Answer:
They will be more likely to visit Dr. Wright based on how Dr. Hubble’s description of the two. Dr. Hubble’s description of Dr. Leftt was more of a warning than suggesting, “ I also want you to be aware that within the pediatric urology community there is some disagreement on the course of treatment.”
Explanation:
"I also want you to be aware that within the pediatric urology community there is some disagreement on the course of treatment.”
Based on the warning of Dr. Hubble, there are different viewpoints of Dr. Wright and Dr. Left on the treatment of Kayla. Since both, the doctors belong to two different origins or locations.
What do you mean by Pediatrician?A Pediatrician may be defined as a medical doctor who manages the physical, behavioral, and mental care of children.
The difference in their locality and the process of treatment both the doctors have different viewpoints. As we commonly see the disagreement on the course of treatment among the doctors. They have different ideas, functions, and processes to treat a particular disease.
Therefore, based on the warning of Dr. Hubble, there are different viewpoints of Dr. Wright and Dr. Left on the treatment of Kayla. Since both, the doctors belong to two different origins or locations.
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List all the bones on your thumb from proximal to distal. Do the same for your pinky finger.
What is the difference?
Answer:
Thumb= distal phalanx, promixal phalanx, metacarpal
Pinky= distal phalanges ,middle phalanges, prominal phalanges, metacarpal
Explanation:
Thumb bone from proximal to distal. Daumen = distale Phalanx, proximale Phalanx, Mittelhandknochen
Pinky = distale Phalangen, mittlere Phalangen, pronominale Phalangen, Mittelhandknochen.
What are the 14 phalanges?The phalange is one of the bones of the fingers and toes. Beim Menschen gibt es 14 Fingerglieder in jeder Hand und jedem Fuß, 2 in jedem Daumen und großen Zeh und 3 in den verbleibenden Fingern. They are connected to the metacarpal bones of the hands and the metatarsals of the feet.
What is a phalange?The phalanges are the bones that make up the fingers and toes. The human body has 56 phalanges, and each hand and foot has 14 phalanges. Each finger and toe has three phalanges, except that there are only two big toes and two big toes.
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protease inhibitors, which are effective anti-hiv drugs, . protease inhibitors, which are effective anti-hiv drugs, . prevent synthesis of viral proteins are nucleoside analogs prevent mrna synthesis prevent activation of trna prevent reverse transcription
Protease inhibitors which Prevent assembly and release of progeny virus particles from infected cells.
Protease inhibitors are drugs that block the activity of proteases, enzymes that play an important role in the replication of viruses, including HIV. Protease inhibitors interfere with the protease enzyme's ability to cut viral proteins into smaller pieces, which are necessary for the virus to replicate. By blocking the protease enzyme, the drugs can prevent the virus from reproducing. Protease inhibitors are used in combination with other antiretroviral medications to treat HIV and other viral infections. They can also be used to reduce the risk of HIV transmission in people who are at high risk of infection. Protease inhibitors can be taken as a pill or injection and are generally well-tolerated with few side effects. Common side effects include nausea, diarrhea, and fatigue. Protease inhibitors are powerful medications and can interact with other drugs, so it is important to talk to a healthcare provider before taking them.
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pour 67mL of juice B followed by 29mL of Juice A into a 100ml graduate cylinder what’s the percent strength of both a & b ?
Answer:
juice a = 30%; juice b = 70%
Explanation:
juice a = 29mL
juice b = 67mL
together, the concentration is 96mL so...
29/96 = 0.302 or 0.30 = 30%
67/96 = 0.697 or 0.70 = 70%
How are socioemotional development and their cognitive development are tied together in children?
Answer:
Securely attached children also tend to become more resilient and competent adults. In contrast, those who do not experience a secure attachment with their caregivers may have difficulty getting along with others and be unable to develop a sense of confidence or trust in others.
Explanation:
(1)
Rx
Syr. Penicillin 250mg/5ml Sig: 1 tsp qid x 200ml
How many days will the medication lasts?
(ii)
Rx
Augmentin 45mg/kg/day q12H Your patient is 6 years old and weight 66 lb.
How much (mg) for each dose?
