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I'll give the physical therapist an update on the patient's health care today. The unit nurses have spoken with the family and determined that a consultation with social services is necessary.
I've worked with folks who have had heart abnormalities diagnosed for almost 15 years. We must ascertain whether this client's independence in ambulation poses any safety concerns. The CNL is a clinical leader who oversees the medical staff. The CNL is expected to help the team, the client, and the client's health care family communicate. The CNL is also in charge of risk analysis and making sure that safe care delivery systems are in place. The CNL also plays the function of implementing client-based interventions to help achieve objectives for evidence-based practise. The assistance of nurses to patients.
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Related Questions
An __ drug is also known as a tranquilizer
Answers
Answer:
An anxiolytic drug is also known as a tranquilizer
Explanation:
Orthostatic hypotension,
confusion, drowsiness
and nausea are all
examples of:
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Mild dehydration can cause symptoms of orthostatic hypotension, such as weakness, dizziness and fatigue. Heart problems. Some heart conditions that can lead to low blood pressure include extremely low heart rate (bradycardia), heart valve problems, heart attack and heart failure.
Mr. Rogers, a letter carrier for the US Postal Service, is being seen in the healthcare facility because he was bitten on the ankle by a Yorkshire terrier, and the ankle has become infected. Mr. Rogers’s provider and medical assistant are discussing the patient’s condition and history outside the examination room. Mr. Edelman is heading toward the reception desk. He overhears the entire conversation, including the somewhat embarrassing story of how Mr. Rogers lost a fingertip 8 years ago after offering a leftover chicken nugget to a cocker spaniel on his route. Have the provider, and medical assistant violated the HIPAA Privacy Rule? Discuss.
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Answer:
Yes, they have violated HIPAA.
Explanation:
Yes, the provider and medical assistant violated the HIPAA Privacy Rule by discussing Mr. Rogers’s condition and history outside the examination room where other people could overhear them. The HIPAA Privacy Rule requires covered entities to protect the privacy of PHI (Protected Health Information). If you believe that a HIPAA-covered entity or its business associate violated your (or someone else’s) health information privacy rights or committed another violation of the Privacy, Security, or Breach Notification Rules, you may file a complaint with the Office for Civil Rights (OCR).
In the visual system, each retinal ganglion cell demonstrates convergence of information because:
A. It takes in all that it sees in its visual field
B. The information it sends to the brain comes from many photoreceptors
C. Each one sums the amount of light it receives
D. Of the number of action potentials it fires
E. Of the connections it has to other retinal ganglion cells
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Answer:
In the visual system, the convergence of information is due to the fact that each cell of the retinal ganglion cell can demonstrate that information it sends to the brain comes from many photoreceptors (option B).
Explanation:
The retina is a structure formed by photoreceptors, called cones and rods. The photoreceptors attached to each retinal ganglion cell can form its visual reception field, while the group of ganglion cells that reach a specific area of the brain form the brain cell reception field.
In the visual system, convergence occurs because the receptive field of several photoreceptors reaches a retinal ganglion cell, and a group of ganglion cells reaches a brain cell to form its receptive field, so the information that retinal ganglion cell sends to the brain comes from many photoreceptors.
The other options are not correct because convergence:
A. It does not depend on all the information seen in the visual field.
C. It does not depend on the sum of the amount of light it receives.
D. It does not imply the amount of action potentials.
E. There are no connections with other ganglion cells.
as the healthcare system evolved, we generally think of the history of healthcare in three major timeframes. these three eras are called:
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The Modern Era of healthcare is considered to have begun in the early 20th century.
During this period, advances in medicine and technology led to the development of new treatments and treatments for illnesses that had previously been untreatable. Medical education and regulation of healthcare providers improved, and access to healthcare became more widely available. Healthcare became more standardized and the quality of care began to improve.
The Post-Modern Era of healthcare is considered to have begun in the late 20tThe Pre-Modern Era of healthcare is generally considered to be the period prior to the 20th century. During this period, healthcare was largely provided by families, religious organizations, and local healers. People believed in the power of herbs, prayer, and superstition to cure illnesses, and medical practices were often based on trial and error.
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You are near the entrance to the operating room department when a vendor approaches you and asks where to go. What should you do first?
