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When a nurse is flushing the implanted port of a client's central venous access device (cvad) and meets resistance. the nurse verifies that the clamp is open, pushes down on the needle, and, after attempting another flush, meets continued resistance then the nurse should ask the client to perform a Valsalva maneuver
What is a Valsalva Maneuver?In medicine, a Valsalva maneuver is a process which is intended to free up a blocked air way. This is described the act of using force to exhale against a closed airway, usually done by closing one's mouth and pinching one's nose shut while expelling air out as if blowing up a balloon.
Steps for carrying out a Valsalva Maneuver includes the following
Pinch your nose closed.Close your mouth.Forcefully exhale.Bear down, similar to having a bowel movement.Hold this for 10 to 15 seconds.Therefore, when a nurse is flushing the implanted port of a client's central venous access device (cvad) and meets resistance, and the nurse verifies that the clamp is open, pushes down on the needle, and, after attempting another flush, meets continued resistance, the nurse should ask the patient to carry out a Valsalva maneuver.
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Related Questions
According to Clevette and colleagues, examples of unsafe, common disciplinary actions reviewed by boards of nursing include all of the following EXCEPT
Answers
Failure to implement safeguards to ensure patient confidentiality of patients protected health information aren't reviewed by boards of nursing.
Who is a Nurse?This is a healthcare professional who is involved in taking care of the patient so as to ensure quick recovery.
The nursing board deals with approval of nursing programs and also issues which may arise from direct relationship with the patient such as abuse so as to ensure the best hands are in the job.
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Indicate whether each effect or symptom is associated with acute (short-term) or chronic (long-term) stress.
Answers
Answer:
Increases consumption of glycogen, increased angiotensin secretion, increased breakdown of protein and increase gluconeogenesis is also acute stress.
Decreases testosterone or estrogen, deceased immunity and increased sodium retention are the examples of chronic stress.
Explanation:
Increases consumption of glycogen, increased angiotensin secretion, increased breakdown of protein and increase gluconeogenesis is also acute stress means the type of stress that occurs for a short period of time or have short term effect on the body and then vanished, while on the other hand, decreases testosterone or estrogen, deceased immunity and increased sodium retention are the examples of chronic stress means have long term stress on the body and its organs.
in children, 2 years and older, what is the correct angle of injection into the vastus lateralis?
Answers
When administering an injection to a child, it is important to choose the correct site and angle to ensure the medication is delivered effectively and without causing undue pain or discomfort. One commonly used injection site in children is the vastus lateralis muscle, which is located on the outer part of the thigh.
When injecting into the vastus lateralis muscle, the recommended angle for children 2 years and older is 90 degrees. This means that the needle should be inserted straight into the muscle, perpendicular to the skin. Injecting at this angle helps ensure that the medication is delivered to the correct depth and that the needle does not hit bone or other tissues.
It is important to note that the needle length used for injections into the vastus lateralis muscle will vary depending on the size of the child. For infants and young children, a shorter needle is generally recommended to avoid hitting bone or causing injury to surrounding tissues. As the child grows, longer needles may be required to reach the muscle tissue.
Overall, the correct angle of injection into the vastus lateralis muscle for children 2 years and older is 90 degrees, with needle length and other factors adjusted based on the child's size and individual needs. It is always important to consult with a healthcare provider for guidance and instruction on administering injections to children.
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Laboratory results are interpreted using what kind of values?
Answers
Laboratory results are interpreted using the kind of values which are known as reference range.
What is a Laboratory?This is referred to as a facility which provides controlled conditions in which scientific or technological research and experiments, are done by different types of individuals. This contains different types of equipment and specimens neede for the various reactions involved.
The reference range on the other hand are referred to as normal set of values such as "normal: 66-88mg/dL" which represents the average set of value for a large healthy population.
Laboratory results are interpreted using reference age as it helps to depict the exact medical condition or state of the individual which is therefore the reason why it was chosen as the correct choice.
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Which choices are common obstetric drugs? Select all that apply.
a. sertraline
b. clomiphene
c. pitocin
d. misoprostol
e. paroxetine
f. norethindrone
g. alprazolam
Answers
Answer:
A. Sertraline
B. Clomiphene
C. Pitocin
D. Misoprostol
Explanation:
I calculated it logically
What is a disease of a nerve ?
Answers
Answer:
Multiple sclerosis (MS) is a disease of a nerve.