(iii)
Rx
Ventolin MDI 200mcg bd x 1/12 (available stock: 100mcg/puff, 300 puffs per bottle) How many ventolin inhaler are needed as per prescription
order?.
(iv)
Rx
Syr. Ceporex 125mg tds x 5/7 (available stock: Syr. Ceporex 250mg/5ml, 1 bottle = 60ml)
How many bottle Syr. Ceporex need to supply?
(v)
Rx
Supp. Voltaren 12. 5mg tds x 3/7 (available stock: Supp. Voltaren 12.5mg, RM0.90/supp)
How much will you charge the patient?
For the medications:
(1) The medication will last 8 days.(2) The patient needs 292.5 mg for each dose.(3) The patient needs 2 inhalers.(4) The patient needs 2 bottles.(5) The patient will be charged RM2.70.How to determine the doses and medication?(1) The medication is a liquid suspension, and the dose is 1 teaspoon (5ml). The medication is available in a 200ml bottle, and the patient is taking it 4 times a day (qid).
This means that the patient will use 20ml of medication per day. The medication will last for 200ml / 20ml/day = 10 days.
(2) The patient's weight is 66 lb, which is 30 kg. The dose of Augmentin is 45mg/kg/day, so the patient needs 45mg/kg/day × 30 kg = 1350 mg per day.
The medication is available in 250mg/5ml capsules, so the patient needs 1350 mg / 250 mg/5ml = 5.4 capsules per day.
The patient is taking the medication every 12 hours (q12h), so they need 5.4 capsules / 12 hours = 0.45 capsules per hour.
Each capsule contains 250 mg, so the patient needs 0.45 capsules/hour × 250 mg/capsule = 112.5 mg per hour.
(3) The patient is taking 200mcg of Ventolin twice a day (bd). The medication is available in an inhaler that delivers 100mcg per puff, and the patient has 300 puffs per bottle.
This means that the patient needs 200mcg / 100mcg/puff = 2 puffs per dose. The patient is taking the medication for 1/12 of a year, which is 30 days.
This means that the patient needs 2 puffs/dose × 30 days = 60 puffs. The patient has 300 puffs per bottle, so they need 60 puffs / 300 puffs/bottle = 0.2 bottles.
(4) The patient is taking 125mg of Ceporex three times a day (tds). The medication is available in a syrup that contains 250mg per 5ml, and the patient needs 125mg per dose. This means that the patient needs 125mg / 250mg/5ml = 0.5 ml per dose.
The patient is taking the medication for 5/7 of a week, which is 35 days. This means that the patient needs 0.5 ml/dose × 35 days = 17.5 ml. The medication is available in bottles that contain 60ml, so the patient needs 17.5 ml / 60 ml/bottle = 0.29 bottles.
(5) The patient is taking 12.5mg of Voltaren three times a day (tds). The medication is available in suppositories that contain 12.5mg, and the patient needs 12.5mg per dose. This means that the patient needs 12.5mg / 12.5mg/supp = 1 supp per dose.
The patient is taking the medication for 3/7 of a week, which is 21 days. This means that the patient needs 1 supp/dose × 21 days = 21 supps. The medication costs RM0.90 per supp, so the patient will be charged RM0.90 * 21 supps = RM2.70.
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How quickly a drug enters your bloodstream also depends on __________.
The quantity of food in the intestine, the size of the medicine preparation's particles, and the pH of the contents of the intestine all affect how quickly nutrients are absorbed.
What quickly a drug enters your bloodstream depends?The quickest way to make medications work on the body and brain is to inject them straight into the bloodstream.
The manner in which a medicine is ingested affects how soon it enters the bloodstream. The amount of solubility a medicine has affects how long it takes to dissolve. Most medications typically disappear within 30 minutes, on average.
The amount of food in the intestine, the size of the medication preparation's particles, and the pH of the intestine's contents all have an impact on how rapidly nutrients are absorbed.
Therefore, A medicine can start working intravenously within a few seconds, making this a good emergency therapy option.
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First Day Assignment for Students: FUNDAMENTALS
STUDENT ASSIGNMENT
1. Log into thePoint and DocuCare following all instructions given to you earlier.
2. After entering the instructor-assigned case, review the patient’s entire medical record to explore her health status and reason for seeking care.
3. Complete the following:
Data
Guidelines
A.
