the nurse provides a class about salmon patches (nevus simplex) to new mothers. when teaching the mothers, the nurse should include which statement?

Answers

Answer 1

The nurse should include treatment for salmon patches is not indicated as the birthmark fades over time.

A nurse is someone who is educated to present care to individuals who are unwell or injured. Nurses work with doctors and other health care people to make patients nicely and to preserve their suit and healthy. Nurses also help with end-of-life needs and help another circle of relatives participants with grieving.

The number one role of a nurse is to be a caregiver for patients by way of handling bodily wishes, stopping infection, and treating health situations. Nurses have to look at and monitor the patient and record any relevant statistics to aid in treatment selection-making techniques.

Nurses listen to and understand the concerns of their patients—which is important for evaluating conditions and growing treatment plans.

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Related Questions

Which of the following defines the body’s set point? a. Point above which the body tends to lose weight and below which it tends to gain weight b. Point at which all LPL activity ceases c. Point at which a person’s weight plateaus before dropping again quickly d. A person’s minimum healthy weight e. A person’s maximum healthy weight

Answers

The correct option that defines the body's set point is: (e) A person's maximum healthy weight.

The body's set point refers to the weight range within which an individual's body tends to naturally regulate and maintain its weight. It is influenced by various factors, including genetics, metabolism, and physiological processes.

The set point is typically associated with a range of weights, and it helps to maintain homeostasis by regulating appetite, energy expenditure, and fat storage.

Option e, "A person's maximum healthy weight," aligns with the concept of the body's set point as it represents the upper limit of weight that is considered healthy for an individual. It signifies the point beyond which weight gain may be considered excessive and potentially detrimental to overall health.

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Final answer:

The body's set point is the physiological value around which the normal range fluctuates. It influences the maintenance of homeostasis and can be adjusted over time in response to physiological conditions.

Explanation:

The body's set point is the physiological value around which the normal range fluctuates. This set-point is genetically predetermined and efforts to move our weight significantly from the set-point are resisted by compensatory changes in energy intake and/or expenditure. It is referred as the ideal body weight, which the body attempts to maintain.

Set-point is critical in the maintenance of homeostasis, a stable state of the body. When deviations from the set point occur, the body initiates a negative feedback mechanism that aims to reverse the deviation and maintain body parameters within their normal range.

It is important to note that the set point can adjust over time. For instance, in the case of blood pressure, the set point may increase due to consistent high blood pressure, leading to the maintenance of an elevated blood pressure which can have harmful effects on the body. However, through interventions like medication, it is possible to lower the set point to a more healthful level.

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Answer the statistical measures and create a box and whiskers plot for the following set of data.
6, 6, 7, 7, 7, 8, 8, 10, 11, 11, 12, 17, 19
6,6,7,7,7,8,8,10,11,11,12,17,19
Min:
Q1:
Med:
Q3:
Max:
Create the box plot by dragging the lines:

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

2,5,7,8,8, 10, 11, 12, 14, 14, 15, 16, 18, 18, 19

what skills do I benefit when playing a yoyo​

Answers

Answer:

a sore finger tolerence

Explanation:

You can do tricks with it

How does the use of telemedicine for interpretation of X-rays (by providers outside the organization and maybe out of the country) affect credentialing/privileging decisions?

Answers

The use of telemedicine for the interpretation of X- rays can interfere with credentialing / privileging if the hospital or organization is out of network .

What is telemedicine?

Telemedicine can be described as a technology that allows health care professionals to evaluate, diagnose and treat patients at a distance using telecommunications technology.

The use of telemedicine for the interpretation of X- rays can interfere with credentialing / privileging if the hospital or organization is out of network .

Telemedicine also involves the use of electronic communications and software technology  to provide medical services to patients without a physical visit.

Telemedicine offers many benefits to both workers and Patients as these patients enjoy the following:

Less time away from workNo travel expenses or timeLess interference with child or elder care responsibilitiesPrivacyNo exposure to other potentially contagious patients.