Explanation:
MS is a chronic disease that affects the central nervous system
dentify the true statement.
a.
PK is not a good predictor of how quickly the PD effect will start.
b.
How quickly a drug is distributed in the body is a study of pharmacodynamics of a drug.,
c.
How slow (or fast) a drug is metabolized can allow us to determine the dosing schedule of a drug.
d.
Both b and c
Answers
The true statement is b. How quickly a drug is distributed in the body is a study of pharmacodynamics of a drug.
Pharmacodynamic actions of a drug include stimulating activity by directly inhibiting a receptor and its downstream effects. Depressing activity by direct receptor inhibition and its downstream effects. Antagonistic or obstruction a receptor by binding to that, however not activating it.
4 stages of pharmacodynamics are Absorption: Describes however the drug moves from the location of administration to the location of action. Distribution: Describes the journey of the drug through the blood to varied tissues of the body. Metabolism: Describes the method that breaks down the drug. Excretion: Describes the removal of the drug from the body.
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2. Which of the following features make
online pharmacies an appealing option to
patients?
O A. Avoiding sales tax
B. Being able to develop a personal
relationship with the pharmacist
O C. Privacy and convenience
D. Wider selection of brand-name
medications to choose from
Answers
The online pharmacy store offers Privacy and convenience. Option C
What is an online pharmacy store?We know that an online pharmacy store is the kind of pharmacy store where there is no physical contact between the pharmacist and the person that wants to purchase the drugs. In other words, the person that is buying the drugs only needs to meet with the store electronically.
This would offer a good convenience and privacy to the kind of patients that does not want to be seen or known due to the peculiarity of the kind of drugs that they are buying.
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You would like to determine if mean HDL cholesterol differs in 4 groups of women, each group (n=100) with a different level of physical activity (none, low, moderate, high). What is the null hypothesis for this study? State using complete sentences.
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The null hypothesis for this study would be that there is no difference in the mean HDL cholesterol levels among the four groups of women with different levels of physical activity.
What is null hypothesis?The null hypothesis (H0) is a statement of no effect or no difference between groups or variables. In this case, the null hypothesis is that there is no difference in mean HDL cholesterol levels among the four groups of women with different levels of physical activity.
This means that the level of physical activity does not have any impact on the average HDL cholesterol levels. In other words, the null hypothesis assumes that the mean HDL cholesterol levels of women who do not engage in physical activity, those with low levels of physical activity, those with moderate levels of physical activity, and those with high levels of physical activity are all equal.
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To optimize an athlete's performance in training and competition, attention to food and beverage intake must be considered _____________ their activity. Group of answer choices
Answers
Answer:
meow
Explanation:
Which of the following organs is at MOST risk for injury as the result of a pelvic fracture?A. liver or spleen B. pancreas C. urinary bladder D. fallopian tubes
Answers
The organ that is at MOST risk for injury as a result of a pelvic fracture is C) urinary bladder.
Pelvic fractures can occur due to significant trauma or accidents, and they can pose a risk to various organs within the pelvic region. However, among the options provided, the urinary bladder is particularly susceptible to injury in cases of pelvic fractures.The urinary bladder is located within the pelvic cavity and lies in close proximity to the bony structures. When a pelvic fracture occurs, especially in high-energy trauma, there is a risk of the fractured bones damaging or rupturing the bladder. This can result in urinary leakage, infection, or other complications.While other organs like the liver or spleen (A), pancreas (B), and fallopian tubes (D) may be located near the pelvis, they are less directly impacted by the physical forces associated with a pelvic fracture. The urinary bladder, however, is situated within the pelvic cavity itself, making it more vulnerable to injury when the pelvic bones are fractured.
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ACİL LÜTFEN ACİLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLL
Answers
Answer:
It is a in whatever language it is
Explanation:
Describe the negative message strategy
Answers
Answer:
The direct approach places the negative news at the beginning of the message, while the indirect approach packages the negative news between a positive introduction, sometimes called a “buffer” or cushion, and a conclusion. Your negative message may include the rationale or reasons for the decision.
Explanation:
I Hope This Helps!!!
3. You check the driver and discover that the driver is unresponsive. You tell a bystander to call 9-1-1. List the information that the bystander should have when calling 9-1-1.
