One of the implications of low variety is that customers have limited options. They are restricted to purchasing only those goods and services that the company offers, which may not match their requirements or preferences. This may lead to losing customers to rivals who offer a greater variety of goods and services.
In the case of low variety, it is critical to have the required flexibility. Customers may ask for certain specific goods or services that are not provided by the company. To meet customer requirements, the company should be adaptable and able to rapidly respond to customer requests by expanding its product line. As a result, low variety necessitates the need for flexibility.
The other given options are not valid. Low unit cost is not related to low variety. Unit cost may be affected by economies of scale and other factors, but it is not directly related to variety. High complexity is not related to low variety as well. As the range of goods and services offered by the company increases, the complexity of the company's operations and management also increases. Matching customers' specific needs is partially correct because the company cannot match customer specific needs in low variety. In low variety, the company has a limited range of goods and services, so it is not possible to fulfill all the customers’ specific needs.
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the fire investigator uses knowledge filters to evaluate and analyze
Answers
As a fire investigator, it is essential to have a strong understanding of the fire investigation process and be able to evaluate and analyze data effectively. One critical tool used in this process is knowledge filters. Knowledge filters are used to sort through and evaluate the information gathered during the investigation.
These filters can include things like experience, education, and training, and they help to identify critical pieces of information needed to determine the cause and origin of the fire.
When evaluating the information collected, it is essential to use knowledge filters to determine which pieces of data are relevant to the investigation. For example, an investigator may filter through witness statements to identify any inconsistencies or information that does not align with physical evidence. This process helps to identify the key facts of the investigation and eliminate any irrelevant data.
Overall, knowledge filters are an essential tool for fire investigators. They help to ensure that the investigation is thorough, accurate, and ultimately, lead to an accurate determination of the cause and origin of the fire.
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Portable electronic machines known as AEDs are used to analyze and treat life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias. They are an automated and external type of a device known as what?
Answers
Note that it is correct to state that Portable electronic machines known as AEDs are used to analyze and treat life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias. They are a type of defibrillator.
What is the explanation for the above response?Note that AED's are a kind of defibrillator that are created and designed to be used by laypeople or people of low medical skills instead of medical professionals.
This device can analyze the heart's rhythm and indicated if the patient will need to be shocked with electricity to restore balance to their hearts Rythm.
Thus, it is correct to state that AEDs are an automated and external type of a device known as defibrillator.
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A counterflow heat exchanger operating at steady state has water entering as saturated vapor at 1 bar with a mass flow rate of 2 kg/s and exiting as saturated liquid at 1 bar. Air enters in a separate stream at 300 K, 1 bar and exits at 335 K witha negligible change in pressure. Heat transfer between the heat exchanger and its surroundings is negligible. Determine (a) the change in the flow exergy rate of each stream, in kW. (b) the rate of exergy destruction in the heat exchanger, in kW. Ignore the effects of motion and gravity. Let To 300 K,P) 1 bar.
Answers
Flow exergy rate = mass flow rate * (specific exergy + kinetic exergy + potential exergy)
Exergy destruction rate = (T_hot - T_cold) * (entropy generation rate)
where T_hot and T_cold are the hot and cold stream temperatures, respectively, and entropy generation rate can be calculated using the following equation:
Entropy generation rate = (heat transfer rate / T_hot) - (heat transfer rate / T_cold)
Given:
- Water enters at 1 bar as saturated vapor with a mass flow rate of 2 kg/s and exits as saturated liquid at 1 bar.
- Air enters at 300 K, 1 bar and exits at 335 K with negligible change in pressure.
- Heat transfer between the heat exchanger and its surroundings is negligible.
Assumptions:
- Negligible effects of motion and gravity.
- Negligible changes in kinetic and potential energy.
(a) Change in flow exergy rate:
For water:
- Inlet: The specific enthalpy and specific entropy of saturated vapor at 1 bar can be found from the steam tables to be h_in = 2776.1 kJ/kg and s_in = 7.3607 kJ/(kg*K), respectively. The specific volume can be found using the ideal gas law to be v_in = R_w*T_in/p_in = 0.2968 m^3/kg, where R_w is the specific gas constant for water vapor.
- Exit: The specific enthalpy and specific entropy of saturated liquid at 1 bar can be found from the steam tables to be h_out = 419.06 kJ/kg and s_out = 1.3043 kJ/(kg*K), respectively. The specific volume can be found using the tables to be v_out = 0.001043 m^3/kg.
