the nurse is caring for a client 1 week after the client experienced a spinal cord injury at the t3 level. which short-term goal is appropriate in planning care for this client?

Answers

Answer 1

"The client will carry out personal hygiene activities."short-term goal is appropriate in planning care for this client. the nurse is caring for a client 1 week after the client experienced a spinal cord injury at the t3 level.

The brain and spinal cord are the two components of the central nervous system. The majority of physical processes, including movements, speech, consciousness, memory, and so forth, are controlled by the brain, which has a crucial role in the body. The spinal cord plays a crucial role in controlling musculoskeletal reflexes and assisting in the transmission of messages from the brain to the rest of the body. Afferent neurons, sometimes referred to as motor neurons, transmit impulses from the brain and spinal cord to receptors (eg, muscles). They make up the spinal cord's motor output section.

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Related Questions

A nursing assistant is being called for assistance by a patient who speaks very little English. Because the nursing
assistant has a difficult time understanding the patient, the nursing assistant ignores the patient's call, figuring that
someone else will tend to the patient instead. Which ethical principle is the nursing assistant neglecting?
fidelity
beneficence
nonmaleficence
autonomy

Answers

The ethical principle would be beneficence

47 year old g1p1 woman presents with severe menstrual cramps heavy bleeding and intermenstrual spotting

Answers

The 47 year old woman would be experiencing Uterine fibroids. Option B

What is the cycle?

Non-cancerous growths called uterine fibroids form in the uterus's muscular wall. They frequently cause menorrhagia, which is excessive menstrual bleeding, and dysmenorrhea, which is extreme menstrual cramping. Uterine fibroids can also cause irregular bleeding between periods or intermenstrual spotting.

Uterine fibroids are most likely to blame for the woman's symptoms of severe menstrual cramps, heavy bleeding, and intermenstrual spotting. The benign growths known as uterine fibroids can cause a variety of menstruation irregularities.

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Missing parts

A 47-year-old G1P1 woman presents with severe menstrual cramps, heavy bleeding, and intermenstrual spotting. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her symptoms?

A. Ovarian cysts

B. Uterine fibroids

C. Endometriosis

D. Cervical polyps

You are manning a telephone hotline in a city experiencing an outbreak of pandemic flu. You have been given a set of questions to ask callers (for example, do you have a fever?) and information to provide depending on the expressed concerns of callers.

Answers

Answer:

what is the question that is being asked here?

Explanation:

During pregnancy, the uterine smooth muscle is quiescent. During the ninth month of gestation, the uterine muscle becomes progressively more excitable. What factor contributes to the increase in excitability

Answers

The increase in excitability of the uterine smooth muscle during the ninth month of gestation is primarily influenced by the upregulation of oxytocin receptors, the decline in progesterone levels, and the presence of other uterine stimulants like prostaglandins.

During pregnancy, the uterine smooth muscle remains relatively quiescent to prevent premature contractions and ensure the stability of the growing fetus. However, as the ninth month of gestation approaches, the uterine muscle gradually becomes more excitable, preparing for labor and delivery. Several factors contribute to this increase in excitability.

One significant factor is the elevation of estrogen and progesterone levels during pregnancy. These hormones play crucial roles in regulating uterine function. As pregnancy progresses, estrogen levels continue to rise, and progesterone levels decline. Estrogen promotes the formation of gap junctions between uterine muscle cells, allowing for coordinated contractions. It also enhances the responsiveness of the uterine muscle to oxytocin, a hormone involved in stimulating contractions.

Additionally, the decline in progesterone levels reduces its inhibitory effects on uterine muscle contraction. Progesterone has a relaxing effect on the uterine smooth muscle, maintaining its quiescent state. As its levels decrease, the excitability of the uterine muscle increases, leading to the initiation of contractions.

Furthermore, local factors within the uterine environment, such as prostaglandins, play a role in promoting uterine muscle excitability. Prostaglandins stimulate contractions and facilitate cervical ripening, preparing the cervix for labor.

In summary, the increase in excitability of the uterine smooth muscle during the ninth month of pregnancy is influenced by hormonal changes, including the rise in estrogen levels and the decline in progesterone levels, as well as the presence of local factors such as prostaglandins. These changes prepare the uterus for labor by promoting coordinated contractions and cervical ripening, ultimately leading to the delivery of the baby.

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Describe the fundamental principles of servant leadership. Present two qualities of servant leadership and explain how they support interprofessional communication in providing patient care.

Answers

Explanation:

The fundamental principle of servant leadership.

A good leader as regards this principle is one who is first able to see e. Under this kind of leadership, people are usually better off. They feel motivated and more supported.

A servant leader has qualities that are close to that of the people under them.