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Answer:tell him your sorry but your in a rush
Explanation:
a medical assistant is reinforcing teaching with a patient about pulse oximetry. which of the following statements should the assistant include in the teaching
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The medical assistant reinforcing teaching with a patient about pulse oximetry should include the following in the teaching:
remove your nail polish before the test; option A
What is pulse oximetry?Pulse oximetry is a test that the done to measure the arterial oxygen saturation of the body. It is a non-invasive method used to measure blood oxygen saturation.
The device used is known as a pulse oximeter.
The pulse oximeter is a noninvasive device that estimates the amount of oxygen in your blood. It uses infrared light sent into the blood to take these measurements.
Pulse oximetry is used for patients who have diseases that affect the ability of the body to use oxygen.
Such diseases include
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Complete question:
A medical assistant is reinforcing teaching with a patient about pulse oximetry. which of the following statements should the assistant include in the teaching
Remove your nail polish before the test
Remove your shoes
Remove your wristband
plasma is a component of edema
Answers
Answer:
Edema occurs when an excessive volume of fluid accumulates in the tissues, either within cells (cellular edema) or within the collagen-mucopolysaccharide matrix distributed in the interstitial spaces (interstitial edema)
Explanation:
The definition of edema is a swelling due to the expansion of interstitial fluid volume in tissues or an organ. Several clinical conditions present with edema, making it a critical clinical feature for diagnostic medicine. Edema can present in numerous forms including unilateral, bilateral, localized, or generalized edema. Therefore, it is vital to assess the unique presentation and mechanism of edema to understand how it relates to disease pathophysiology, clinical presentation, and treatment. This review will present an overview of the general and cellular characteristics of edema, the mechanism, and pathophysiology of edema, and how edema relates to a specific disease presentation and development.
a professional has evidence that a patient has intentionally faked her illness. to determine whether the patient is malingering or experiencing a factitious disorder, what must be examined?
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To determine whether a patient is malingering or experiencing a factitious disorder, the symptoms and motivations behind their behavior must be examined.
When a patient intentionally fakes an illness to achieve some external gain, such as avoiding work or receiving disability benefits, they are said to be malingering. On the other hand, when a patient intentionally produces symptoms in order to assume a sick role or receive medical attention, they may have a factitious disorder.
To differentiate between the two, healthcare professionals must examine the patient's symptoms carefully to determine if they match up with known medical conditions. Additionally, motivations for producing those symptoms must be explored, which could include attention-seeking behavior, underlying emotional issues, or other psychological factors. By examining these two key areas, healthcare professionals can arrive at an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.
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which hormone elevations indicate Turners syndrome
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Answer:
The estrogen and progesterone hormones in females. Turner syndrome occurs only in females due to the absence of the X chromosome. Ovarian failure and cardiac irregularities are two of the conditions that might occur as a result of this disorder. The levels of estrogen and progesterone, two critical female hormones, have reached an all-time high.
which of the following medications is indicated to treat benign prostatic hyperplasia? flonase, flomax, fosamax, folic acid
Answers
The medication indicated to treat benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) among the options provided is Flomax (generic name: tamsulosin).
Flonase (fluticasone) is a nasal spray commonly used to treat allergic rhinitis or nasal congestion due to allergies. It is not indicated for the treatment of BPH.
Fosamax (alendronate) is a medication used to treat and prevent osteoporosis. It is not indicated for the treatment of BPH.
Folic acid is a B vitamin that is commonly used as a supplement, particularly during pregnancy or for individuals with certain nutritional deficiencies. It is not indicated for the treatment of BPH.
Flomax (tamsulosin) is an alpha-blocker medication specifically approved for the treatment of BPH. It works by relaxing the muscles in the prostate and bladder neck, improving urine flow and reducing symptoms associated with BPH, such as frequent urination, difficulty in starting and maintaining urine flow, and urinary urgency.
Therefore, the correct answer is Flomax (tamsulosin).
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Kirron arrived and took over compressions. To ensure high quality CPR, providers should switch off giving compressions every ---------minutes or sooner if the provider giving compressions is fatigued. My answer was 2 minutes an was marked wrong answer.
Answers
Answer:
2 minutes
Explanation:
You should switch off every two minutes or about 5 cycles of chest compression and breathing, however, if it is a child, it should be about 10 cycles of compressions and breathing. That's weird that it was marked wrong though.
Kirron arrived and took over compressions. To ensure high quality CPR, providers should switch off giving compressions every 2 minutes or sooner if the provider giving compressions is fatigued.
