The most accurate explanation of the importance of the hourly examinations for this client is respiratory status, oxygen saturation, discomfort, and sedation level. Risk of respiratory depression is the main worry for this individual.
Does the term "respiratory" refer to breathing?The respiratory system refers to the network of tissues and organs in your body that facilitates breathing. It includes your lungs, blood vessels, and airways. The lungs' moving muscles are a part of the respiratory system. Together, these parts remove waste gases like carbon dioxide from the body and circulate oxygen throughout it.
What causes respiratory illness?a condition that affects the lungs and other respiratory system organs. Infections, cigarette use, and other risk factors for respiratory illness
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Differentiate between electronic health record (EHR), electronic medical record (EMR), and personal health record (PHR) Differentiate between clinical information systems (CIS) and administrative information systems (AIS) What systems are currently being utilized at your organization
Answer:
The electronic medical records and the electronic health records are maintained by a health provider or a physician whereas the personal health recorder are kept and maintained by the patient themselves.
Explanation:
Electronic health record or EHR is the paper chart of a patient in a digital format. It focuses on total health of the patient that is beyond the clinical data collected. They are designed to store all the medical history of a patient.
Electronic medical record or EMR are used mainly by the doctors to keep a track and record the medical metrics and the information of the patients. This allows the physician to track the data of a patient over time.
A personal health record is been maintained by an individual. It is the collection or record of an individual's health. It helps to improve the patient's engagement.
A clinical information systems is a type of information system that is designed mainly for the use in the critical care situation which includes ICU. It draws the information from all those systems in a patient record kept electronically that can available for the doctor to see at the bedside of the patient.
The administrative information systems helps the process of a client care by the management of a nonclinical financial information, demographic information, etc.
Compare the effects of moderate and heavy alcohol consumption
Answer:
The effects of moderate alcohol consumption include the reduction of mortality. Secondly, it reduces the risk of heart disease and is known to help with digestion and blood flow. Heavy alcohol consumption juxtaposed with liver failure and early death. It affects the brain, kidneys, liver and lungs. Alcohol poisoning occurs and can kill the individual. Liver failure, cancer or car accidents are other leading causes of heavy alcohol consumption.
Explanation:
nodine pm, collins mr, wood cl, et al. nitrous oxide use during labor: satisfaction, adverse effects, and predictors of conversion to neuraxial analgesia. j midwifery womens health. 2020
Women want options for pain treatment during labor that are secure and efficient. In the United States, neuraxial and opioid analgesia are currently the most often utilized techniques.
The aim of this study was to identify determinants of conversion from inhaled nitrous oxide to neuraxial analgesia and to examine demographic characteristics, safety, and satisfaction in a cohort of parturients who utilized nitrous oxide analgesia. The chemical compound nitrous oxide, also referred to as laughing gas, nitrous, or nos. It is an inflammable, colorless gas with a faintly pleasant taste and smells at normal temperature.
This study involved prospective chart reviews. On the labor and delivery unit of one academic medical center, people over the age of 18 who utilized inhaled nitrous oxide (N2O)analgesia during the first or second stage of labor between March 1, 2016, and July 23, 2017, along with their newborns, were included (N = 463). Information on maternal and neonatal variables is presented.
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"Knowing how to do something is important but behaving professionally while practicing is essential." What does this means to you as it relates to their future career choices?
HR 160-220 + episodic attacks --> dx?
Supraventricular tachycardia (SVT), which is characterized by episodic bouts and a heart rate of 160–220 beats per minute, may be the cause. The atria, or AV nodes, which are located above the ventricles, are the source of irregular cardiac rhythms known as SVT.
A few seconds to several hours may elapse between periods of a fast and regular heartbeat. Possible symptoms are palpitations, chest pain, shortness of breath, lightheadedness and dizziness. SVT may be self-limiting in some cases and require no treatment, but in other cases, treatment may be needed to manage symptoms and avoid consequences. SVT can be treated with medication, catheter ablation, or cardioversion.