The use of telemedicine has a great advantage as it helps health workers to manage contagious diseases effectively.

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What types of agencies are designed for people who have no major health problems but are unable to live independently?

A. adult day cares
B. assisted living facilities
C. hospitals
D. long-term care centers

Answers

Answer:

Adult day cares because most of the people are healthy but still they (children) put them in adult day care

4. Mrs. Robins states that she should not have her blood pressure taken on her left arm
because she has had a mastectomy. She indicates that her lymph nodes were also removed on
that side and the doctor told her not to have her blood pressure taken on that side. Why would a
doctor say this? You may need to refer to the Internet for the reason why

Answers

Answer:

Its precautionary to prevent lymphedema.

Explanation:

Sometimes, removing lymph nodes can make it hard for your lymphatic system to drain properly. If this happens, lymphatic fluid can build up in the area where the lymph nodes were removed. This extra fluid causes swelling called lymphedema.

The surgical partial or total removal of one or both breasts is referred to medically as a mastectomy. Breast cancer is typically treated with a mastectomy. Women who are thought to have a high risk of developing breast cancer occasionally have the procedure done as a preventative step.

What is Lymphedema?Lymphedema is caused by a blockage in the lymphatic system. This is usually the result of a traumatic event, such as a sports injury or deep cuts and bruises, or as a side effect of surgery or cancer treatment. Lymphedema can occur as a birth defect or as a symptom of infection in rare cases. Precautions are required to prevent lymphedema. When lymph nodes are removed, your lymphatic system may struggle to discharge properly on occasion. If this occurs, lymphatic fluid may accumulate where the lymph nodes were removed. Lymphedema is a swelling caused by extra fluid. It is critical to understand that lymphedema can sometimes become severe and cause serious problems, and that it is frequently a long-term or chronic condition.

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ferrero rocher explain 5c's STP 4p's

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The 5C's of marketing are customer, company, competitors, collaborators, and context. The 4P's of the marketing mix are product, price, place, and promotion.

1. Customer: Ferrero Rocher targets consumers who enjoy high-quality chocolates and are willing to pay a premium price. They focus on creating a luxurious and indulgent experience for their customers.

2. Company: Ferrero Rocher is a well-established chocolate brand known for its distinctive gold foil packaging and hazelnut filling. They have a strong reputation for producing high-quality chocolates.

3. Competitors: Ferrero Rocher faces competition from other luxury chocolate brands such as Lindt and Godiva. They need to differentiate themselves through unique flavors and packaging to stand out in the market.

4. Collaborators: Ferrero Rocher may collaborate with retailers, distributors, and suppliers to ensure the availability and visibility of their chocolates in stores.

5. Context: Ferrero Rocher operates in the premium chocolate segment, targeting consumers who are willing to spend more for a premium chocolate experience.

The 4P's of the marketing mix are product, price, place, and promotion.

1. Product: Ferrero Rocher offers a range of chocolates with a hazelnut filling, wrapped in gold foil. They focus on quality, unique flavors, and elegant packaging.

2. Price: Ferrero Rocher is positioned as a premium brand and their chocolates are priced higher compared to regular chocolates. This reflects the quality and exclusivity of the product.

3. Place: Ferrero Rocher chocolates are distributed globally and can be found in high-end supermarkets, specialty chocolate stores, and online platforms.

4. Promotion: Ferrero Rocher uses various marketing and advertising strategies to promote their chocolates, such as television commercials, social media campaigns, and partnerships with influencers. They emphasize the luxury and indulgence associated with their brand.

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which of the following should be included as part of the treatment plan for the patient with ibs? A. High-fiber diet
B. A discussion that the goal of treatment is to cure their disease
C. Daily laxatives
D. A conversation about their expected shorter life span

Answers

A high-fiber diet is an appropriate inclusion in the treatment plan for a patient with IBS

The treatment plan for a patient with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) typically involves a multimodal approach to address the symptoms and improve the patient's quality of life. Among the options listed, the most appropriate choice for inclusion in the treatment plan would be option A: a high-fiber diet.