- Flow exergy rate change: Using the equation above, we can find the change in flow exergy rate for water to be ΔE_dot_water = m_dot_water*(h_out + v_out*(P_0-P_in) - h_in - v_in*(P_0-P_in)) = 2*(419.06 + 0.001043*(1-1)*(10^5-1) - 2776.1 - 0.2968*(1-1)*(10^5-1)) = -5284.8 kW, where P_0 is the reference pressure of 1 bar.
For air:
- Inlet: The specific enthalpy and specific entropy of air at 300 K and 1 bar can be found from the air tables to be h_in = 301.27 kJ/kg and s_in = 1.9745 kJ/(kg*K), respectively. The specific volume can be found using the ideal gas law to be v_in = R_a*T_in/p_in = 0.8251 m^3/kg, where R_a is the specific gas constant for air.
- Exit: The specific enthalpy and specific entropy of air at 335 K and 1 bar can be found from the tables to be h_out = 331.46 kJ/kg and s_out = 2.1619 kJ/(kg*K), respectively. The specific volume can be found using the ideal gas law to be v_out = 0.9076 m^3/kg.
- Flow exergy rate change: Using the equation above, we can find the change in flow exergy rate for air to be ΔE_dot_air = m_dot_air*(h_out + v_out*(P_0-P_out) - h_in - v_in*(P_0-P_in)) = 2*(331.46 + 0.9076*(1-1)*(10^5-1) - 301.27 - 0.8251*(1-1)*(10^5-1)) = 618.5 kW, where P_out is the pressure at the exit of the heat exchanger.
Therefore, the change in flow exergy rate is -5284.8 kW for water and 618.5 kW for air.
(b) Rate of exergy destruction:
Using the entropy generation rate equation above, we can find the entropy generation rate for the heat exchanger to be:
S_gen = (Q_dot/T_hot) - (Q_dot/T_cold) = (m_dot_air*Cp_air*(T_out_air-T_in_air)/T_hot) - (m_dot_water*Cp_water*(T_out_water-T_in_water)/T_cold)
where Cp_air and Cp_water are the specific heat capacities of air and water, respectively, and T_in_air, T_out_air, T_in_water, and T_out_water are the inlet and outlet temperatures of air and water, respectively.
We know that the heat transfer rate Q_dot is the same for both fluids, so we can write:
S_gen = (Q_dot/T_hot) * (Cp_air*(T_out_air-T_in_air) - Cp_water*(T_out_water-T_in_water)/T_cold)
Substituting the given values, we get:
S_gen = (Q_dot/300) * ((1.005*(335-300)) - (4.179*(100-0)) / 373)
S_gen = 0.0145*Q_dot
where Cp_air = 1.005 kJ/(kg*K), Cp_water = 4.179 kJ/(kg*K), T_hot = 300 K, T_cold = 373 K, and Q_dot is the heat transfer rate.
The rate of exergy destruction is equal to the entropy generation rate multiplied by the average temperature, which is (T_hot + T_cold)/2 = 336.5 K, so we have:
ΔE_dot_dest = S_gen*(T_hot + T_cold)/2 = 0.0145*Q_dot*336.5
Substituting the given values, we get:
ΔE_dot_dest = 0.0145*Q_dot*336.5 = 0.0145*Q_dot*336.5 = 63.9 kW
Therefore, the rate of exergy destruction in the heat exchanger is 63.9 kW.
An auxiliary grounding electrode is permitted to be the only grounding connection for electronic equipment when noise on the equipment grounding circuit is a problem. a) True b) False
Answers
False. An auxiliary grounding electrode alone is not sufficient as the only grounding connection for electronic equipment, even when noise on the equipment grounding circuit is a problem.
According to the National Electrical Code (NEC), grounding electrode systems are designed to provide a low-impedance path for fault current to flow to the earth, which protects equipment and people from electrical hazards. Grounding electrodes, such as grounding rods, are only one part of a complete grounding system that includes grounding conductors and bonding jumpers.The NEC requires that all electronic equipment be grounded using an equipment grounding conductor that is connected to the main grounding electrode system. The use of an auxiliary grounding electrode in addition to the main grounding electrode system is permitted, but it cannot be used as the only grounding connection for electronic equipment.
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Explain what happened to the pump rate when you increased the stroke volume. Why do you think this occurred
Answers
Answer:
Increase in stroke volume brings about increase in pump rate .the relationship between them is linearly proportional.