In the context of providing high-quality cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR), it is recommended to switch the person giving compressions every 2 minutes or sooner if the provider becomes fatigued. CPR is a crucial life-saving technique performed during cardiac arrest to maintain blood flow to vital organs until more advanced medical help can be provided.
Performing effective CPR requires a significant amount of physical effort, and fatigue can quickly set in, affecting the quality and effectiveness of the compressions. By rotating compressors every 2 minutes, it ensures that providers remain fresh and able to deliver strong and consistent chest compressions.
Regular rotation also helps prevent compressions from becoming too shallow or too fast, which can be detrimental to the outcome of the resuscitation efforts. High-quality CPR involves compressions that are at least 2 inches deep and delivered at a rate of 100-120 compressions per minute.
It is essential for all providers involved in CPR to communicate effectively, so the switch happens smoothly without any delay in compressions. This teamwork and coordinated effort contribute to the best chances of successful resuscitation and better outcomes for the patient in cardiac arrest. Remember, CPR guidelines may vary slightly depending on the specific guidelines and protocols in different regions or organizations. Always follow the guidelines and training provided by a certified CPR training program or healthcare authority.
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what skills do I benefit when playing a yoyo
Answers
Answer:
a sore finger tolerence
Explanation:
Contemporary health condition that is prevalent with First Peoples today in Australia
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A contemporary health condition that is prevalent with First Peoples today in Australia is diabetes.
Diabetes is a significant health condition that disproportionately affects Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander people compared to non-Indigenous Australians. Additionally, the prevalence of diabetes is more frequent among those living in remote areas than those in urban areas.
As per reports, Indigenous Australians were approximately three times more likely to have diabetes than non-Indigenous Australians as of 2016-17. It is a health concern as it can lead to other complications like blindness, kidney failure, heart disease, and amputation.
The reason behind the higher rates of diabetes is considered to be the impact of colonization, forced displacement, and other factors that have caused damage to the mental, emotional, and physical well-being of Indigenous Australians, which ultimately affects their lifestyle, diet, and health status.
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PLEASE HELP ! Match the mental health care professional to the description provided.
Answers
thepist - animee
psychiatrist - gayle
psychgist - jamal
psyclatric- zhang
Aimee has a rather broad job description, but the fact that she works with registered nurses in a supportive role strongly suggests that Aimee is the psychiatric technician.
Zhang provides and leads therapeutic counseling sessions, which is, again, a broad job description. Certainly, this would be something a therapist does. Without further information and using the process of elimination, it is most likely that Zhang is the therapist.
Gayle has a research doctorate in psychology, and we are told that she conducts academic research. From the fact that she has a Ph.D. in psychology alone, we could say that she’s the psychologist. While there are psychologists who do treat patients, psychologists generally do not (and in most jurisdictions, are not allowed to) use medication therapy. In any case, it’s a safe bet to say that Gayle is the psychologist.
steoporosis and related low bone mass affect many adults in North America, especially older women. One-third of all women experience fractures because of this disease, amounting to about 2 million bone fractures per year. Osteoporosis is a disease you can do something about. Some risk factors cannot be changed, but others, such as poor calcium intake, can. Is this true for you
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Answer: This is TRUE for me. Osteoporosis is a preventable disease.
Explanation:
In this condition, bone density ( the amount of bone tissue) is reduced because it's deposition does not keep pace with resorption. Although the bone is adequately mineralised, it is fragile and microscopically abnormal, with loss of internal structure.
Peak bone mass occurs around 35 years and then gradually declines in both sexes. Lowered oestrogen levels after the menopause are associated with a period of accelerated bone loss in women. Thereafter bone density in women is less than in men for any given age. That is why in North America, one-third of all women experience fractures because of this disease, amounting to about 2 million bone fractures per year.
Common features of osteoporosis are:
--> skeletal deformity: gradual loss of height with age, caused by compression of vertebrae.
--> bone pain
--> fractures: especially of the hip ( neck of femur), wrist and vertebrae.
It is TRUE for me that some risk factors can't be changed ( which is the low oestrogen levels that occur after menopause in women) but others, such as poor calcium intake, can.
Exercise and Calcium intake during childhood and adolescence are important in determining eventual bone mass of an individual and in preventing risk of osteoporosis in later life.