Choose two nursing diagnoses, tailor them to the patient’s current health condition, and document them in the chart.
Document in DocuCare
B.
Document the following vital signs: BP: 124/82, P: 86, R: 18, T: 98.9 (oral), O2sat: 93% RA
Document in DocuCare
C.
Document a Nurse’s note regarding the vital signs. Are they improving or worsening? What data do you have to support this?
Document in DocuCare
D.
Record a pain assessment of 0
Document in DocuCare
Click on the icon next to the phrase Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease. Answer the next two questions from the information you find there.
E.
What are the top two causes of COPD listed there?
Document HERE
F.
What is the medication listed to treat ‘mild COPD’?
Document HERE
G.
Document the following assessment findings in DocuCare:
i. Respiratory:
• Wheezes in bilateral upper lobes, clear otherwise
• Respirations regular
• Sputum yellow
• Respiratory symptoms: cough, difficulty breathing with activity.
ii. Cardiac:
• Normal S1S2
• Edema: 2+ all extremities
• All pulses +2;
• Cap refill: all <3sec
• Skin color and description: warm dry and intact
H.
Be creative and fill out all other assessment body systems.
Document in DocuCare
4. Submit for instructor review:
i) This paperwork
ii) DocuCare work
Copyright © 2014 Lippincott Williams & Wilkins | Wolters Kluwer Health. All Rights Reserved.
Answer:
What?? are these intructions or something?
Explanation:
THE_CONTROLS WHAT ENTERS AND LEAVES THE CELL.
O MITOCHONDRIA
RIBOSOMES
CELL MEMBRANE
O NUCLEUS
The only equipment needed to play tennis consists of a paddle, a can of balls, court shoes and clothing that permits easy movement
Group of answer choices
True
False
Answer:
True
Explanation:
A patient diagnosed with rhabdomyolysis is receiving NS at 500 mL/h and furosemide. Which other intervention to prevent AKI should nurse anticipation?
In a patient diagnosed with rhabdomyolysis , another intervention that the nurse should anticipate preventingAKI is to closely monitor the patient's urine output and serum electrolyte levels, particularly potassium and calcium.
Rhabdomyolysis is a condition characterized by the breakdown of muscle tissue, which can release large amounts of myoglobin and other muscle proteins into the bloodstream. These proteins can cause damage to the kidneys and lead to AKI. Treatment of rhabdomyolysis typically involves aggressive fluid resuscitation with NS to help flush out the myoglobin and other proteins from the kidneys and prevent AKI.
Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can help increase urine output and promote the elimination of myoglobin and other proteins from the kidneys. However, it can also cause electrolyte imbalances, particularly hypokalemia and hypocalcemia, which can exacerbate kidney damage. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the patient's urine output and serum electrolyte levels, and anticipate administering potassium and calcium supplements or adjusting the dose of furosemide as needed to prevent electrolyte imbalances and further kidney damage. Close monitoring of the patient's creatinine and BUN levels may also be necessary to assess kidney function and detect AKI early.
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Fact or Fiction? (Please help me)
________ 1. The French established the first hospitals when physicians care for soldiers and ill people in their homes.
Fiction, The Romans did
What does spleen do?
Answer:
one of the spleen's major jobs is filter the blood.
Explanation:
One of the spleen’s main jobs is to filter your blood. It affects the number of red blood cells that carry oxygen throughout your body, and the number of platelets, which are cells that help your blood to clot. It does this by breaking down and removing cells that are abnormal, old, or damaged.
The spleen also stores red blood cells, platelets, and infection-fighting white blood cells.
The spleen plays an important role in your immune system response. When it detects bacteria, viruses, or other germs in your blood, it produces white blood cells, called lymphocytes, to fight off these infections.
a 19-year old man presents to the ed after rolling his left ankle playing basketball earlier in the evening. x-rays of the ankle do not reveal a fracture. the exam reveals a positive anterior drawer test with no endpoint on the left. which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
The correct option is D ; Grade 3 tear of the anterior talofibular ligament Based on the physical exam results, the most likely diagnosis is a grade 3 tear of the anterior talofibular ligament (ATF),
as the anterior drawer test is specific for the ATF and the absence of endpoint implies a grade 3 or total rupture of the ligament.