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What is sensorineural hearing loss and how can hearing devices help with understanding speech? (Cochlear implants/hearing aids)
Answer:
hearing loss caused by damage to the inner ear or the nerve from the ear to the brain/ hearing aids are primarily useful in improving the hearing and speech comprehension of people who have hearing loss that results from damage to the small sensory cells in the inner ear called hair cells. hoped I helped you and others! :)
Explanation:
During which stage of syphilis is the patient non-infectious and why? a.The tertiary stage is because of hypersensitivity reaction b.A person with syphilis is always infectious. c.Second stage because the patient is not contagious d.First stage because the patient is not contageous e.Early latent
Answer:
a.The tertiary stage is because of hypersensitivity reaction
Explanation:
During shift report, the nurse states that a patient is receiving an oxytocin drip at 6 milliunits/min. The oxytocin concentration is 30 units in 1,000 mL of lactated Ringer’s solution. The IV pump should be set for how many milliliters per hour? _________mL/h
Answer:
... i think it should be 15
Explanation:
exposure to indoor air pollutants is known to increase the incidence of: a. upper respiratory infections b. nausea and diarrhea c. leukemia d. eczema
Exposure to indoor air pollutants can have various health effects. In the context of the given options, the correct answer is a. upper respiratory infections.
Indoor air pollutants, such as tobacco smoke, pet dander, dust mites, mold, and volatile organic compounds (VOCs) emitted by certain household products, can irritate the respiratory system. When these pollutants are inhaled, they can cause inflammation in the airways and increase the risk of upper respiratory infections.
Upper respiratory infections are commonly caused by viruses, such as the common cold or influenza. However, exposure to indoor air pollutants can weaken the immune system and make individuals more susceptible to infections. This can lead to symptoms such as coughing, sneezing, congestion, and sore throat.
It's important to note that while exposure to indoor air pollutants can increase the incidence of upper respiratory infections, it may not directly cause other health issues mentioned in the options (b. nausea and diarrhea, c. leukemia, d. eczema). Nausea and diarrhea, for example, are more commonly associated with gastrointestinal issues or foodborne illnesses.
Leukemia is a type of cancer that has various causes, including genetic and environmental factors, but its direct link to indoor air pollution is not well-established. Eczema, on the other hand, is a chronic skin condition that can have multiple triggers, such as genetics, allergies, and irritants, including certain chemicals or substances in the environment.
To summarize, exposure to indoor air pollutants is known to increase the incidence of upper respiratory infections. It is important to maintain good indoor air quality by ensuring proper ventilation, reducing exposure to pollutants, and regularly cleaning and maintaining indoor spaces. If you have concerns about indoor air quality or your health, it is recommended to consult with a healthcare professional or an environmental specialist.
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The Association of Preoperative Nurses can provide ?
The Association of PeriOperative Registered Nurses (AORN) was established in 1949 to provide a network for operating room nurses who wanted to exchange best practices for patients having surgery.
What is the perioperative nurse's (AORN) function?A registered nurse (RN) who organizes, coordinates, administers, and evaluates nursing care for patients whose defensive reflexes or capacity for self-care may be jeopardized during surgical or other invasive procedures is known as a perioperative nurse.It is impossible for nurses to carry out surgery on their own. Before, during, and after surgeries, nurses can perform a wide variety of tasks. To land the job you want most, take into account pursuing more education or training.In order to keep the patient and surgical team safe before, during, and after surgery, the primary duty of the perioperative nurse is to maintain a sterile environment. Anxiety and knowledge deficiency are the two most typical nursing diagnoses during the preoperative period. 30. A lack of knowledge could be caused by surgical procedures, normal operating room procedures, or unrealistic expectations for results.To learn more about Association of Preoperative Nurses, refer to:
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________________ is effective in determining the size, shape, location, and cause of a velopharyngeal gap, which is helpful for surgical planning.
Imaging, such as nasopharyngoscopy or video fluoroscopy, is effective in determining the size, shape, location, and cause of a velopharyngeal gap, which is helpful for surgical planning.
Imaging techniques such as nasopharyngoscopy and videofluoroscopy are commonly used to diagnose and evaluate the extent of velopharyngeal gaps, which can cause hypernasal speech and other related issues.
Nasopharyngoscopy involves the insertion of a thin, flexible tube with a camera through the nose to visualize the velopharyngeal anatomy in real-time, while videofluoroscopy uses a special X-ray technique to capture images of the swallowing process, allowing for a dynamic evaluation of the velopharyngeal mechanism.
By accurately assessing the size, shape, location, and underlying cause of the velopharyngeal gap, surgical planning can be optimized for the best possible outcome.
This information is particularly important in cases of cleft palate or other congenital abnormalities that affect the velopharyngeal mechanism.
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How many litters of blood are there in your body?
Answer:
5 - 6 liters
Explanation:
Our blood makes 7- 8% of our human body weight. But the liters of blood differ from women and men, but it is 5 - 6 liters.