Among women aged (18 to 34) in a community wt is normally distributed with a mean of 52 kgm and standard deviation SD of 7.5 kgm what percentage % of women will have a weight over 59.5 kgm ?
Answers
Answer:
7.1 percentage % of women will have a weight over 59.5 kgm
Explanation:
hope it helps you dear
Fill in the blanks with the terms provided. Not all terms will be used. A. proprioceptors B.chemoreceptors C. sensory D. cerebral cortex E. motor F. central chemoreceptors G. stretch receptors H. external intercostal I. irritant receptors The respiratory center rhythmically sends neural output to the diaphragm and ...........muscles to regulate quiet breathing. The respiratory center is stimulated to alter breathing rate and depth by............ input from........... in the brain. Additional input comes from peripheral receptors, including within the carotid and aortic bodies,............ of the mucosal lining of the respiratory tract,................ of the lungs and visceral pleura, and of the joints. Breathing can be consciously controlled by the....................... which bypasses the respiratory center to directly stimulate lower motor neurons.
Answers
The respiratory center rhythmically sends neural output to the diaphragm and I. external intercostal muscles to regulate quiet breathing. The respiratory center is stimulated to alter breathing rate and depth by C. sensory input from F. central chemoreceptors in the brain. Additional input comes from peripheral receptors, including within the carotid and aortic bodies, B. chemoreceptors of the mucosal lining of the respiratory tract, G. stretch receptors of the lungs and visceral pleura, and A. proprioceptors of the joints. Breathing can be consciously controlled by the D. cerebral cortex, which bypasses the respiratory center to directly stimulate lower motor neurons.
The respiratory center refers to a collection of neurons located within the brainstem, specifically in the medulla oblongata and pons. The different groups of neurons coordinate the muscles involved in breathing, including the diaphragm and intercostal muscles.
The main components of the respiratory center include:
Dorsal Respiratory Group (DRG)Ventral Respiratory Group (VRG)Pneumotaxic CenterApneustic CenterThe respiratory center receives inputs from various sources, including chemoreceptors that detect changes in blood oxygen and carbon dioxide levels, as well as stretch receptors in the lungs and other respiratory structures. These inputs help regulate and adjust breathing rate and depth to maintain appropriate levels of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the body.
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Lydia routinely gets massages to increase flexibility, reduce fatigue, improve endurance, and prevent injuries. What kind of massage does Lydia get?
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What does a major medical insurance plan do?
Answers
Which of the following statements concerning mineral deficiencies or excesses is false? Multiple Choice The body may absorb more of a mineral from food and excretes less when a deficiency occurs. Excessive consumption of minerals may cause a number of health problems, even in relatively small doses. Additional minerals may be needed for the synthesis of new tissues associated with physical training. If dietary intake is insufficient, minerals can be synthesized from precursors in the liver.
Answers
Answer:
The incorrect statement is - If dietary intake is insufficient, minerals can be synthesized from precursors in the liver.
Explanation:
During deficiency, the body tends to absorb the maximum amount of the minerals and excretes less from the food to maintain the body requirement. Like deficiency excess of the minerals can also cause several health problems.
Nutrient minerals cannot be synthesized biochemically by living organisms. and most of the minerals get from eating plants and animals or from drinking water.
the four steps for testing a change are:
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The Plan-Do-Study-Act (PDSA) cycle is an acronym for testing a change by organizing it, putting it into practice, evaluating the outcomes, and taking action based on what is discovered.
An improvement project includes four phases: planning, preparation, execution, and closeout. In order to improve teamwork and help organizations run more efficiently, researcher Bruce Wayne Tuckman published "Tuckman's Stages" in 1965.It discussed the four developmental phases that all teams experience throughout time: training, forming, norming, and performing. Write out a work plan, share anecdotes to illustrate why the QI project is personally relevant to people, and create a team roster so everyone is aware of who is on the team and how to contact one another.
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Which of the following statements is true of cones?
Answers
The statement that is true about cones is:
These cells are responsible for color vision.What are cones?The photosensitive cells found in the retina of vertebrate animals are called cones.
Characteristics of conesThey are structurally similar to rods, but require much higher light intensity to become active.They operate in daylight conditions and are responsible for photopic vision, where the color perception occurs.Therefore, we can conclude that the receptors of the colors are the cones (photosensitive cells that are located in the retina, responsible for us perceiving colors in one way or another).