Explanation:
Increase in stroke volume brings about increase in pump rate .the relationship between them is linearly proportional.
The rate at which blood is been pumped by the heart depends on the Stroke volume as well as heart rate. The stroke volume gives the quantity of blood that is been pumped by the heart Everytime it beats.
One of the important factor that determine the Cardiac output is Stroke volume. And injection fraction is calculated as (stroke volume/
end-diastolic volume)
Macon Controls produces three different types of control units used to protect industrial equipment from overheating. Each of these units must be processed by a machine that Macon considers to be their process bottleneck. The plant operates on two 8-hour shifts, 5 days per week, 52 weeks per year. The table below provides the time standards at the bottleneck, lot sizes, and demand forecasts for the three units. Because of demand uncertainties, the operations manager obtained three demand forecasts (pessimistic, expected, and optimistic). The manager believes that a
30
percent capacity cushion is best.
LOADING...
Time Standard
Demand Forecast
Component
Processing
(hr/unit)
Setup
(hr/lot)
Lot Size
(units/lot)
Pessimistic
Expected
Optimistic
A
0.04
1.0
60
15,000
16,000
27,000
B
0.30
4.7
75
10,000
12,000
18,000
C
0.05
8.7
100
16,000
24,000
35,000
a. How many machines are required to meet minimum (Pessimistic) demand, expected demand, and maximum (Optimistic) demand? (Enter your responses rounded up to the next whole number.)
b. How many machines are required if the operations manager decides to double lot sizes?
c. If the operations manager has three machines and believes that the plant can reduce setup time by 20 percent through process improvement initiatives, does that plant have adequate capacity to meet all demand scenarios without increasing lot sizes?
Answers
To meet the demand for component A without increasing lot sizes, 192.86 machines are required, exceeding the available 3 machines.
a. Calculation of machines required for minimum (Pessimistic) demand:
For component A, Processing (hr/unit) = 0.04
Lot Size (units/lot) = 60
Total demand required for pessimistic forecast = 15,000 machines
For pessimistic forecast, the processing time required will be: 15,000 × 0.04 = 600 hours
Setup (hr/lot) = 1.0
For 30% capacity cushion, the total operating hours will be: (600 / (1 - 0.3)) = 857.1428571428571
For expected forecast, the processing time required will be: 16,000 × 0.04 = 640 hours
For 30% capacity cushion, the total operating hours will be: (640 / (1 - 0.3)) = 914.2857142857142
For optimistic forecast, the processing time required will be: 27,000 × 0.04 = 1080 hours
For 30% capacity cushion, the total operating hours will be: (1080 / (1 - 0.3)) = 1542.857142857143
Therefore, the machines required will be:
107.14 machines for pessimistic forecast
114.29 machines for expected forecast
192.86 machines for optimistic forecast
b. Calculation of machines required if the operations manager decides to double lot sizes:
Pessimistic forecast: 120 units/lot
Expected forecast: 150 units/lot
Optimistic forecast: 200 units/lot
The calculation of the total operating hours and machines required will be the same as in part a, with the respective lot sizes.
c. Calculation of the number of machines required with 20% reduced setup time:
New setup time for component A: 0.8 hours/lot
The calculation of the new processing hours and machines required will be the same as in part a, with the reduced setup time.
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Can someone help me plz!!! It’s 23 points
Answers
Answer:
0.00695 A
Explanation:
µ represents \(10^{-6}\). Multiply this by 6,950.
a) what would if we tried to further accelerate a
Supersonic fluid with a
diverging diffuser?
Answers
If we tried to further accelerate a Supersonic fluid with a diverging diffuser, the pressure will decrease due to an increase in area. This can be described as :
dA/A = dP/ρV² (1-M²) for supersonic flow Mach Number, M: M > 11 - M² < 0 (dA/A) = -K (dP/ρV²)k = 1-M²
What is Supersonic Fluid?Supersonic flow fields have Mach numbers greater than one at every location. Supersonic flows are usually characterized by the presence of shock waves, which cause abrupt changes in flow characteristics and streamlines (in contrast to the smooth, continuous variations in subsonic flows).
Supersonic and subsonic relate to speeds that are faster or slower than the speed of sound, respectively. Supersonic means traveling faster than the speed of sound, which is 343.2 m/s (1,126 ft/s). Subsonic speeds are defined as anything moving slower than the speed of sound.