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Have a supercalifragilisticexpialidocious day!
The nurse is preparing to administer morphine iv to a client with multiple trauma. before administering the morphine, what common adverse effect should the nurse inform the client about?
Before administering morphine IV to a client with multiple trauma, the nurse should inform the client about the common adverse effect of respiratory depression. Respiratory depression is a potentially serious side effect of morphine and other opioid medications, as it can lead to inadequate oxygenation of the body's tissues.
Other common adverse effects of morphine that the nurse may also want to discuss with the client include:
Sedation or drowsiness
Constipation
Nausea and vomiting
Dizziness or lightheadedness
Itching or rash
Confusion
It is essential for healthcare providers to educate clients about potential side effects and monitor for signs of respiratory depression or other adverse reactions when administering opioid medications like morphine.
A group of nursing students are reviewing information about the transmission of tuberculosis. The students demonstrate understanding when they state transmission occurs from person to person in which manner?
Answer:
Exposure to droplets emitted by the cough of an infected person
Explanation:
Pulmonary tuberculosis is produced by the bacterium Mycobacterium tuberculosis. It is a contagious disease that can be transmitted between individuals by the inhalation of airborne particles released by the cough of individuals with tuberculosis. Consequently, M. tuberculosis is transmitted person-to-person by inhalation of aerosolized bacterium droplets.
The immune system fight against tuberculosis infection by producing inflammatory responses in the lungs, this being an innate response that involves immune cells such as dendritic cells, macrophages, monocytes, and neutrophils.
During a biceps curl, the triceps play what role in contraction?
a.Antagonist
B.Assistant
c. Prime mover
d.Agonist
Answer:
A. Antagonist
Explanation:
The triceps, acting in opposition, is called the antagonist. Because the two muscles are located on opposite sides of the arm, the triceps must relax enough to allow the biceps to tense and contract during a curl. As it contracts, it shortens. As the triceps relaxes, it lengthens. (google)
how to apply eardrops to a 2 year old
1. Susan was leaving work, and as she walked outside, she noticed that a lot of snow had fallen ,and it was very cold. She hurried across the public parking lot to her car, and slipped on ice that was hidden under the snow. Susan landed hard on her right hip. Embarrassed, she quickly got up but not before she felt a pop in her groin and excruciating pain.
Fortunately, a colleague witnessed the incident and immediately called 9-1-1 to take Susan to the hospital. Susan was diagnosed with a fractured hip and pelvis, right. She realizes she is in for a long recovery.
Which is responsible for reimbursing Susan's medical expenses due to the fall on public parking lot?
2.
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Susan was leaving work, and as she walked outside, she noticed that a lot of snow had fallen ,and it was very cold. She hurried across the public parking lot to her car, and slipped on ice that was hidden under the snow. Susan landed hard on her right hip. Embarrassed, she quickly got up but not before she felt a pop in her groin and excruciating pain.
Fortunately, a colleague witnessed the incident and immediately called 9-1-1 to take Susan to the hospital. Susan was diagnosed with a fractured hip and pelvis, right. She realizes she is in for a long recovery.
Which is responsible for reimbursing Susan's income due to her inability to work for up to four months?
The most important step for preventing cardiovascular disease is to live a healthy lifestyle. true or false
Answer:
T
Explanation:
Edge 2021
an individual arrives in the emergency department in a coma with a possible drug overdose. which drugs would cause the pupils to be dilated and fixed? (select all that apply.)
The drugs which would cause the pupils to be dilated and fixed include the following below:
A. Atropine
B. Scopolamine
D. Amphetamines
What is Drug?This is referred to as a chemical substance which is used to treat or cure an illness or disease and there are different types with the unique structure and functions.
Drug overdose on the other hand is referred to as the taking too much of a drug and is as a result of lack of prescription and also the illegal use of these types of drugs.
Drugs such as amphetamines, scopolamine etc have some forms of psychoactive effect in the body system of an individual and it changes the size of the pupil and cause blurred vision which is therefore the reason why option A, B and D was chosen as the most appropriate choice.
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The options are:
A. Atropine
B. Scopolamine
C. Opiates
D. Amphetamines
Vegetarian diets have been shown to lower the risk of all of the following diseases, EXCEPTcolon cancertype 2 diabetescoldsprostate cancer
Vegetarian diets have been shown to lower the risk of all of the following diseases, EXCEPT colds. "Colds is a disease that is not associated with a vegetarian diet."
