The nurse returns to the nurse's station after making client rounds and finds four phone messages. Which message should the nurse return FIRST?
1. A client with hepatitis A who states, "My arms and legs are itching." 2. A client with a cast on the right leg who states, "I have a funny feeling in my right leg." 3. A client with osteomyelitis of the spine who states, "I am so nauseated that I can't eat." 4. A client with arthritis who states, "I am having trouble sleeping at night."
Answers
Based on the urgency of the messages, the nurse should return the call of 3, the client with osteomyelitis of the spine who states, "I am so nauseated that I can't eat" FIRST.
Why is osteomyelitis a serious case?Osteomyelitis is a serious infection of the bone that can spread to other parts of the body, and nausea can be a sign of sepsis or other complications.
Therefore, the nurse should prioritize returning this call to assess the severity of the client's symptoms, provide appropriate interventions, and determine if further medical attention is needed. The other messages can be returned after the nurse has addressed the urgent situation with the client with osteomyelitis.
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The nurse has received four phone messages from different clients. To prioritize, the nurse should return the messages based on the urgency of the client's condition. (2)
The nurse should return the message to the client with a cast on the right leg who states, "I have a funny feeling in my right leg" (Message 2) first. This message could indicate possible complications, such as poor circulation, nerve damage, or a blood clot, which need to be addressed immediately. This client may be experiencing complications related to their cast and needs to be evaluated right away. The other calls can be returned in any order, but this one should take priority.
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Related Questions
if your were using bones to build a heavy house that needed a lot of support, to build the walls, you'd want to use
long bones
short bones
flat bones
sesamoid bones
Answers
Answer:
Long Bones
Explanation:
Helps give better support almost like in the body with better structure
Describe the primary functions performed by digestive and urinary systems and
What are the structures of the digestive system and the urinary system
Answers
Answer:
the structures of the digestive system would include: the
mouth, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, rectum and anus.
The organs associated with the urinary system would be the kidneys, renal pelvis, ureters, bladder and urethra
Because of the size and number of kidney stones present, Mr.
Wilkinson was unable to pass the kidney stones. Describe a treatment available for Mr. Wilkinson. When Mr. Wilkinson was discharged from the hospital, he was given a list of dietary limitations. What might this list have included?
Answers
Explanation:
One treatment available for Mr. Wilkinson would be a procedure called shock wave lithotripsy, which uses shock waves to break up the kidney stones into smaller pieces that can be passed more easily. Another treatment option would be ureteroscopy, where a small scope is used to remove the stones from the kidney or ureter.
The list of dietary limitations given to Mr. Wilkinson may have included a restriction on foods high in oxalates, such as spinach, beets, and nuts, as these can increase the risk of kidney stones. He may also have been advised to limit his intake of animal protein, salt, and sugary beverages, and to drink plenty of water to help flush out the remaining kidney stones.
what are two ways in which white blood cells fight pathogens that have enterd the body
Answers
Answer:
If a pathogen enters your body, white blood cells of your immune system quickly recognise its foreign antigens. This stimulates specific lymphocytes to grow, multiply and finally produce antibodies that will stick to the antigens on the invading pathogens and destroy them.
Explanation:
The nurse has been educating a client newly diagnosed with MS. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the education?
1- "I will take hot tub baths to decrease spasms."
2- "I should participate in non-weight-bearing exercises."
3- "I will stretch daily as directed by the physical therapist."
4- "The exercises should be completed quickly to reduce fatigue."
Answers
The statement that indicates an understanding of the education by the client is option:
3. "I will stretch daily as directed by the physical therapist."This shows that the client understands the importance of following the instructions of the healthcare professionals involved in their care.
Option 1 is not recommended as hot tub baths can actually increase spasms in some people with MS.Option 2 is a good suggestion for exercise, but it does not necessarily indicate an understanding of the education provided.Option 4 is incorrect as exercising quickly can actually increase fatigue in individuals with MS.About physical therapistPhysiotherapy is an action or rehabilitation therapy performed on patients after experiencing certain conditions, such as illness or injury. Basically, physiotherapy is needed to restore normal body function and be able to do activities as usual.
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What does the acronym RACE stand for, as it pertains to fire safety?
Answers
Answer:
Remove, Alarm, Confine, and Extinguish/Evacuate
In the term amylase, the suffix -ase means
Question 6 options:
a) pertaining to.
b) enzyme.
c) condition of.
d) starch.
Answers
Answer:
the suffix ase is a suffix that denotes an enzyme.its used in biochemistry to form names of enzymes.it is also used to determine particular names of enzymes that catalyse a specific reaction.