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In contouring, it is necessary to measure position and not velocity for feedback.
a. True
b. False
In contouring during 2-axis NC machining, the two axes are moved at the same speed to achieve the desired contour.
a. True
b. False
Job shop is another term for process layout.
a. True
b. False
Airplanes are normally produced using group technology or cellular layout.
a. True
b. False
In manufacturing, value-creating time is greater than takt time.
a. True
b. False
Answers
Answer:
(1). False, (2). True, (3). False, (4). False, (5). True.
Explanation:
The term ''contouring'' in this question does not have to do with makeup but it has to deal with the measurement of all surfaces in planes. It is a measurement in which the rough and the contours are being measured. So, let us check each questions again.
(1). In contouring, it is necessary to measure position and not velocity for feedback.
ANSWER : b =>False. IT IS NECESSARY TO MEASURE BOTH FOR FEEDBACK.
(2). In contouring during 2-axis NC machining, the two axes are moved at the same speed to achieve the desired contour.
ANSWER: a=> True.
(3). Job shop is another term for process layout.
ANSWER: b => False
JOB SHOP IS A FLEXIBLE PROCESS THAT IS BEING USED during manufacturing process and are meant for job Production. PROCESS LAYOUT is used in increasing Efficiency.
(4). Airplanes are normally produced using group technology or cellular layout.
ANSWER: b => False.
(5). In manufacturing, value-creating time is greater than takt time.
ANSWER: a => True.
Select all true statements regarding the strength of nails in wood connections.
a. The nail strength is the same in tension and shear
b. The nail strength depends on the specific gravity of the connected members
c. The nail strength depends on the diameter of the nail
d. The nail strength depends on the thickness of the side member
Answers
When it comes to the strength of nails in wood connections, there are several statements to consider. The true statements regarding the strength of nails in wood connections are:b. The nail strength depends on the specific gravity of the connected members. c. The nail strength depends on the diameter of the nail.d. The nail strength depends on the thickness of the side member.
The strength of nails used in wood connections is one of the most critical considerations to make during construction. Nails usually function as a shear connection and can be employed in various configurations to secure the members.
In wood connections, the nail strength depends on several factors. For instance, the strength of the nail is heavily influenced by the diameter of the nail and the thickness of the side member. The specific gravity of the connected members also plays a crucial role in determining the nail's strength.
When designing nail connections in wood, it is essential to consider the wood's specific gravity and moisture content, the design load, and the type of nail and side member thickness.
Also, the shear strength of the nail is usually different from its tensile strength, meaning that the nail's strength varies depending on the type of force applied.
In summary, the strength of nails in wood connections depends on various factors such as the diameter of the nail, the thickness of the side member, and the specific gravity of the connected members.
Therefore the correct option is b. The nail strength depends on the specific gravity of the connected members c. The nail strength depends on the diameter of the nail and d. The nail strength depends on the thickness of the side member
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building envelope, sometimes also called thermal envelope or building enclosure, controls the flows of between the interior and exterior of the building?
Answers
The building envelope is an essential component of any structure, providing a protective barrier between the interior and exterior of the building. By controlling the flow of air, moisture, and heat, the building envelope ensures the indoor air quality and energy efficiency of the building.
The components of the building envelope include the walls, roofs, windows, doors, and foundation of the building, as well as insulation and other materials. The primary purpose of the building envelope is to provide a protective barrier against the elements, ensuring the interior of the building is insulated from the outside climate. The building envelope also helps to maintain indoor air quality, as it reduces the amount of air infiltration from outside. In addition, the building envelope increases the efficiency of the building’s heating and cooling systems, reducing energy consumption and costs.
In order to maintain its protective barrier, the building envelope must be constructed with durable and weather-resistant materials. Additionally, the building envelope should be properly sealed to reduce air leakage. Windows and doors should be designed to minimize the risk of water infiltration, while insulation should be installed to reduce heat transfer.
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:)))))))))))))))))))))))))))))))))))))))))))))))))))))))))))))))))))
Answers
Consider the following data for 2008 in a small suburban community:
1. number of accidents: 360 fatal 10 injury 36 pdo 314
2. number of fatalities 15
3. area population: 50,000
4. registered vehicles 35,000
5. annual vmt: 12,000,000
6. average speed 30 mi/hr
compute all relevant exposure and population based accident and fatality rates for this data. compare these to national norms for the current year. (hint: use the internet to location current national norms)
Answers
Answer:
Motorcyclist Fatality and Injury Rates per Vehicle Miles Traveled, 1998-2008. 10. 9. Fatalities in School Transportation Related Crashes,. 1998-2008.