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A partir de lo que sabes, explica con detalles cómo crees que se transmiten las enfermedades infecto contagiosas y qué se sabe acerca del origen y causas de esas enfermedades.
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bill, who is 28 years old, comes for his annual checkup. when reviewing his social data sheet, you discover he is now living in an apartment and has a new phone number. he mumbles to you that his wife left him and won’t let him see the kids. how will you respond therapeutically?
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Mable, a 65-year-old female, is seen by her family physician for an office visit. Her physician decides to admit Mable to the observation unit at the local hospital to monitor her continued complaint of generalized lower abdominal pain. The physician performs a detailed history and examination with a straightforward medical decision making complexity.
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The physician performs a detailed history and examination with a straightforward medical decision about lower abdominal pain and the code is therefore 99218,99217, R10.84 which is denoted as option B.
What is Medical coding?This is referred to as the process in which a medical diagnosis or treatment is translated into numeric and alpha numeric characters and it is done to eliminate ambiguity in the healthcare system and ensure that several factors are considered in this scenario.
The code 99217 depicts observation care discharge service in which the client is discharged at a different date and the R10.84 depicts the code for abdominal pain which is experienced by the client.
This is therefore the reason why option B was chosen as the most appropriate choice.
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The full question is:
Mable, a 65-year-old female, is seen by her family physician for an office visit. Her physician decides to admit Mable to the observation unit at the local hospital to monitor her continued complaint of generalized lower abdominal pain. The physician performs a detailed history and examination with a straightforward medical decision making complexity.
Code this encounter. A) 99234, R10.0, Z04.89 B) 99218,99217, R10.84, Z04.89 C)99221, R10.30, Z04.89 D) 99218, R10.30
The patient has vesicles and scabs over her forehead. Microscopic examination of skin scrapings shows gram-positive cocci in clusters. The etiology is
A) Candida.
B) Microsporum.
C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
D) Staphylococcus aureus.
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The etiology of the patient's vesicles and scabs over her forehead, with the presence of gram-positive cocci in clusters on microscopic examination, is Staphylococcus aureus. The correct option is D).
The presence of vesicles and scabs over the patient's forehead suggests a skin infection. Microscopic examination of skin scrapings revealing gram-positive cocci in clusters further narrows down the potential etiology. Among the options provided, Staphylococcus aureus is the most likely cause.
Staphylococcus aureus is a common bacterium that can cause various skin infections, including impetigo, folliculitis, and cellulitis. It is characterized by the formation of clusters (grape-like clusters) of gram-positive cocci when observed under a microscope.
Other options provided in the question, such as Candida (a fungal infection) and Pseudomonas aeruginosa (a gram-negative bacterium associated with various infections), are less likely based on the clinical presentation and microscopic findings described. Microsporum, on the other hand, is a dermatophyte fungus that can cause tinea infections (ringworm) rather than vesicles and scabs.
It is important to note that laboratory culture and sensitivity testing would be required to confirm the specific strain of Staphylococcus aureus and determine the most appropriate antibiotic treatment. Option D is the correct one.
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what is the medical term otomy?
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"Otomy" is a medical term that refers to a surgical procedure that involves cutting or making an incision into the ear. The suffix "-otomy" comes from the Greek word "tomos" which means cutting.
There are several different types of otomy procedures, each of which targets a specific area or structure of the ear. Some common otomy procedures include:
Myringotomy: a procedure that involves making a small incision in the eardrum to relieve pressure or remove fluid.
Tympanotomy: a procedure that is similar to myringotomy but is performed to examine or repair the middle ear.
Mastoidectomy: a procedure that involves removing part of the mastoid bone, which is located behind the ear, to treat infections or other conditions of the middle ear.
Stapedectomy: a procedure that involves removing the stapes bone, which is one of the small bones in the middle ear, and replacing it with a prosthetic device to treat hearing loss.
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the ability of a joint and muscle group to move through a range of motion is called
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Which individual is qualified to apply for the Certification Examination for Diabetes Educators?
Answers
Answer:
B) a registered nurse who works with diabetes patients
Explanation:
Diabetes is a serious disease that affects much of the population. People with this disease need to be treated and educated by a healthcare professional who has experience in treating patients with this disease.
To be a diabetes educator you must be an experienced healthcare professional who works in this field and aims to help patients better and better. For this reason, we can state that among the options shown in the question above, the one that shows someone who may request the diabetes educator certification exam is the letter B.