I hope this helps
Answer:B
Explanation:im not sure
Juan and Terri take the same drug. Both Juan and Terri's internal and external awareness change significantly. However, Juan displays a higher level of awareness in comparison to Terri. In this scenario, both Juan and Terri are exhibiting
Answers
Answer:
Juan would have had an more harmful effect than Terri because of different genes and reactions.
Explanation:
The suffix -dynia means
Answers
Answer: - pain. Gastrodynia
Explanation: Gastodynia also means pain in the stomach (gastr/o means stomach, and -dynia means pain)
Hope this helps you! ;-)
A nurse is caring for a client who has an NG tube set to continuous low suction following a gastrectomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Answers
When a nurse should report findings to a healthcare provider when caring for a client with an NG tube set to continuous low suction following a gastrectomy.
In general, the nurse should report any significant or concerning findings to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and intervention.
The specific findings that should be reported can vary depending on the client's condition, the type of surgery performed, and any specific instructions or precautions given by the healthcare team.
However, some common findings that may warrant reporting include:
Excessive or bright red bleeding from the NG tube: Significant bleeding could indicate a complication such as an anastomotic leak or bleeding from the surgical site.
Increased abdominal pain or discomfort: Persistent or worsening abdominal pain may indicate an underlying issue such as bowel obstruction, perforation, or infection.
Signs of infection: This may include fever, increased redness or swelling around the incision site, purulent drainage, or foul odor from the NG tube.
Vomiting or inability to tolerate oral intake: Continuous low suction is typically used to drain gastric contents and prevent vomiting.
If the client is experiencing persistent or severe vomiting or is unable to tolerate any oral intake, it may indicate a problem that requires attention.
Distended abdomen or absent bowel sounds: These findings may suggest an obstruction or ileus, which can be complications following a gastrectomy.
Changes in NG tube drainage: Significant changes in the amount, color, consistency, or odor of the gastric drainage should be reported, as they may indicate an underlying issue.
It's essential for the nurse to communicate any abnormal findings promptly to the healthcare provider to ensure appropriate assessment and intervention.
Each client's situation may vary, so it's important to follow the specific guidelines and protocols established by the healthcare team for the individual client.
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0/2:5ubmissions Used feadiog above 145 is consibered to be high blood presture. (3 docimal placti) (3 detimal paces? (7 decimat places)
Answers
0/2:5 submissions used, readings above 145 are considered to be high blood pressure. In order to represent the given statement in decimal places, we need to convert the given value of 145 to the required decimal places.
3 decimal places: 145.0003 decimal places of 145 will be 145.000.
This means that if the reading is above 145.000, then it is considered to be high blood pressure.
2 decimal places: 145.002 decimal places of 145 will be 145.00.
This means that if the reading is above 145.00, then it is considered to be high blood pressure.
7 decimal places: 145.00000007 decimal places of 145 will be 145.0000000.
This means that if the reading is above 145.0000000, then it is considered to be high blood pressure.
Therefore, depending on the required number of decimal places, if the readings are above the respective value, then it is considered to be high blood pressure.
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Preconceived negative biases or prejudices about clients of different cultures hamper therapeutic relationships. How might the health care professional assess personal negative biases or prejudices?
Answers
A lot of bias do exist. Health care professional can assess personal negative biases or prejudices by;
Getting to known the basic understanding of the cultures from which your patients come.Evaluate medical personnel Understanding and respecting the scope of unconscious bias.IndividuationInstitutionalize fairness.
Individuation is simply known to be the act of evaluating people based on their personal characteristics rather than those affiliated with their group.
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the hospital outreach nurse is teaching a community program about chronic obstructive pulmopnary disease (copd). which concept should the nurse keep in mind while preparing for this program
Answers
The concept the nurse should keep in mind while preparing for this program is that COPD is a chronic, progressive and incurable illness.
Therefore, it is important to provide information on how to manage the condition through lifestyle changes and by studying various treatments. The nurse should also focus on promoting preventive measures such as avoiding smoking and second-hand smoke, eating healthy foods, getting regular exercise, and routinely visiting a doctor for checkups.
By providing practical tips on managing COPD and stressing the importance of early detection and treatment, the nurse can help empower participants to maintain their health. Additionally, it is important to discuss emotional issues that arise due to COPD such as loneliness or depression, as these can affect an individual's quality of life significantly.
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Which Gestalt law of organization is BEST demonstrated in this image?