Vegetarianism is the practice of abstaining from consuming meat, fish, and poultry. Some people may choose to consume eggs, dairy products, and other animal-derived products, while others may not.
Vegetarianism is a way of life that has become increasingly popular over the years due to its various health benefits.
1. Colon Cancer: The risk of colon cancer is decreased in people who follow a vegetarian diet. A vegetarian diet is low in fat, high in fiber, and contains plenty of antioxidants, all of which are beneficial for colon health.
2. Type 2 Diabetes: Vegetarian diets have been shown to decrease the risk of type 2 diabetes. Because a vegetarian diet is low in fat and high in fiber, it is thought to improve insulin sensitivity and blood glucose control.
3. Prostate Cancer: A vegetarian diet has been linked to a lower risk of prostate cancer. This is due to the fact that it is low in fat and high in fiber and antioxidants.
4. Colds: A vegetarian diet has not been shown to lower the risk of catching a cold. Although it is high in vitamins and minerals that are beneficial for the immune system, it does not contain any components that can directly prevent a cold from developing.
In conclusion, all of the above-mentioned diseases are associated with a vegetarian diet except for the colds. A vegetarian diet provides various health benefits and is a great way to maintain good health.
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description of all the joints in the body
Answer:
Joints hold the skeleton together and support movement. There are two ways to categorize joints. The first is by joint function, also referred to as range of motion. The second way to categorize joints is by the material that holds the bones of the joints together; that is an organization of joints by structure.
Explanation:
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Discuss parenteral and enteral nutrition. Why would these sources of nutrition be utilized in the clinical setting
Answer:
Enteral nutrition generally refers to any method of feeding that uses the gastrointestinal (GI) tract to deliver part or all of a person's caloric requirements. It can include a normal oral diet, the use of liquid supplements or delivery of part or all of the daily requirements by use of a tube (tube feeding). The site of entry of the tube and tube types will be discussed under "enteral access". Parenteral nutrition refers to the delivery of calories and nutrients into a vein. This could be as simple as carbohydrate calories delivered as simple sugar in an intravenous solution or all of the required nutrients could be delivered including carbohydrate, protein, fat, electrolytes (for example sodium and potassium), vitamins and trace elements (for example copper and zinc). There are many reasons for enteral and parenteral nutrition including GI disorders such as bowel obstruction, short bowel syndrome, Crohn's disease, and ulcerative colitis; as well as certain cancers or in comatose patients. While enteral nutrition is always preferred when technically possible, some people may have a variety of medical issues that make the safe use of the GI tract difficult. Alternatively, their calorie and nutrient needs may not be met by the current level of functioning of their GI tract. That is when parenteral nutrition may be needed to help an individual remain hydrated and possibly to provide calories and other nutrients to allow for growth and development or maintenance of physical well-being and function. Enteral nutrition generally refers to any method of feeding that uses the gastrointestinal (GI) tract to deliver part or all of a person's caloric requirements. It can include a normal oral diet, the use of liquid supplements or delivery of part or all of the daily requirements by use of a tube (tube feeding). The site of entry of the tube and tube types will be discussed under "enteral access". Parenteral nutrition refers to the delivery of calories and nutrients into a vein. This could be as simple as carbohydrate calories delivered as simple sugar in an intravenous solution or all of the required nutrients could be delivered including carbohydrate, protein, fat, electrolytes (for example sodium and potassium), vitamins and trace elements (for example copper and zinc). There are many reasons for enteral and parenteral nutrition including GI disorders such as bowel obstruction, short bowel syndrome, Crohn's disease, and ulcerative colitis; as well as certain cancers or in comatose patients. While enteral nutrition is always preferred when technically possible, some people may have a variety of medical issues that make the safe use of the GI tract difficult. Alternatively, their calorie and nutrient needs may not be met by the current level of functioning of their GI tract. That is when parenteral nutrition may be needed to help an individual remain hydrated and possibly to provide calories and other nutrients to allow for growth and development or maintenance of physical well-being and function.
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Explanation:
A detailed list of items in stock or in possession of an individual or business size s a/an:
Answer:
size small
Explanation:
Complete the sentence.
Medication administration technology uses
to dispense the right medication to the right patient.
Answer:
Medicare is a government national health insurance program in the United States, begun in 1965 under the Social Security Administration (SSA) and now administered by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS). It primarily provides health insurance for Americans aged 65 and older, but also for some younger people with disability status as determined by the SSA, including people with end stage renal disease and amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS or Lou Gehrig's disease)
When reading and analyzing a research study, what is the nurse's primary reason to question the link between the treatment and the outcome?