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certain antibiotics and antiseizure medications are known to cause stevens-johnson syndrome, which is a
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Answer:
lamotrigine, carbamazepine, phenytoin, phenobarbitone. Allopurinol, especially in doses of more than 100 mg per day. Sulfonamides: cotrimoxazole, sulfasalazine.
Explanation:
The drugs that most commonly cause Stevens-Johnson syndrome/toxic epidermal necrolysis are: Anticonvulsants: lamotrigine, carbamazepine, phenytoin, phenobarbitone. Allopurinol, especially in doses of more than 100 mg per day. Sulfonamides: cotrimoxazole, sulfasalazine.
immediately following a generalized motor seizure, most patients are: a) apneic. b) confused. c) hyperactive. d) awake and alert.
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Immediately following a generalized motor seizure, most patients are usually confused. So the correct answer is option: b.
During a generalized motor seizure, the patient may lose consciousness and experience muscle contractions throughout the body. Following the seizure, the patient may experience a period of confusion and disorientation, as well as other postictal symptoms such as headache, fatigue, and muscle soreness. While some patients may experience respiratory depression or apnea during the seizure itself, most patients will resume normal breathing and consciousness after the seizure has ended. Hyperactivity is not typically a common postictal symptom. Therefore, the correct answer to the question is option b.
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Acupuncture, homeopathy, reflexology, naturopathy, yoga, and biofeedback are what forms of therapies? a. complementary and matriarchal b. alternative and medical c. biomedical and natural d. complementary and alternative
Answers
d. complementary and alternative
1. Which physical barrier was broken when meredith’s wound developed? explain how this wound increased meredith’s chances of infection
Answers
Meredith's wound likely broke the skin's physical barrier, which is the body's first line of defense against infection. The skin acts as a protective barrier that prevents microorganisms from entering the body, but when it is broken, microorganisms such as bacteria and viruses can enter the body through the wound.
When the skin is broken, it creates an entry point for microorganisms to invade the body. Once the microorganisms enter the body through the wound, they can multiply and cause an infection. Infections can lead to a variety of complications such as delayed wound healing, inflammation, redness, swelling, pain, fever, and even sepsis in severe cases.
Therefore, any wound or break in the skin increases the risk of infection by providing a gateway for microorganisms to enter the body, and it is important to keep the wound clean and protected to prevent infection.
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What gland in the endocrine system is near the lymph nodes?
Answers
Answer:
thymus gland
Explanation:
All of the following are expected to increase in the patient experiencing a massive pulmonary embolism during surgery except:
- deadspace
- end tidal carbon dioxide
- right ventricular stroke work
- heart rate
Answers
All of the given options are expected to increase in the patient experiencing a massive pulmonary embolism during surgery except end-tidal carbon dioxide. The answer is "end tidal carbon dioxide".
1. Deadspace: Expected to increase due to blockage in blood flow, leading to ventilation without perfusion.
2. End-tidal carbon dioxide: It is expected to decrease due to reduced pulmonary blood flow and impaired gas exchange.
3. Right ventricular stroke work: Expected to increase as the right ventricle needs to work harder to pump blood through the blocked pulmonary arteries.
4. Heart rate: Expected to increase as the body tries to compensate for reduced blood flow and oxygen delivery.
Therefore the correct answer is "end tidal carbon dioxide".
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2.
Ben visits his doctor because his wife notices that sometimes at night he stops breathing. It only lasts a
few seconds and then he seems to startle himself back into breathing again What medical terms would
you use to describe what Ben is experiencing? Break down the meaning of the terms. Then explain what is
happening in Ben's body to produce these symptoms.
Answers
Apnea:
The “a” in apnea refers to “the absence of” and “pnea” relating to the pulmonary and respiratory system. The whole term “apnea” means the temporary absence or delay of breathing!
There are two types of sleep apnea, obstructive and central. With obstructive sleep apnea the muscles that keep the airway open relax and your airway narrows causing you to breath more shallowly or to stop breathing. In central sleep apnea your brain feels to transmit signals to your “breathing muscles” and the muscles do not contract or function causing you to stop breathing
In this case Ben is suffering from sleep Apnea and the symptoms are snoring loudly and feeling tired. These are the symptoms of sleep apnea.
What is sleep apnea?
Sleep apnea has a serious health issue and in that case potential serious disorder of sleep has been breathing repeatedly that stops and starts at time. There are several risk factors that include the age as well as obesity and it has been the most common in the men.