The ATF is the most often damaged ligament in an inversion sprain and is frequently the first to tear. Inversion ankle sprains are graded, with grade 1 being the least severe and grade 3 being the most severe, typically resulting in ankle instability and inability to bear weight.
A patient with a ruptured Achilles' tendon (A) would have a positive Thompson's test, which indicates that the toes would not plantarflex when the calf muscles are compressed.
Due to the mechanism of injury, a damaged deltoid ligament (C) is improbable since deltoid ligament injuries often result from eversion of the ankle rather than inversion. With a deltoid ligament damage, there would be valgus ankle instability.
A calcaneofibular ligament (CFL) grade 1 tear (B) would cause discomfort and moderate swelling around the CFL from its origin on the anterior lateral malleolus to its insertion on the calcaneous.
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Full Question ;
A 19-year old man presents to the ED after rolling his left ankle playing basketball earlier in the evening. X-rays of the ankle do not reveal a fracture. The exam reveals a positive anterior drawer test with no endpoint on the left. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A Achilles' tendon rupture
B Grade 1 tear of the calcaneofibular ligament
C Grade 2 tear of the deltoid ligament
D Grade 3 tear of the anterior talofibular ligament
Blockage of the flow of bile into the duodenum interferes with the digestion of which of the following?
a. carbohydrates only
b. lipids only
c. proteins only
d. carbohydrates and lipids only
e. carbohydrates and proteins only
Blockage of the flow of bile into the duodenum interferes with the digestion of lipids only (b).
Bile, produced by the liver and stored in the gallbladder, plays a crucial role in the digestion and absorption of dietary fats (lipids). When we consume a meal that contains fats, bile is released into the duodenum (the first part of the small intestine) to aid in the digestion process.
Bile contains bile salts, which help emulsify fats by breaking them down into smaller droplets. This emulsification process increases the surface area of the fat molecules, allowing pancreatic lipase (an enzyme) to efficiently break them down into fatty acids and glycerol.
If there is a blockage in the flow of bile into the duodenum, such as in cases of gallstones or a blockage in the bile duct, the digestion of lipids becomes compromised. Without sufficient bile, the emulsification of fats is impaired, making it difficult for pancreatic lipase to access and break down the fat molecules effectively. As a result, the digestion and absorption of lipids are hindered, leading to potential malabsorption and related digestive issues. The digestion of carbohydrates and proteins, on the other hand, is not directly dependent on the presence of bile and would not be significantly affected by the blockage.
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A 27 year old female patient with a long history of diabetes mellitus present to the office for her annual physical and to go over the results of her blood work the doctor
Answer: The patient’s complaints of increased hunger and urination are indicative of diabetes, and the loss of vision in the periphery can result from uncontrolled diabetes
Had to complete the question before answering.
A 27 year old female patient with a long history of diabetes mellitus presents to the office for her annual physical and to go over the results of her blood work with the doctor. During the patient history section of the examination, the patient states that she has been experiencing increased hunger, urination frequency, and heartburn. In addition, she has noticed that when driving, the cars next to her are tougher for her to see. She also states that her neck and shoulders are tight and achy. The blood work comes back with the following results:
Fasting Glucose: 108mg/dl
HgbA1c: 8.0%
Chloride: 115 mEq/L
Potassium: 5.9 mEq/L
Sodium: 155 mEq/L
Calcium: 8.9mg/dl
Magnesium: 1.5 mg/dl
Phosphorus: 5.1 mg/d
EXPLANATION:
The patients blood sugar are above the recommended level or target range. Which has led to the patient experiencing symptoms of increased hunger, urination frequency, heart attack, the patient’s complaints of increased hunger and urination are indicative or signs of diabetes, and the loss of vision in the periphery is a result from an uncontrolled diabetes.
Unattached earlobes (EE or Ee) are described in the textbook as dominant over attached earlobes (ee). A couple both have unattached earlobes. Both notice that one of their parents on both sides has attached earlobes (ee). Therefore, they correctly assume that they are carriers for attached earlobes (Ee). The couple proceeds to have four children. What is the most probable result
Answer: 1 kid would be EE, 2 would Ee and the fourth would be ee.