A high-fiber diet is commonly recommended for individuals with IBS, as it can help regulate bowel movements and alleviate constipation or diarrhea, which are common symptoms of the condition. However, it's important to note that the specific dietary recommendations may vary depending on the patient's symptoms and individual needs. In some cases, certain types of fiber may need to be limited, such as insoluble fiber, as it can exacerbate symptoms for some individuals.

Options B and C are not suitable for inclusion in the treatment plan for IBS. IBS is a chronic condition that currently has no known cure, so discussing the goal of treatment as a cure may lead to unrealistic expectations. Daily laxative use is generally not recommended as a long-term solution for IBS, as it can lead to dependence and potential adverse effects.

Option D, suggesting a conversation about the patient's expected shorter life span, is not appropriate for IBS. IBS itself does not typically result in a significantly shorter life span. While the condition can be chronic and impact an individual's quality of life, it does not pose a direct threat to life expectancy.

In summary, a high-fiber diet is an appropriate inclusion in the treatment plan for a patient with IBS, while options B, C, and D are not suitable. It's essential to consult with a healthcare professional to develop a personalized treatment plan based on the patient's specific symptoms and needs.

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Help I need the labels for this heart

Help I need the labels for this heart

Answers

Answer:

hope this will help you more

Help I need the labels for this heart

A client has 6/10 knee pain at the beginning of a workout. at the end of the first set of the lateral step with a mini-band his knee pain decreased to 4/10. at the end of the second set it decreased to 2/10. after the third set, his knee pain increased back to 4/10. what should you do next

Answers

Perform a fourth set and see if it helps is the most appropriate thing to do next.

What is Pain?

This is defined as an unpleasant sensation and emotional experience usually caused by tissue damage.

During the workout, the pain reduced a bit and increased which is why the fourth set should be done to ascertain its effect so as to know if alternative medications will be used.

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Orthostatic hypotension,
confusion, drowsiness
and nausea are all
examples of:

Answers

Answer:

Mild dehydration can cause symptoms of orthostatic hypotension, such as weakness, dizziness and fatigue. Heart problems. Some heart conditions that can lead to low blood pressure include extremely low heart rate (bradycardia), heart valve problems, heart attack and heart failure.

the nurse would monitor for which adverse effect in a patient who takes amiodarone? select all that apply.

Answers

The nurse would monitor for several adverse effects in a patient who takes amiodarone. Some of them are: Pulmonary toxicity,  Liver toxicity, Thyroid dysfunction, Eye toxicity, Skin reactions, and Cardiovascular complications.

The following are some of the adverse effects that should be monitored:

1. Pulmonary toxicity: Patients who take amiodarone are more likely to develop pulmonary toxicity, which can cause coughing, shortness of breath, and pulmonary fibrosis.

2. Liver toxicity: Liver toxicity is a possible side effect of amiodarone use, and patients should be monitored for signs of liver damage, such as elevated liver enzyme levels, abdominal pain, and jaundice.

3. Thyroid dysfunction: Amiodarone may cause both hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism, so thyroid function should be monitored in patients taking this medication.

4. Eye toxicity: Amiodarone can cause corneal deposits, optic neuropathy, and vision loss. Therefore, patients should have regular eye exams to detect any potential problems.

5. Skin reactions: Amiodarone may cause skin reactions, such as photosensitivity, rash, and blue-gray discoloration of the skin, which can be permanent.

6. Cardiovascular complications: Amiodarone can cause bradycardia, hypotension, QT prolongation, and torsades de pointes, a potentially fatal arrhythmia that requires immediate medical attention.

In conclusion, amiodarone has several potential side effects that require careful monitoring by healthcare providers. Patients taking this medication should be aware of these potential adverse effects and report any symptoms or changes in their health status to their healthcare provider.

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How long do you take an apical pulse for

Answers

Answer:Typically, apical pulse rate is taken for a full minute to ensure accuracy; this is particularly important in infants and children due to the possible presence of sinus arrhythmia. Upon auscultating the apical pulse, you will hear the sounds “lub dup” – this counts as one beat. Count the apical pulse for one minute.

Explanation:

T/F:regardless of which method a person uses to consume a psychoactive drug, the drug reaches the brain through the bloodstream.

Answers

Regardless of which method a person uses to consume a psychoactive drug, the drug reaches the brain through the bloodstream which is true.

Regardless of the method of consumption, psychoactive drugs ultimately reach the brain through the bloodstream. When a drug is consumed, whether it is ingested, inhaled, injected, or absorbed through the skin, it enters the bloodstream and is carried throughout the body. The bloodstream serves as the transportation system, delivering the drug to various organs and tissues, including the brain. Once the drug reaches the brain, it can interact with receptors and affect the central nervous system, leading to its psychoactive effects.

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Which of the following is NOT part of the respiratory system?

1. pharynx
2. ventricle
3. trachea
4. bronchus

Answers

Answer:

Ventricle

Explanation:

2. Ventricle is the answer

Explain the statement “Pharmacists must consider the effect the body has on the drug as well as the effect the drug has on the body.”

Answers

Yep that’s correct as most pharmacists check the drugs to make sure the drug doesn’t have an effect on the body

Yes most of the Pharmacists check the drugs to make sure that the drug doesn’t have an negative effect on the body.

What are the 4 stages of drug development?

Stages of drug development includes:

Discovery and Development. Preclinical Research. Clinical Research. FDA Drug Review. FDA Post-Market Drug Safety Monitoring.

What are the 4 phases of drug trials?Clinical Trial. The purpose of Phase 1 is to ensure that the treatment is safe in humans and to determine how and where it distributes within the body. Clinical Trial.Clinical Trial.Monitoring Post-FDA Approval.

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Question 33 Marks: 1 The preferred method for controlling sewage from watercraft is the use ofChoose one answer. a. on-board holding tanks b. overboard discharge c. incinerator toilet d. compost toilet

Answers

The preferred method for controlling sewage from watercraft is on-board holding tanks.

On-board holding tanks are the preferred method for controlling sewage from watercraft because they allow for the proper disposal of waste in a safe and environmentally friendly manner. The use of overboard discharge, which releases untreated sewage into the water, can be harmful to marine life and the environment. Incinerator toilets are expensive and not widely used, while compost toilets require specific conditions for proper functioning. On the other hand, on-board holding tanks allow for the collection of sewage until it can be properly disposed of at a shore-based facility. This method is effective and ensures that waste is not released into the water, protecting the environment and public health.

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what are the advantages of encoder

Answers

Answer:

Benefits and Advantages of encoder:

Highly reliable and accurate.

Higher resolution.

Low-cost feedback.

Integrated electronics.

Compact in size.

Fuses optical and digital technology.

It can be incorporated into existing applications.

Drawback and Disadvantages of an encoder:

The subject of magnetic radio interference.

Susceptible to dirt, oil and dust contaminate.

Direct light source interference.

Explanation:

Benefits and Advantages of encoder:
Highly reliable and accurate.
Higher resolution.
Low-cost feedback.
Integrated electronics.
Compact in size.
Fuses optical and digital technology.
It can be incorporated into existing applications.

Who can report an adverse event (AE)?
A. Participant
B. Participant's spouse
C. Caregiver
D. Participant's family member
E. Research Nurse
F. All of the above can report an AE

Answers

Hi !

Who can report an adverse event (AE)?

F. All of the above can report an AE

neopas SmartArt
Рисование
Акц
Large blood vessel-
4
HEART
1
3
Layers of the heart
Anatomy

Answers

Answer:

If you can could you uh make it in english?

Explanation:

Identify the four-step plan that should be followed when a stressor causes a physical reaction in the body.

Answers

When a stressor causes a physical reaction in the body, the four-step plan that should be followed is known as SRRR. It is an acronym for Stop, Relax, Reflect, and Respond. In this method, the goal is to address the stressor effectively and appropriately.

1. Stop
The first step in the SRRR plan is to stop whatever you are doing when you realize that stressor is causing physical reactions in your body. You need to halt the activity that you were doing to assess the situation effectively.
2. Relax
Once you have stopped the activity, the next step is to relax your mind and body. You can use different relaxation techniques like deep breathing, meditation, or stretching exercises to release the tension in your body and calm your mind.
3. Reflect
After you have relaxed your mind and body, the next step is to reflect on the situation that caused the physical reaction. You need to identify the stressor that caused the reaction and analyze the situation carefully. This helps you to understand the trigger of your stress and the effect it has on you.
4. Respond
The final step in the SRRR plan is to respond to the stressor appropriately. You can use different strategies like problem-solving, communication, or seeking support to manage the stressor effectively. This can help you to regain control and reduce the impact of stress on your physical and mental health.
In conclusion, the SRRR plan is a helpful tool that can help you manage stress effectively. By following these four simple steps, you can control your physical reactions, relax your mind and body, reflect on the stressor, and respond appropriately to manage the situation effectively.

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help. please. 10 points

help. please. 10 points

Answers

Answer:

This Is a pic showing the answers. Im pretty sure they are right.

Explanation:

help. please. 10 points

what services does block and parish nursing provide for preventive and primary care services?

Answers

Block and parish nursing provide preventive and primary care services such as health education, health screenings, referrals, and advocacy.

Block and parish nursing is a community-based nursing practice that focuses on the health and well-being of individuals and families within a specific geographic area or faith community. These nurses provide a range of services to promote preventive and primary care, including health education on topics such as healthy lifestyle choices, disease prevention, and management of chronic conditions.

They also offer health screenings for conditions such as hypertension, diabetes, and cancer, and refer patients to appropriate healthcare providers as needed. Additionally, block and parish nurses serve as advocates for patients, helping them navigate the healthcare system and connect with resources that can support their health and well-being. Through their work, block and parish nurses play a critical role in promoting health and wellness within communities and addressing health disparities.

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Individuals diagnosed with a personality disorder will likely demonstrate all of the following except __________.

a) the tendency to be impulsive
b) the need for instant gratification
c) suspicion and mistrust of others
d) restraint from becoming too intimate

The correct answer is D

Answers

Answer:

ur right its D

Please mark as brainliest if answer is right

Have a great day, be safe and healthy  

Thank u  

XD  

The Individuals diagnosed with a personality disorder does not represent the option d.  restraint from becoming too intimate.

What is a personality disorder?

It is the long-term pattern that should be different in a significant manner.

At the time when the individual iagnosed with a personality disorder so there is the tendency for impulsive, instant gratification, and mistrust of others.

Hence, the option d is correct.

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How often should rescuers switch roles when performing two-rescuer CPR?
A. After every cycle of CPR
B. After every two cycles of CPR
C. After every five cycles of CPR
D. After every 10 cycles of CPR

Answers

The rescuers should switch roles when performing two-rescuer CPR

(B) After every two cycles of CPR.

During two-rescuer CPR, it is important for rescuers to switch roles periodically to prevent fatigue and maintain the effectiveness of chest compressions. The American Heart Association (AHA) recommends rotating roles every two minutes or after every two cycles of CPR.

By switching roles after every two cycles, each rescuer has an opportunity to perform chest compressions and provide rescue breaths. This rotation helps maintain the quality and intensity of chest compressions, which are crucial for adequate blood circulation during cardiac arrest.

It is important to note that the specific guidelines for CPR may vary slightly depending on the organization and region. However, the general principle of periodically switching roles to minimize fatigue and maximize efficiency remains consistent.

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Which one of the following is highly suspicious for non-accidental trauma in a pediatric patient?

Answers

Sternal fractures are highly suspicious for non-accidental trauma in a pediatric patient.

60% to 90% of the time, collisions with moving vehicles are the cause of sternal fractures. The majority of injuries happen in older cars without airbag deployment, and they often result from the chest hitting the steering wheel. Women are somewhat more than men to sustain fractures.

A child who has been intentionally injured suffers from non-accidental trauma (NAT), often known as child abuse. Skin and soft tissue injuries are common, but around one-third of NATs result in fractures. From health maintenance to the evaluation and management of severe and long-term disorders, paediatric care covers a wide range of medical services.

THE QUESTION IS INCOMPLETE AND NOT AVAILABLE ON INTERNET, I AM ANSWERING THE QUESTION IN GENERAL

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HCPCS level II codes are: a. sometimes replaced by HCPCS level III temporary codes. b. intended for use by all private and public health insurers. c. maintained by the AMA's Editorial Board, which makes decisions about additions, revisions, and deletions. d. updated by CMS when necessary, without participation by the HCPCS National Panel.

Answers

Answer:

HCPCS Level II codes are alphanumeric medical procedure codes, primarily for non-physician services such as ambulance services and prosthetic devices,. They represent items, supplies and non-physician services not covered by CPT-4 codes (Level I).

Explanation:

all of the following are risk factors for HCV transmission EXCEPT

Answers

Hey there!

The risks of HIV Virus are: Are a health care worker who has been exposed to infected blood, which may happen if an infected needle pierces your skin. Have ever injected or inhaled illicit drugs. Have HIV. Received a piercing or tattoo in an unclean environment using unsterile equipment.

Hope it help you

the patient had a procedure to visually examine the ulcer. name the procedure and then describe in your own words what the physician observed

Answers

The patient had a procedure to visually examine the ulcer is Endoscopy.

Endoscopy, doctor may examine your upper digestive system with a scope (endoscopy). Endoscopy involves your doctor inserting a hollow tube with a lens (endoscope) down your throat and then into your esophagus, stomach, and small intestine. Your doctor examines the endoscope for ulcers.

An upper GI endoscopy may be ordered by a doctor to confirm the diagnosis of a peptic ulcer and to try to determine its cause. An upper GI endoscopy involves a doctor using an endoscope—a flexible tube equipped with a camera—to examine the lining of ones upper GI tract, which includes your esophagus, stomach, and duodenum.

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the nurse is placin the client on isolation precautions. which of the followin interventions should the nurse include?

Answers

When a nurse places a client in isolation precautions, there are several interventions that they should include.

Isolation precautions are taken to prevent the spread of infectious diseases and prevent exposure to the patient.

These include respiratory isolation, contact isolation, and droplet isolation.

The nurse will need to take precautions based on the patient's condition to minimize the spread of infection.

When a client is placed on isolation precautions, the nurse should do the following interventions:

Wash hands before and after coming into contact with the patient.

The nurse must also make sure the patient is washing their hands frequently.

They should also avoid contact with the patient's body fluids and tissues.

Any equipment used must be disinfected or disposed of properly.

Wear gloves and other appropriate protective equipment when coming into contact with the patient.

The nurse should always wear protective gloves when dealing with patients on isolation precautions.

Gowns and masks may also be required based on the type of isolation required.

Properly dispose of any waste materials to minimize the risk of spreading the disease.

Used supplies and equipment should be discarded properly and disinfect the environment before and after the patient leaves the isolation area.

It's essential to maintain a clean environment to minimize the spread of the infectious agent.

All of these interventions should be followed to ensure that the patient's health is maintained while they are in isolation.

The nurse should also educate the patient and their family on the precautions they should take when interacting with them.

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