A.
law of harmony
B.
law of closure
C.
law of proximity
D.
law of similarity
Answers
The law of similarity, the Gestalt law of organization is best demonstrated in this image. Therefore, the correct option is D.
According to the Gestalt psychology principle, the law of similarity, people tend to think of objects as similar to each other. According to this theory, objects with similar characteristics are grouped together by our visual system. When two or more of these characteristics are shared by objects, it is assumed that they belong to the same class or group.
For example, the law of similarity predicts that if you have a collection of circles and squares of different sizes, you will probably see circles as one group and squares as another group.
Therefore, the correct option is D.
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Which of the following statements concerning anger is false? Please select the best answer from the choices provided
A.There are positive aspects associated with feelings of anger.
B. Anger is one of the most passionate emotions.
C. Anger can result if one experiences limitation.
D. Anger is only a maladaptive emotion.
(Pychology)
Answers
Answer: D.
Explanation:
Answer:
D on edge
Explanation:
which would be the spleen’s first action in response to a deep knife wound in the leg?
Answers
The correct option is B, The spleen's first action in response to a deep knife wound in the leg would be to aid in clotting to stop bleeding at the wound site.
A wound site refers to a location on the body where an injury has occurred, resulting in damage to the skin or underlying tissue. Wounds can be caused by a variety of factors, such as cuts, abrasions, burns, punctures, or surgical incisions. The severity of a wound can range from minor cuts that heal quickly to deep wounds that require medical attention.
Proper wound care is essential to prevent infection and promote healing. Depending on the type and severity of the wound, treatment may include cleaning the wound, applying medication, and covering the wound with a sterile dressing. In some cases, sutures or staples may be needed to close the wound. It is important to keep the wound site clean and dry, avoid picking at scabs or blisters, and monitor for signs of infection such as redness, swelling, or discharge.
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Complete Question:
Which would be the spleen's first action in response to a deep knife wound in the leg?
A)release red blood cells into circulation
B)aid in clotting to stop bleeding at the wound site
C)produce lymphocytes and monocytes
How long does it take to become an anesthesiologist?
Answers
Answer:
12 to 14 years
Explanation:
Type ________ diabetes is ideally treated with diet and exercise, along with the administration of oral hypoglycemic medications to help control the blood sugar levels.
Answers
Hope this helps :)
Type 2 diabetes is ideally treated with diet and exercise, along with the administration of oral hypoglycemic medications to help control the blood sugar levels.
What is type 2 diabetes?Diabetes type 2 is a condition that affects the way in which the body controls and uses sugar (also known as glucose) as a fuel. Because of this illness that lasts for a long time (chronic), there is an excessive amount of sugar circulating in the bloodstream. In the long run, having high blood sugar levels can cause problems with the circulatory system, the nervous system, and the immune system.
Diabetes type 2 is primarily caused by two issues that are interrelated. The cells that make up muscle, fat, and the liver all become resistant to the effects of insulin. Due to the abnormal interaction that these cells have with insulin, they are unable to take in the required amount of sugar.
Diet, exercise, and the possible use of oral hypoglycemic drugs are the three components of an ideal treatment plan for type two diabetes. These components work together to help keep blood sugar levels under control.
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Identifying Reference Information
What information can pharmacy technicians look up in pharmacy references?
Check all that apply.
a. protocols and storage information for different drugs
b. standards for customer-service interactions and sales
c. information about drugs and possible substitutions
d. frequently changing pharmacy standards
e. none; only the pharmacist can look up reference information
Answers
Answer:
A. Protocols and storage information for different drugs
C. Information about drugs and possible substitutions
D. Frequently changing pharmacy standards
Explanation:
I calculated it logically
How can you tell whether a fat contains primarily saturated or unsaturated fatty acids?
a. All plant oils are unsaturated because they are liquid at room temperature.
b. Solid fats that melt at a high temperature are unsaturated.
c. Oils that remain liquid at room temperature are primarily unsaturated.
d. Beef fat is considered unsaturated because cattle eat only plant foods.
e. all fat that is solid at low temperatures is unsaturated.
Answers
Heat the fat until it liquefies, then use a gas chromatograph to separate the fatty acids. This is the simplest method for accomplishing this (GC).