The sample was large with no exclusion criteria
Threats to validity suggest alternate causes of the outcome
Randomization controlled researcher bias
The literature review included ten relevant, current articles
When reading and analyzing a research study, the nurse's primary reason to question the link between the treatment and the outcome is the randomization controlled researcher bias and is therefore denoted as option C.
Who is a Nurse?This is referred to as a healthcare professional who is specially trained in taking care of the sick and ensuring that adequate recovery of the patient is achieved.
Researches involve random selections which make up a sample size and are done so as to prevent any bias from being present. We must note that not all randomization are unbiased especially in a research which is used to determine the outcome of a treatment. The presence of the bias doesn't depict the real effectiveness which is why it is questioned by the nurse.
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Which of the following is not true about marasmus? A. The victims are deficient in protein but have borderline or adequate kilocalorie intake B. The victims can have a "skin-and-bones" appearance C. The victims can suffer extreme lean tissue wasting D. The victims are deficient in protein and kilocalories
The victims of marasmus are deficient in protein and calories is a true statement. The correct answer is option D.
Marasmus is a severe form of protein-energy malnutrition characterized by extreme wasting of adipose tissue and skeletal muscle mass. It is not a true statement that the victims are deficient in protein but have borderline or adequate kilocalorie intake. In fact, victims of marasmus are deficient in both protein and kilocalories, which leads to weight loss and muscle wasting.
Marasmus is typically seen in malnourished children under the age of 1 year. Victims can have a "skin-and-bones" appearance and suffer from extreme lean tissue wasting. This is due to a lack of adequate nutrition, including protein and calories, which are essential for growth and development. In conclusion, option D is a true statement as marasmus is caused due to the deficiency of both protein and kilocalories.
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Are ependymal cells cns or pns?
Answer:
pns
Explanation:
cns is a diffrent thing
Knowledge and attitude of women towards pre menopausal syndrome
Answer:
Irritability and feelings of sadness are the most common emotional symptoms of menopause. Often, they can be managed through lifestyle changes, such as learning ways to relax and reduce stress. Here are some tips that may make it easier for you to handle your fluctuating emotions: Exercise and eat healthy.
A nurse is preparing to administer 0.45% sodium chloride 2.5l iv to infuse over 24 hr. how many ml should the nurse administer
The Nurse should set the IV tube administer at the rate of 104.2 mL/hr
what is IV?this is a short form of writing Intravenous, and intravenous refers to medicines administered by making use of needles or tubes. /the needle or tube sends the medicine to the veins directly.
In administering IV it is required to use a stated rate to deliver the substance in order to avoid complications.
in this case, the Nurse 0.45% sodium chloride at 2.5 L over 24 hours
Calculation of rate of administeringunit conversion
1 L = 1000 mL
2.5 L = ?
converting 2.5 L to mL gives 2.5 * 1000 = 2500 mL
To find the rate of administering per hour we solve as follows
2500 mL over 24 hours will be:
2500 mL / 24 hrs = 104.2 mL/hr
The Nurse should administer the 0.45% sodium chloride 2.5L IV at rate of 102.2 mL/ hr over 24 hours
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What are is the recommended criteria to avoid hip dislocation after total hip replacement except?
A. Keep knees above hips
B. Never bend forward to pick up an object
C. Never cross your legs when seated
D. Keep knees apart at all times
To avoid hip dislocation after total hip replacement, it is recommended to never bend forward to pick up an object. This is an important criterion to follow to maintain the stability of the hip joint and reduce the risk of dislocation.
To avoid hip dislocation after total hip replacement, there are several recommended criteria to follow. The correct answer is B. Never bend forward to pick up an object.
Let's go through the other options and explain why they are recommended:
A. Keep knees above hips: This is a good practice as it helps maintain proper alignment of the hip joint and reduces the risk of dislocation. However, it is not the only criteria to avoid hip dislocation after total hip replacement.
C. Never cross your legs when seated: Crossing your legs can put stress on the hip joint and increase the risk of dislocation. Therefore, it is recommended to avoid crossing your legs after a total hip replacement.
D. Keep knees apart at all times: Keeping the knees apart can help maintain stability in the hip joint and prevent dislocation. It is a good practice to follow, but it is not the exception in this case.
It is important to note that these recommendations may vary depending on the specific surgical technique used and the individual's unique situation. It is always best to consult with your surgeon or healthcare provider for specific guidelines tailored to your condition.
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