Mitochondria are
A. found in the plasma membrane.
B. organelles that contain the genetic material for the cell.
C. cells with flagella.
D. "batteries" that provide energy for cells.
Answer:
D
Mitochondria are the powerhouses of cells
Which of the following has been proven effective as a treatment for the disease indicated?
O A. Tonsillectomy for strep throat
O B. Bone marrow transplant for breast cancer
O C. Bleeding for rheumatic fever
O D. Penicillin for syphilis
Which of the following statements indicates understanding of dose adjustments for adverse events related to checkpoint inhibitors? A. Steroid therapy should be discontinued to effectively control side effects. B. Dose reductions are based on the severity of the adverse events. C. The dose is permanently discontinued for grade 1 and 2 toxicities. D. To treat more severe adverse reactions, the medication is either withheld or discontinued. Flag for Review Previous Back to Summary Paco NOKI
The statement that indicates understanding of dose adjustments for adverse events related to checkpoint inhibitors is B. Dose reductions are based on the severity of the adverse events.
Dose adjustments for adverse events related to checkpoint inhibitors are typically based on the severity of the side effects.
Instead of discontinuing steroid therapy (Option A), dose reductions may be implemented to manage adverse events while allowing continued treatment.
Option C is incorrect as grade 1 and 2 toxicities may still warrant dose adjustments rather than permanent discontinuation.
Option D is also incorrect as withholding or discontinuing the medication is one possible approach for more severe adverse reactions, but it does not encompass the full range of dose adjustment strategies for adverse events.
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Which class of diuretic can decrease calcium in the body?
Explanation:
Thiazode Diuretics can decrease calcium in the body.to dispense the correct dosage of medication
Answer:
The correct answer is C: volume to mass
Explanation:
to dispense the correct dosage of medication
________ is the ability to expend a maximum of energy in one or a series of acts. Static strength Extent flexibility Dynamic flexibility Explosive strength Trunk strength
Why is it important to endure that all entries are posted to monthly statements correctly? if items are not posted correctly, how could this potentially impact the way patients view their clinic? how could not posting transactions affect the clinic?
Answer:
If items are not posted correctly, patients may believe that the clinic is not keeping accurate records. This could potentially impact the way patients view their clinic. Not posting transactions could also affect the clinic's bottom line.
Explanation:
Hope this helps!
Ensuring all entries are posted correctly is crucial for maintaining accurate financial records and building trust with patients.
Accurate posting of entries to monthly statements is essential for several reasons. First and foremost, it ensures that the clinic's financial records are precise and reliable. Any errors or omissions in the entries can lead to discrepancies in the clinic's financial statements, which may result in incorrect assessments of the clinic's financial health and performance.
When patients receive monthly statements, they expect them to be accurate and transparent. Incorrectly posted entries can lead to billing errors, overcharging, or undercharging patients, which can cause frustration and dissatisfaction among patients. It may lead to a loss of trust in the clinic's billing practices and overall quality of service.
Additionally, if transactions are not posted correctly, it can create confusion and difficulties in tracking patient payments, outstanding balances, and insurance reimbursements. This can result in delayed or missed payments, cash flow issues, and challenges in managing the clinic's revenue.
Moreover, inaccurate financial records can lead to compliance and regulatory issues. If the clinic is audited or required to provide financial documentation, discrepancies in the records can raise red flags and result in penalties or fines.
On the other hand, accurate posting of transactions ensures that the clinic maintains a high level of professionalism and credibility. Patients feel confident in the clinic's financial practices, leading to increased patient satisfaction and loyalty.
In conclusion, accurate posting of entries to monthly statements is crucial for maintaining financial integrity, building trust with patients, and ensuring the smooth financial operations of the clinic. By prioritizing accuracy and attention to detail, the clinic can avoid potential negative impacts on patient perceptions and establish a positive reputation within the community.
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what are some of the purposes of a post-mortem? check all that apply.
a. To learn from and adapt processes for higher efficiency
b. to understand the cause of mistakes and how to prevent them
c. to foster a culture where it's ok to make mistakes
The purpose of post-moterm is to understand the cause of mistakes and how to prevent them.
A post-moterm, which is also called an autopsy an examination of the body done after the passing of the individual.