What distinguishes a fat as being saturated or unsaturated? Heat the fat until it liquefies, then use a gas chromatograph to separate the fatty acids. This is the simplest method for accomplishing this (GC).At the carbon-carbon double bond, saturated fatty acids will have a distinctive double-bonded carbon atom, whereas unsaturated fatty acids won't.A saturated fat.It is solid when left at room temperature.It can be present in full-fat dairy products, such as yogurt and cheese, as well as high-fat meats like butter and lard.Unsaturated fatAt normal room temperature, this is usually liquid.You can find it in fish, nuts, and vegetable oils.The largest number of hydrogen atoms are found in saturated fats, but there are less hydrogen bonds than the maximum amount at each double bond in unsaturated fats.To learn more about fatty acids refer
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The best way to tell whether a fat contains primarily saturated or unsaturated fatty acids is to look at the physical properties of the fat. Solid fats that melt at a high temperature are unsaturated, while oils that remain liquid at room temperature are primarily unsaturated.
What is fatty acids?Fatty acids are organic compounds that are made up of a carboxylic acid group attached to a hydrocarbon chain. They are found naturally occurring in plant and animal fats, oils, and waxes, and are important components of biological membranes. Fatty acids are essential for the production of energy and for the proper functioning of all cells and organs. In humans, fatty acids are used to make hormones and regulate many bodily processes. They are also important for the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins and the synthesis of lipids.
Fats that are solid at low temperatures are saturated. For example, beef fat is considered saturated because it is solid at low temperatures.
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why shouldn't you use an AED on someone having a heart attack
Answers
Answer:
Remember, a heart attack can turn into cardiac arrest if the heart becomes damaged. If the person is not responsive when you yell at him, assume it is CARDIAC ARREST and start CPR.
Explanation:
The AED
could change the heartbeat pattern
What are the physical and chemical properties for the transdermal route drugs ?
Answers
Have a good day
Congenital Galactosemia typically appears only in infants because with maturation, most children develop another enzyme capable of metabolizing galactose. Its incidence is about 1 per 18,000 births. If the infant does not receive treatment then there is a 75% chance of death. Thus, in the United States infants are screened for galactosemia. Galactosemia can be confused with lactose intolerance but galactosemia is a considerably more serious condition because consumption of galactose can cause permanent damage to their bodies. What dietary changes should be made
Answers
Answer: The dietary changes that should be made is that milk and milk containing products should be avoided in diets.
Explanation:
Congenital Galactosemia is an autosomal recessive disorder due to galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase(Gal-1-PUT).
Galactose is necessary for the formation of cerebrosides, of some glycoproteins and , during lactation, of milk. Excess is rapidly converted into glucose by Gal-1-PUT. The symptoms of galactosemia only become apparent if the infant is taking milk or milk containing products. This will lead to a rise in plasma galactose concentration.
Its incidence is about 1 per 18,000 births. Since it's a condition that occurs at or before birth, infants are screened by identification of galactose with thin layer chromatography and by demonstrating a deficiency of Gal-1-PUT activity in erythrocytes.
If the infant does not receive treatment then there is a 75% chance of death. Therefore, dietary changes should be made which is that milk and milk containing products should be avoided in diets.
aszmann o, tassler pl, dellon al. changing the natural history of diabetic neuropathy: incidence of ulcer/amputation in the contralateral limb of patients with a unilateral nerve decompression procedure. ann plast surg 2004;53:517-22.
Answers
The article titled "Changing the Natural History of Diabetic Neuropathy: Incidence of Ulcer/Amputation in the Contralateral Limb of Patients with a Unilateral Nerve Decompression Procedure" by Aszmann O, Tassler PL, and Dellon AL, published in the Annals of Plastic Surgery in 2004, investigates the impact of a unilateral nerve decompression procedure on the incidence of ulcer and amputation in the contralateral limb of patients with diabetic neuropathy.
The study aims to examine the effect of a specific surgical procedure, unilateral nerve decompression, on the occurrence of ulcer and amputation in the contralateral limb of patients with diabetic neuropathy. Diabetic neuropathy is a common complication of diabetes characterized by nerve damage, which can lead to sensory loss and potential foot ulcers or amputations.
The authors conducted a retrospective analysis of patients who underwent a unilateral nerve decompression procedure and assessed the incidence of ulcer and amputation in the contralateral limb.
The study design likely involved reviewing medical records and follow-up data of patients who underwent the procedure. The authors may have collected information on the occurrence of ulcers and amputations in the contralateral limb over a specific period.
They then analyzed the data to determine the incidence rates and assess the impact of the unilateral nerve decompression procedure on preventing or reducing the occurrence of ulcers and amputations in the contralateral limb.
The article provides important insights into the potential benefits of unilateral nerve decompression in changing the natural history of diabetic neuropathy by reducing the risk of complications in the contralateral limb. Further details regarding the specific findings, methodology, and conclusions can be obtained by referring to the original publication.