Explanation:
Consider a 2-shell-passes and 8-tube-passes shell-and-tube heat exchanger. What is the primary reason for using many tube passes
Answers
Answer:
See explanation
Explanation:
Solution:-
- The shell and tube heat exchanger are designated by the order of tube and shell passes.
- A single tube pass: The fluid enters from inlet, exchange of heat, the fluid exits.
- A multiple tube pass: The fluid enters from inlet, exchange of heat, U bend of the fluid, exchange of heat, .... ( nth order of pass ), and then exits.
- By increasing the number of passes we have increased the "retention time" of a specific volume of tube fluid; hence, providing sufficient time for the fluid to exchange heat with the shell fluid.
- By making more U-turns we are allowing greater length for the fluid flow to develop with " constriction and turns " into turbulence. This turbulence usually at the final passes allows mixing of fluid and increases the heat transfer coefficient by:
U ∝ v^( 0.8 ) .... ( turbulence )
- The higher the velocity of the fluids the greater the heat transfer coefficient. The increase in the heat transfer coefficient will allow less heat energy carried by either of the fluids to be wasted ; hence, reduced losses.
Thereby, increases the thermal efficiency of the heat exchanger ( higher NTU units ).
When you hover over an edge or point, you are activating ____________ in SketchUp?
A. Zoom Focus
B. Inference Tools
C. Drawing Tools
D. Selection Filters
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I remember this bc it is a question in my test from last week lol
Why are specimens usually very thin slices of material.
Answers
A cylindrical specimen of some metal alloy having an elastic modulus of 124 GPa and an original cross-sectional diameter of 4.2 mm will experience only elastic deformation when a tensile load of 1810 N is applied. Calculate the maximum length of the specimen before deformation if the maximum allowable elongation is 0.46 mm.
Answers
Answer:
the maximum length of the specimen before deformation is 0.4366 m
Explanation:
Given the data in the question;
Elastic modulus E = 124 GPa = 124 × 10⁹ Nm⁻²
cross-sectional diameter D = 4.2 mm = 4.2 × 10⁻³ m
tensile load F = 1810 N
maximum allowable elongation Δl = 0.46 mm = 0.46 × 10⁻³ m
Now to calculate the maximum length \(l\) for the deformation, we use the following relation;
\(l\) = [ Δl × E × π × D² ] / 4F
so we substitute our values into the formula
\(l\) = [ (0.46 × 10⁻³) × (124 × 10⁹) × π × (4.2 × 10⁻³)² ] / ( 4 × 1810 )
\(l\) = 3161.025289 / 7240
\(l\) = 0.4366 m
Therefore, the maximum length of the specimen before deformation is 0.4366 m
The statement that is correct about the relation between the velocity boundary layer and heat transfer for flow over a flat plate that is uniform in temperature is
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Answer: the heat flux increases as the velocity boundary layer transitions to laminar to turbulent.
Explanation:
The correct statement about the relation between the velocity boundary layer and heat transfer for flow over a flat plate that is uniform in temperature is that the heat flux increases as the velocity boundary layer transitions to laminar to turbulent.
It should be noted that the heat goes in a streamline direction in a laminar flow, thereby the molecules less collide with each other. On the other hand, the direction is zig zag in a turbulent heat flux and this will bring about more collision of the molecules which leads to a rise in the heat flux.
1.4 write the miscolor rule to make sure that the neighboring states not colored in the same color. [2]
Answers
Miscolor Rule: Each neighboring state must be colored differently.
What is Miscolour Rule?Miscolor Rule is a rule that states that all written work must contain no plagiarism. This means that any material taken from another source must be properly cited and credited to that source. Additionally, any words, ideas, or content taken from another source must be put into your own words. This rule is often seen in academic settings, where it is important to avoid plagiarism in order to maintain the integrity of the academic institution and to ensure that students are not taking credit for someone else’s work. It is also important to follow this rule when writing in professional contexts, as it can result in legal issues if plagiarism is found.
This rule ensures that each state is colored differently from its neighboring states, so that no two adjacent states are the same color. This helps to distinguish between the states and also gives a more aesthetically pleasing look to the map.
To learn more about Miscolor Rule
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