When the post-moterm of a body is done, it gives us a brief understanding of what went wrong in the body and what was the cause of the death or how did the death caused.
By learning about how and what happened, we can understand the causes of the mistakes and we can prevent them in future.
A major experiments and crucial information is obtained from the post-moterm report of the body. This useful information is used in future to make medicines and surgical methods.
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A member is cleared for exercise by their doctor and mentions that one of their goals is to hike their local trails, but the member is hesitant about their physical abilities. You explain how outside of the physical benefits, regular resistance training can also help with feeling more confident in their ability to take on a new hiking challenge. This explanation is an example of which health benefit?
This explanation is an example of health benefits like decreased sensations of anxiety and stress.
What is Health?Health may be defined as a state of being unrestricted from disease or illness. It is a condition of complete physical, mental, and social well-being.
Regular exercise and resistance training can also help with feeling more confident in their ability to take on new hiking challenges. It may decline some negative aspects of health like anxiety, stress, loss of interest, etc.
Therefore, it is well described above.
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A Mental Health professional reads signs in the patient's body language to recognize if he or she is beginning to relax and open up. Which of the following is a sign of trust?
The patient is seated facing away from therapist with legs and arms crossed
The patient maintains eye contact and sits facing the therapist
The patient appears fidgety and nervous, and answers simple questions in a short and vague manner
The patient spends most of appointment looking down at hands or away from the therapist
Answer:
The patient maintains eye contact and sits facing the therapist.
Explanation:
a nurse is caring for a client in the pacu after surgery requiring general anesthesia. the client tells the nurse, "i think i’m going to be sick." what is the primary action taken by the nurse?
The instructions will be reviewed by the nurse with the client. The instructions will include any activity restrictions, diet, and pain medication.
What exactly are general anesthesia nursing interventions?
These are critical nursing interventions performed in patients under general anesthesia: When the patient is unable to maintain respiration due to CNS depression, prepare emergency equipment to maintain the airway and provide mechanical ventilation.
Immediate post-anesthesia nursing care focuses on keeping the patient ventilated and circulated, monitoring oxygenation and level of consciousness, preventing shock, and managing pain.
Therefore, the nurse should frequently evaluate and document respiratory, circulatory, and neurologic functions.
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A woman having a possible heart attack redirects her anger away from her condition and toward the paramedic. this is called:_____.
A woman having a possible heart attack redirects her anger away from her condition and toward the paramedic this is called displacement.
Heart attack :A restriction in blood supply to the heart muscle.
A heart attack is considered a medical emergency. A heart attack usually happens when a blood clot prevents blood flow to the heart. Tissue loses oxygen and dies in the absence of blood.
Tightness or discomfort in the chest, neck, back, or arms, as well as weariness, lightheadedness, irregular heartbeat, and anxiety, are all symptoms. Women are more highly probable than men to experience atypical symptoms.
Treatment options include everything from dietary changes and cardiac rehabilitation to medicines, stents, and bypass surgery.
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your choice is important in sequencing the ICD-10-CM codes.
Yes, your choice is important in the sequencing of ICD-10-CM codes, because the wrong use of the code can lead to a wrong diagnosis or characterization of a patient.
What is ICD-10-CM?The ICD-10-CM (International Classification of Diseases, Tenth Revision, Clinical Modification) is a system used by physicians and other healthcare providers to classify and code all diagnoses, symptoms and procedures recorded in conjunction with hospital care in the United States.
With this information, we can conclude that when most people are talking about ICD-10, they are speaking of ICD-10CM. ICD-10CM is the medical coding set for diagnosis coding and is used in all healthcare establishments in the U.S.
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____________________ is the drying of the surfaces of the eye, including the conjunctiva.
Xerophthalmia is the drying of the surfaces of the eye, including the conjunctiva.
Xerophthalmia is the condition in which the surfaces and cornea of eye, including the conjunctiva turns dry. The main causes for this is the deficiency of Vitamin A. Malnutrition, alcoholism and other diseases can also be reasons for Xerophthalmia.
If this gets severe it may go to the extend of turning blind by affecting cornea of the eye.
It is mostly seen in developing countries and can be treated by using vitamin supplements. It can be prevented by the proper consumption of vitamin A supplements through food.
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