The main problem of parents are that they are comparing their child with other children living nearby them but they have to understand that every child is unique and every child is special. God has given different talent as well as different personality to every child and comparing them with others is not at all a good symbol for their bright future.
Try to teach the children about their good and bright future, try to make them learn about living a good and valuable life. Teach them to learn not to memorize the things only given in books and give them some practical knowledge.
Therefore, In this case Ben is suffering from sleep Apnea and the symptoms are snoring loudly and feeling tired. These are the symptoms of sleep apnea.
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How many bone in our body ?
Answers
Answer:
Bones provide the structure for our bodies . The adult human skeleton is made up of 206 bones . These include the bones of the skull , spine (vertebrae) , ribs , arms and legs.Explanation:
l hope it helps ❤❤Painkillers do not cure infectious diseases. Why?
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A professional who operates according to the philosophy that "healthy people and a good society first, me and my profession second" demonstrates what might be called
Answers
what information would be included when discussing the etonogestrel implant?
Answers
Answer:
cheeky cheeky cheeky snails
Explanation:
cheeky cheeky cheeky snails
new persistent opioid use after minor and major surgical procedures in us adults with persistent opioid use after minor and major surgical procedures in us adults.
Answers
Psychiatric nurses tell individuals who were not opioid users to continue to use opioids long-term following surgery, telling the need for improved prescribing practices and comprehensive pain management strategies.
Studies have shown that a considerable number of US adults who undergo minor or major surgical procedures develop new persistent opioid use, even if they did not use opioids before. This phenomenon raises concerns about the potential over-prescription of opioids and the subsequent risk of long-term opioid dependence or misuse.
Factors such as the type of surgery, preoperative pain levels, and the duration and dosage of initial opioid prescriptions can influence the likelihood of new persistent opioid use. To address this issue, it is crucial for healthcare providers to adopt more conservative opioid prescribing practices, tailor pain management strategies to individual patients, and promote the use of alternative treatments and multidisciplinary approaches for pain control.
By implementing these measures, the medical community can help mitigate the risks associated with new persistent opioid use and improve the overall outcomes for patients undergoing surgical procedures.
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Imidazole is a commonly used base in organic chemistry. While imidazole contains two nitrogens, only one of them is significantly basic. Using your chemical intuition, predict the more basic nitrogen.
Answers
Answer:
See explanation and image attached
Explanation:
The structure of imidazole is attached to this answer. The compound is colourless. The solid can be to dissolved in water leading an alkaline solution. Owing to the fact that imidazole possesses heteroatoms in an aromatic heterocycle it is classified as a diazole. The nitrogen atoms in imidazole are not adjacent to each other.
From the structure shown, we can see that the lone pair of the sp2 hybridized nitrogen atom is available because it is not part of the aromatic system of the heterocycle. This nitrogen is much more basic than the nitrogen atom attached to hydrogen whose lone pair becomes part of the aromatic sextet hence it unavailable for protonation and less basic.
A nurse is counselled for questioning a physician's order that made the physician mad. Which document best explains why the nurse was correct to question a physician's order that the nurse believed could be harmful to a patient
Answers
Answer:
a
Explanation:
pomies
(03.02 MC)
You are helping your family make better grocery shopping choices. Which
A. new grocery store your family hasn't heard of before
B. A popular local market that is well established
C. small market that needs more customers to stay open
D. A food truck that sells expensive pastries and sandwiches
Answers
Answer:
B
Explanation:
Better to shop where you know and be sure you'll get the best quality no matter how the market looks like
Which of the following criteria is required to become licensed and employed as an EMT? Question 4 options: a) Demonstration of the ability to lift and carry at least 200 pounds b) Proof of immunization against certain communicable diseases c) A minimum of 60 college credit hours that focus on health care d) Successful completion of a recognized bystander CPR course
Answers
The criteria required for becoming licensed and employed as an EMT is: (b) Proof of immunization against certain communicable diseases.
EMT is the abbreviation for Emergency Medical Technician. Their first priority is to transport the patient to the nearest hospital at the earliest while providing care on the way. They are also trained with certain skills and techniques to deal with emergency and life-threatening situations.
Communicable diseases are those that can easily spread from one person to another. This can happen by physical contact with the patient, contact with the patient's personal belongings, through infected surfaces or inhaling the infected droplets. Therefore, an EMT needs to be immunized against such diseases for his as well as the patient's safety.
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