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the fake pill or medicine taken by members of a control group is a
Answers
Answer:
a placebo is the medication
You must always test blood sugar after every meal?
Answers
Analyze Rufaro experimental results and use the results to fill in the name of the antibiotic you will want to prescribe to the patient
Answers
Answer:
Explanation:
eight out of the 9 trainees prescribed the antibiotics, whereas 7 out of the 12 GPs did so. On the basis of a Bayesian analysis, these results yield reasonable statistical evidence in favor of the notion that experienced GPs are more likely to withstand the pressure to prescribe antibiotics than trainee doctors.
List five CLIA-waived tests used to diagnose respiratory conditions.
Answers
The Five CLIA-waived tests used to diagnose respiratory conditions Have been listed below
CLIA-waived tests used to diagnose respiratory conditionsHere are five CLIA-waived tests commonly used to diagnose respiratory conditions:
Rapid Influenza Diagnostic Tests (RIDTs) - Used to detect the presence of influenza viruses in respiratory specimens.
Strep A Rapid Tests - Used to detect Group A Streptococcus bacteria in throat swab specimens, which can cause respiratory infections like strep throat.
Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV) Rapid Antigen Tests - Used to detect the presence of RSV in respiratory specimens, which can cause respiratory infections in both children and adults.
Fecal Occult Blood Tests (FOBTs) - Used to detect the presence of blood in stool specimens, which can be a sign of gastrointestinal bleeding, a symptom that can occur in certain respiratory conditions.
C-reactive protein (CRP) Tests - Used to detect elevated levels of CRP in blood samples, which can be a sign of inflammation in the body, a symptom that can occur in some respiratory conditions.
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Here are five CLIA-waived tests commonly used to diagnose respiratory conditions:
Rapid Influenza Diagnostic Tests (RIDTs)Strep A testsInfluenza A/B & RSV testsC-reactive protein (CRP) testsHemoCue Hemoglobin testsWhat is CLIA-waived tests ?CLIA-waived tests refer to simple laboratory tests that are exempt from certain regulatory requirements of the Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA) of 1988. CLIA-waived tests are considered to be of low to moderate complexity, and they can be performed outside of traditional clinical laboratories, such as in physician offices or at home.
The U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) determines which tests are CLIA-waived based on their complexity and the ease of performing them accurately. CLIA-waived tests are typically designed to provide rapid results with minimal training, making them valuable for point-of-care testing in various healthcare settings.
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Lithia monson93 years old, came to us yesterday with a fall at the nursing home with a suspected subdural hematoma. She seems stable, difficult to determine her level of confusion as she has dementia. She has a bump on her head. Ms. Monson is cooperative, direct-able, and we do not see any changes. Vital signs are stable -temp 97. 2, bp 96/74, p 82, rr 20, sao2 97%. She is oriented with some direction to time and place. Her speech is clear. She did not recognize her son today when he came to see her, but that is not new for her. Q1 hour nuero assessments and we are watching her closely. We have asked the family to stay with her 100% of the time so she does not fall. Strict i
Answers
93-year-old Lithia Monson with dementia had a fall and suspected subdural hematoma. Stable condition, frequent neurological assessments, family support to prevent falls.
Lithia Monson, 93 years old, presented with a fall and suspected subdural hematoma. Despite having dementia, she appears stable with vital signs within normal limits. Her level of confusion is challenging to assess due to her condition. Neurological assessments are being conducted every hour, and no significant changes have been observed so far.
Ms. Monson is cooperative and responsive to direction, though she didn't recognize her son, which is not uncommon for her. To ensure her safety, we've requested constant family presence. Close monitoring will continue to promptly address any changes in her condition. The interdisciplinary team is working together to provide appropriate care and support for Ms. Monson's well-being.
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The complete question is:
Lithia monson93 years old, came to us yesterday with a fall at the nursing home with a suspected subdural hematoma. She seems stable, difficult to determine her level of confusion as she has dementia. She has a bump on her head. Ms. Monson is cooperative, direct-able, and we do not see any changes. Vital signs are stable -temp 97. 2, bp 96/74, p 82, rr 20, sao2 97%. She is oriented with some direction to time and place. Her speech is clear. She did not recognize her son today when he came to see her, but that is not new for her.
Q1 hour neuro assessments and we are watching her closely. We have asked the family to stay with her 100% of the time so she does not fall.
Which situation places the client at the highest risk of lack of oxygen
Answers
Answer:
The nurse caring for a client with a chest tube turns the client to the side and the chest tube accidentally disconnects from the water seal chamber.
Explanation: