"Circumcision has been delayed to save tissue for surgical repair."statement by the parents indicates their understanding of the plan. the nurse is reviewing the treatment plan with the parents of a newborn infant with hypospadias.
A congenital abnormality known as hypospadias affects males and results in the urethra's opening not being near the tip of the . The urethra develops improperly in boys with hypospadias between weeks 8 and 14 of pregnancy. The aberrant hole can appear anywhere between the scrotum and the area right below the tip. Surgery is not necessary in certain cases of extremely modest hypospadias. However, surgery is typically required for therapy to realign the urethral opening and, if necessary, straighten the . Typically, surgery is performed between the ages of 6 and 12 months.
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The nurse is educating parents of a child admitted to the hospital with rubella (German measles). Which statement by the parents indicates the further education is needed
The statement "Antibiotics are needed to help our child recover from rubella." by the parents indicates the further education is needed.
This statement shows that the parents are not aware of the serious complications that rubella can cause, such as encephalitis and congenital rubella syndrome (CRS) which can lead to birth defects in an unborn baby if the mother contracts rubella during pregnancy. Therefore, the nurse should provide more education on the potential complications of rubella and the importance of preventing the spread of the disease.
Another example would be if the parents say "We can't give our child the rubella vaccine because it causes autism" this statement also shows a lack of understanding about the facts and myths about vaccination and the importance of vaccination in preventing the spread of the disease.
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the next time you have a headache, you will be more likely to take ibuprofen again because of which operant conditioning process?
The operant conditioning process that would make you more likely to take ibuprofen again for a headache is positive reinforcement.
The operant conditioning process that would make you more likely to take ibuprofen again for a headache is positive reinforcement. In operant conditioning, positive reinforcement refers to the process of increasing the likelihood of a behavior by presenting a desirable stimulus immediately after the behavior occurs. In this case, taking ibuprofen provides relief from your headache, which serves as a positive stimulus. As a result, you are more likely to repeat the behavior of taking ibuprofen in the future when you experience a headache, seeking the positive reinforcement of pain relief. Over time, this reinforcement strengthens the association between taking ibuprofen and headache relief, increasing the likelihood of the behavior being repeated.
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How do we protect a patient's privacy, and how do we verify the patient's identity? Explain HIPAA.
Answer:
To protect a patient's privacy, healthcare providers and organizations must comply with the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA), which establishes national standards for protecting individuals' medical records and personal health information.
To verify a patient's identity, healthcare providers may require them to provide a government-issued ID or other form of identification that includes their name, date of birth, and other identifying information. Healthcare providers may also use electronic health record (EHR) systems to verify patient identity by matching the information entered into the system with the patient's personal information on file.
I hope this answers your question.
can behavior be considered sexual harassment if someone doesn't intend to be offensive, but another person takes offense
Answer: Sexual Harassment of a student interferes with a
student’s right to receive an education free from
discrimination.
Sexual harassment is unwelcome conduct of a sexual
nature.
Sexual Harassment Can Be In the Form of:
Verbal Harassment
Non-Verbal Harassment
Physical Harassment
Explanation: •Federal law Title IX of the Education Amendments
of 1972 prohibits discrimination on the basis of sex,
including sexual harassment in education
programs and activities.
The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) reported a _______% rise in deaths from infectious diseases since 1980
The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) reported a 58% rise in deaths from infectious diseases since 1980.
According to the CDC, there has been a significant increase in deaths caused by infectious diseases in the United States since 1980. This 58% rise highlights the ongoing challenges and impact of infectious diseases on public health.
Several factors contribute to this increase in infectious disease-related deaths. One factor is the emergence of new infectious diseases, such as HIV/AIDS and Ebola, which have had devastating effects on global health. Additionally, the rise of antimicrobial resistance has made certain infections more difficult to treat, leading to higher mortality rates.
Changes in population dynamics, including increased global travel and urbanization, have also contributed to the spread of infectious diseases. Infectious diseases can easily cross borders and affect large populations, making it crucial for public health agencies to monitor and respond to outbreaks effectively.
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.A patient that is 80 years old fell and fractured his hip. He lives by himself and his daughter lives 60 miles away from him and doesn't visit him often to help. During his care in the hospital, he was told not to do any activities like adduct his hip or internally or externally rotate his leg. he can not flex his hip more than 90 degrees. Yesterday he was found leaning over to tie his shoe during a physical therapy session. It seems like he needs multiple cueing to avoid the actions that put his hip at risk. We are reinforming these things repeatedly and the nurses said that he is communicating well but he is just not getting it. The interprofessional collaboration team wants to find a rehab facility close to where his daughter lives so she can visit more and reinforce what he needs to be doing and said that he is not fit to go home by himself.
What actions should the interprofessional team take to advocate effectively for this client?
To advocate effectively for the client, the interprofessional team should gather comprehensive information about the patient's condition, communicate with the daughter to involve her in the care plan, research and recommend suitable rehab facilities near her, coordinate with healthcare professionals, facilitate communication and transition, provide ongoing support and guidance to the daughter, and advocate for the patient's best interests throughout the process.
The interprofessional team should take the following actions to advocate effectively for this client:
1. Gather and share comprehensive information: Collect all relevant information about the patient's condition, including his limitations, living situation, and the need for continued support and reinforcement.
2. Communicate with the patient's daughter: Contact the daughter to discuss the patient's condition, the recommended care plan, and the importance of her involvement in his rehabilitation process. Seek her input and address any concerns or questions she may have.
3. Research and recommend suitable rehab facilities: Conduct a thorough search for rehab facilities near the daughter's location that can provide the necessary care and support for the patient's recovery. Consider factors such as proximity, quality of care, availability of specialized services, and visiting policies.
4. Coordinate with healthcare professionals: Collaborate with the patient's healthcare team, including physicians, nurses, and therapists, to obtain their input and support in advocating for the patient's transfer to a rehab facility. Seek their expertise in assessing the patient's progress and the level of care required.
5. Facilitate communication and transition: Establish clear lines of communication between the interprofessional team, the daughter, and the chosen rehab facility. Ensure that all parties are aware of the patient's needs, restrictions, and goals for rehabilitation. Facilitate a smooth transition from the hospital to the rehab facility, including necessary paperwork and medical information transfer.
6. Provide ongoing support and guidance: Offer guidance to the patient's daughter on how she can reinforce the recommended activities and precautions during her visits. Share educational materials, schedule follow-up consultations with healthcare professionals, and provide resources that can assist her in supporting the patient's recovery.
7. Advocate for the patient's best interests: Act as the patient's advocate throughout the process, ensuring that his needs, safety, and well-being are prioritized. Communicate with all stakeholders involved, including hospital administrators and insurance providers, to secure the necessary approvals and support for the patient's transfer to a suitable rehab facility.
By taking these actions, the interprofessional team can effectively advocate for the client's best interests and facilitate a smoother transition to a rehab facility that is closer to his daughter's location, allowing for increased support and reinforcement of his care.
To effectively advocate for the client, the interprofessional team should gather all relevant information about the patient, involve the daughter in the care plan, find and recommend suitable rehab facilities near her, coordinate with healthcare professionals, assist with communication and transition, provide continuous support to the daughter, and advocate for the patient's best interests. These actions are aimed at ensuring the patient receives appropriate care while involving the daughter in his rehabilitation and recovery process.
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how many abortions were performed in the united states in 2021
According to the most recent data available, there were an estimated 862,320 abortions performed in the United States in 2021.
Abortion is a medical procedure that terminates a pregnancy. The decision to have an abortion is a deeply personal and complex one, and it is often influenced by a range of factors, including individual beliefs and values, financial circumstances, and access to healthcare. In the United States, the legality of abortion varies by state, with some states imposing strict restrictions on the procedure and others allowing it without limitation. According to data from the Guttmacher Institute, which conducts research and provides analysis on sexual and reproductive health, there were an estimated 862,320 abortions performed in the United States in 2021. This represents a slight increase from the previous year when an estimated 825,000 abortions were performed. The data also shows that the majority of abortions (approximately 60%) were performed in the first 8 weeks of pregnancy and that the vast majority (approximately 90%) were performed in the first trimester.
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Natasha is a toxicologist. During an investigation, she collected blood from the subjects arm. What type of blood specimen is it?
Answer:D.
antemortem
Explanation:
Dr.Jasen and Dale, a veterinary assistant from Ashton Oak Equine Center are on a farm call to examine a Thoroughbred named “Roscoe”. The horse has been lethargic, weak after exercise, and had a decreased appetite for several days. The vet completes a PE and determines the horse has pale mucous membranes, a decreased HR and RR, is 5-10% dehydrated, appears weak and have lost some weight since the last exam. The vet is suspicious of parasites or an auto immune disease, since some of the signs appear to be anemia. Dr. Jansen explains to the owner that Jaimie causes a low blood cell count causing less oxygen to be transported to the tissues. Thus, the body is not producing enough blood cells. Upon completing the exam, Mark assists the vet in obtaining some blood samples and a fecal sample for further diagnosis. What are some possible causes for the anemia? What are some factors that could prevent the horse from having anemia? What treatment options might Dr.Jansen discuss with the owner?
Answer:
"Nonregenerative anemias include anemias caused by nutritional deficiencies in vitamins or minerals (such as iron), long-term disease, kidney disease"
"Supportive treatments, such as blood transfusions, may be indicated for severe cases to resolve equine anemia is supplementing with vitamins and minerals that are important to the process of red blood cell production."
which intervention would the nurse plan to prevent respiratory complications in a patient who has just undergone liver transplant
Interventions such as deep breathing and coughing exercises and supplemental oxygen the nurse would plan to prevent respiratory complications in a patient who has just undergone liver transplant.
This is due to the high risk of respiratory complications in liver transplant patients from anesthesia, mechanical ventilation and sedation. As soon as possible after surgery the nurse should encourage the patient to ambulate, use an incentive spirometer, cough and take deep breaths. In order to facilitate breathing and prevent aspiration, the patient should also be positioned in a semi Fowler's position.
The patient's respiratory rate and oxygen saturation levels should be regularly monitored by the nurse, who should also administer oxygen therapy as necessary. The risk of respiratory complications should also be minimized by providing adequate pain management. To avoid further complications and guarantee a full recovery. it is crucial to recognize and treat any respiratory issues as soon as possible.
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case study, I have a child wellness home visit and I saw mum with two baby, I have noticed baby in dirty nappy, with dirty clothes, their room was in mesh things was lying everywhere and 6 of them staying in one room, they having financial problems to support kids and requesting food parcel district health team. need to 800 words of reflection writing with use of gibbs cycles and also reference list. thanks
ASAP plzzzzzzzz
A midline incision below the
isthmus of the thyroid gland
is performed. Which of the
following vessels are most
likely to be present at the site
?of incision
Cricothyroid artery and inferior
thyroid vein.
O
Middle thyroid vein and inferior
thyroid artery.
Inferior thyroid vein and thyroidea
ima artery
O O O O
Inferior thyroid artery and inferior
thyroid vein.
Left brachiocephalic vein and
inferior thyroid artery.
Answer: inferior thyroid vein and thyroid Ima artery
Explanation:
Knowledge and attitude of women towards pre menopausal syndrome
Answer:
Irritability and feelings of sadness are the most common emotional symptoms of menopause. Often, they can be managed through lifestyle changes, such as learning ways to relax and reduce stress. Here are some tips that may make it easier for you to handle your fluctuating emotions: Exercise and eat healthy.
Which stage of Kohlberg's theory of moral reasoning is based on one's personal code of ethics? A. unconventional B. conventional C. preconventional D. postconventional
Answer:
D. postconventional
Explanation:
Edg
Postconventional stage of Kohlberg's theory of moral reasoning is based on one's personal code of ethics. So, the correct option is (D).
What is Kohlberg's theory?Kohlberg's theory focuses on the thought process that occurs when one decides whether a behavior is right or wrong. Therefore, the theoretical emphasis is on how one decides to respond to a moral dilemma, not what one decides or actually does.
There are different levels of this theory which are as follows:
Stage 1: Obedience and punishment
Stage 2: Self-interest.
Stage 3: Interpersonal accord and conformity
Stage 4: Authority and maintaining social order
Stage 5: Social contract
Stage 6: Universal ethical principles.
Pre-conventional levelConventional levelPost conventional levelThe right behavior of the individual, in his opinion at the post conventional level, is therefore never a means to an end, but always an end in itself, not everyone reaches this level.
Thus, Postconventional stage of Kohlberg's theory of moral reasoning is based on one's personal code of ethics. So, the correct option is (D).
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If a given state gave physicians the option of purchasing professional liability insurance, what personal and professional risks would physicians face if they did not purchase the insurance?
Given the goals but also the problems that arise with professional liability insurance, do you believe that every practicing physician should be covered by medical malpractice insurance, or do you believe coverage should be optional?
If a given state gave physicians the option of purchasing professional liability insurance, the personal and professional risks that physicians would face if they did not purchase the insurance are: Personal risks and Professional risks.
If a given state gave physicians the option of purchasing professional liability insurance, the personal and professional risks that physicians would face if they did not purchase the insurance are:
Personal risks: If physicians do not purchase professional liability insurance, they may be personally liable to pay for any damages and expenses arising out of a malpractice claim. This can lead to the depletion of their personal assets or even bankruptcy.
Professional risks: If physicians do not purchase professional liability insurance, they may lose their license to practice medicine if they are unable to pay the damages awarded in a malpractice claim. This can lead to the end of their professional career.
Given the goals but also the problems that arise with professional liability insurance, every practicing physician should be covered by medical malpractice insurance.
This is because the medical profession is one of the most litigious fields and any mistake, even a minor one, can lead to a malpractice lawsuit.
The cost of defending a malpractice claim can be very high and the damages awarded can be exorbitant. Professional liability insurance provides financial protection to physicians against such claims and ensures that patients are compensated for their losses.
Furthermore, professional liability insurance also helps to maintain the reputation and credibility of the medical profession.
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List all the bones on your thumb from proximal to distal. Do the same for your pinky finger.
What is the difference?
Answer:
Thumb= distal phalanx, promixal phalanx, metacarpal
Pinky= distal phalanges ,middle phalanges, prominal phalanges, metacarpal
Explanation:
Thumb bone from proximal to distal. Daumen = distale Phalanx, proximale Phalanx, Mittelhandknochen
Pinky = distale Phalangen, mittlere Phalangen, pronominale Phalangen, Mittelhandknochen.
What are the 14 phalanges?The phalange is one of the bones of the fingers and toes. Beim Menschen gibt es 14 Fingerglieder in jeder Hand und jedem Fuß, 2 in jedem Daumen und großen Zeh und 3 in den verbleibenden Fingern. They are connected to the metacarpal bones of the hands and the metatarsals of the feet.
What is a phalange?The phalanges are the bones that make up the fingers and toes. The human body has 56 phalanges, and each hand and foot has 14 phalanges. Each finger and toe has three phalanges, except that there are only two big toes and two big toes.
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a centenarian who develops dementia most likely was affected by
A centenarian who develops dementia most likely was affected by age-related cognitive decline or neurodegenerative diseases such as Alzheimer's disease.
Dementia is a broad term used to describe a decline in cognitive abilities that is severe enough to interfere with daily functioning. It is commonly associated with aging and is more prevalent in older individuals. Alzheimer's disease is the most common cause of dementia in older adults, accounting for a significant number of cases.
Other neurodegenerative diseases that can cause dementia include vascular dementia, Lewy body dementia, and frontotemporal dementia. Age-related cognitive decline refers to the normal, gradual decrease in cognitive function that occurs as a result of aging. While not everyone who reaches 100 years of age develops dementia, it becomes more common with advanced age.
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2. A client has completed the detoxification process associated with a dependency treatment
program for alcohol. The nurse documents that the client is no longer demonstrating any signs
or symptoms of alcohol intoxication or withdrawal. Which additional documentation is required
to confirm that the client has successfully met the acute withdrawal outcomes for treatment? *
(10 Points)
Client is capable of meeting basic personal needs without assistance.
Client sustained no physical trauma as a result of the withdrawal process.
Client has insight into the personal triggers that bring about alcohol abuse.
Client is scheduled to enter a 6-month residential treatment program on discharge.
In a survey of 3024 adults aged 57 through 85 years, it was found that 84.1% of them used at least one prescription medication. Complete parts (a) through (c) below. a. How many of the 3024 subjects used at least one prescription medication? (Round to the nearest integer as needed.)
a. Of the 3024 subjects, approximately 2543 adults used at least one prescription medication.
a. To find out how many of the 3024 adults used at least one prescription medication, we need to calculate the percentage of the total number of adults surveyed.
Given that 84.1% of the adults used at least one prescription medication, we can use this formula:
Number of adults using medication = (Percentage of users) x (Total number of adults surveyed)
Number of adults using medication = 84.1% x 3024
First, convert the percentage to a decimal: 84.1% = 0.841
Now, multiply the decimal by the total number of adults surveyed:
Number of adults using medication = 0.841 x 3024 ≈ 2543.184
Since we need to round to the nearest integer, the answer is approximately 2543 adults using at least one prescription medication.
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pain is an unnatural process that serves no purpose except to make people suffer.
hi! im chimken and i have your answers!
pain is a natural process to tell the body whether it is rotting, burning, melting. as your brain sends signals to your body, your body tells you to STOP and to MOVE AWAY from this pain, or else your heart and brain will stop and die.
praise bingus :))
What is amino acid? how many amino acid are there? their structure, classification and importance?
Amino acids are organic compounds that serve as the building blocks of proteins. They are composed of an amino group (-NH2), a carboxyl group (-COOH), and a side chain (also known as an R group) attached to a central carbon atom called the alpha carbon (α-carbon).
The side chain varies among different amino acids, giving each amino acid its unique properties.
There are 20 commonly occurring amino acids that are used to build proteins in living organisms. These amino acids differ based on their side chain, which can be categorized into different groups: nonpolar, polar, acidic, basic, or special cases.
Nonpolar amino acids: These have hydrophobic side chains and tend to be buried inside the protein core away from water.
Polar amino acids: These have hydrophilic side chains that can form hydrogen bonds with water or other polar molecules.
Acidic amino acids: These have side chains with a negative charge at physiological pH.
Basic amino acids: These have side chains with a positive charge at physiological pH.
Special cases: These include amino acids with unique properties, such as cysteine, which can form disulfide bonds.
Amino acids are essential for various biological processes. They are involved in protein synthesis, where they are linked together through peptide bonds to form polypeptide chains.
Proteins are crucial for the structure, function, and regulation of cells and tissues. Amino acids also play important roles in enzymatic catalysis, signal transduction, neurotransmission, and the immune system.
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solved a medicine is known to produce side effects in 1 in 5
Medicine is known to produce side effects in 1 in 5 individuals. This means that 20% of individuals who take the medicine may experience side effects.
It is important to note that the likelihood of experiencing side effects can vary from person to person, and not everyone who takes the medicine will necessarily experience them. However, with a rate of 1 in 5, it indicates a relatively significant probability of side effects occurring.
When prescribing or taking the medicine, it is crucial for healthcare professionals and patients to be aware of the potential side effects and weigh the benefits against the risks. Close monitoring and communication with a healthcare provider are essential to manage any adverse effects and make informed decisions about the use of the medicine.
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If the optic nerve of the right eye is damaged immediately after entering the cranium, the field of vision will be altered for the left eye. True or false?.
True Left: A typical right eye's Goldmann field. The blind spot is indicated by the red dot. Right: A homonymous hemianopia is visible in the Goldmann field.
The function of the right optic nerveMore than 1 million nerve fibers make up the optic nerve, which carries visual information. One connects your brain to the retina at the rear of each eye. Vision loss can result from harm to the optic nerve.
Loss of vision that is restricted to the eye of origin is brought on by injury to the retina or one of the optic nerves before they reach the chiasm.
Exactly which eye is on the left?The two monocular visual areas are superimposed to form the binocular visual field. When using binoculars, The left visual field, which is nasally for the right eye and temporally for the left, is the region to the left of the vertical meridian; the right visual field has a similar description.
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What are the ways of health animal monitoring?
The ways of health animal monitoring are physical examination, diagnostic tests, regular check-ups, monitoring behavior, tracking weight,
Animal health monitoring is a step taken to check and ensure that animals are in good health and will immediately take action if animals experience pain. There are several ways of monitoring the health of animals. These include:
1. Physical examination: This involves observing the animal's appearance, behavior, and body condition. It also includes checking for any signs of illness or injury, such as discharge from the eyes or nose, coughing, limping, or loss of appetite.
2. Diagnostic tests: These can include blood tests, urine tests, fecal tests, and imaging tests (such as X-rays or ultrasounds). These tests can help to identify any underlying health problems or diseases.
3. Regular check-ups: It is important to schedule regular check-ups with a veterinarian to monitor the animal's health and detect any potential problems early on.
4. Monitoring behavior: Observing an animal's behavior can provide valuable information about their health. Changes in behavior, such as a decrease in activity level or a change in eating habits, can be an indication of a health problem.
5. Tracking weight: Regularly weighing an animal can help to identify any changes in their weight, which can be an indication of a health problem.
By using these methods, it is possible to effectively monitor the health of animals and ensure that they receive the care they need.
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The study and evaluation of morphologic
alterations in cells and tissues are referred to
as
Select one:
a. Pathophysiology
b. Anatomic pathology
c. Clinical pathology
d. Comparative pathology
Answer:
Explanation:
D
There are specific critical periods during fetal development in which any damage caused to the fetus from malnutrition or exposure to toxins is irreversible. When do these periods occur?.
During the vital phase of fetal development, any harm brought on by starvation or exposure to toxins to the fetus is permanent.
Major body & internal organ problems are often more likely to manifest between 3 and 12 embryonic/fetal weeks.
The first 12 weeks are when the fetus is most susceptible.
Each component of the baby's body develops at a precise moment throughout pregnancy. The body may be more vulnerable at these times to injury from certain drugs, alcohol, or other toxic exposures. The "critical phase of development" for that particular bodily component refers to this precise period.
The first milk is generated within the first two to three days following birth.
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The __________ secrete(s) __________, which promotes Na+ and water retention.A. Adrenal medulla; epinephrineB. Pancreas; cortisolC. Kidneys; corticosteroneD. Adrenal cortex; aldosteroneE. Thyroid; calcitonin
What is the metabolites of diazepam?
Answer:
Diazepam is metabolized to nordiazepam, oxazepam, and temazepam; all may be detected after diazepam use.
QUESTION 11
Ken is 73 but refuses to retire from his job. He doesn't want to slow down, claiming. "Ill work until I drop dead." According to the trait
theory of aging, Ken is a type of armored-defended individual.
Answer:
The correct answer is - holder-on type.
Explanation:
The behavior of Ken towards his retirement and age shows that he is an individual that is ambitious, striving but having high defenses against anxiety and wanted to have control of all the events, even the events that can not be controlled.
This shows that he is an individual of holder-on type as he finds age as a threat and trying to avoid or fight with it.
Thus, the correct answer is - holder-on type.
what kind of information does the nutrition facts label give about requirements for essential nutrients? a. the number of calories from vitamins and m
The kind of information that nutritional facts gives about is the percent of various nutrients in one serving. The correct option is C.
What is nutritional labeling?Nutrition labels are frequently displayed on the back or side of packaging as a panel or grid.
Energy (kJ/kcal), fat, saturates (saturated fat), carbohydrate, sugars, protein, and salt are all included on this type of label. It may also contain additional information about certain nutrients, such as fiber.
They assist consumers in making informed decisions about the food they purchase, in storing and using it safely, and in planning when they will consume it.
Thus, the correct option is C.
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Your question seems incomplete, the missing options are:
A) the number of calories from vitamins and minerals
B) the number of servings needed for a nutritious daily diet
C) the percent of various nutrients in one serving