These qualities are,

The ability to listenthey have empathythey bring healingawarenessthey have foresightconceptualizationstewardshipthey are able to build a communitycommitted to serving otherspersuasion

The qualities of listening and empathy and how they help In providing patient care.

listening helps the leader to be better able to provide for the needs of the patient. It helps the leader think fast and provide quick solutions to the patients need by taking note of the informations that concerns the patient.

A servant leader who possesses empathy would be better able to understand the patient and his needs, in terms of their feelings, their emotions and would be always committed to helping them feel better.

Being prepared for a fire emergency would include all of the following, EXCEPT ________.

Answers

Answer:

Open windows on the east side of the building of fire breaks out

A fire emergency would include all of the following, EXCEPT Open windows on the east side of the building if a fire breaks out.

What emergency would fire extinguishers include?

Fire calls for gasoline, heat, and oxygen to burn. fireplace extinguishers follow an agent that will cool burning heat, smother gasoline or cast off oxygen so the hearth cannot maintain to burn. A portable fireplace extinguisher can quickly manage a small fire if carried out with the aid of an individual properly skilled.An extinguisher with an ABC score is suitable to be used with fires regarding regular combustibles, flammable liquids, and energized electrical gadgets. An extinguisher is rated for use with a couple of risks and needs to include a symbol for each threat type.

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Of the controlled substances, which schedule of drugs is the average person most likely to have in their homes? How are the controlled substances in this group different from those in the other schedule levels?

Answers

The schedule of drugs is the average person most likely to have in their homes are Schedule III, IV, and V.

The controlled substances in this group different from those in the other schedule levels as they lower potential for abuse.

What is a controlled substance?

Generally speaking, a controlled substance is a drug or chemical whose production, possession, and use are governed by a government, such as illegally used drugs or legally prescribed medications.

Schedule III, IV, and V controlled substances are the most likely to be found in the average person's home. These schedules include drugs that are commonly prescribed for medical conditions, such as certain painkillers, sedatives, and stimulants. These drugs have a lower potential for abuse compared to Schedule I and II drugs and have an accepted medical use. They have a lower potential for addiction, but still, have some potential and have a higher risk of dependence compared to Schedule V drugs.

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what is the nurse’s priority assessment for a patient receiving heparin treatment?
- Assess for elevated liver enzymes
- Assess for inflammation at the injection site
- Assess for bruising or unusual bleeding
- Assess aPTT levels

Answers

Priority assessment of nurses for a patient receiving heparin treatment would be to assess for bruising or unusual bleeding.

The nurse's priority assessment for a patient receiving heparin treatment is to assess for bruising or unusual bleeding. It is important to monitor for any signs of bleeding as heparin is an anticoagulant that can increase the risk of bleeding. Additionally, the nurse should also assess aPTT levels to ensure the therapeutic range is being achieved and monitor for any signs of inflammation at the injection site. Assessing for elevated liver enzymes may also be important, but it is not the priority assessment in this situation.

Hence, priority assessment of nurses for a patient receiving heparin treatment would be to assess for bruising or unusual bleeding.

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What types of agencies are designed for people who have no major health problems but are unable to live independently?

A. adult day cares
B. assisted living facilities
C. hospitals
D. long-term care centers

Answers

Answer:

Adult day cares because most of the people are healthy but still they (children) put them in adult day care

Analyze and explain how Morphine can be both helpful and harmful depending on the circumstances.

Answers

Answer:

It can build up in the pancreas and liver, it can mess up the heart too

Explanation:

Morphine can be helpful when you are experiencing physical pain and need a way to numb. But because it numbs pains people may become addicted to it which then they become drug addicts. Cons of having Morphind include: stomach pain and cramps, drowsiness mood changes , and difficulty urinating

A patient urine output was 800mL/hr. Following a treatment,
the patient’s urine output increased to 1200 ml/hr. What is the
percent change in urine output? (round to the nearest whole
number)

Answers

The percent change in urine output is 50% for a patient whose urine output was 800 mL/hr and following a treatment, the patient’s urine output increased to 1200 ml/hr.

Urine output is the volume of urine produced by the kidneys and excreted out of the body in a given period. It is a key measure utilized in the assessment of kidney function.

Given, the patient urine output was 800mL/hr and after the treatment, the patient's urine output increased to 1200 ml/hr. The difference in urine output before and after the treatment is as follows:

1200 ml/hr - 800 ml/hr = 400 ml/hr.

Hence, here the patient's urine output increased from 800 mL/hr to 1200 mL/hr with an increase of 400 ml/hr in urine output.

Percent change in the urine output can be calculated using the formula:

Percent change in urine output = [(New value - Old value) / Old value] × 100%

or, percent change in urine output = (Difference in urine output / Original urine output) x 100%

Now, we need to calculate the percent change in urine output. Substituting the given values, we have:

Percent change in urine output = [(1200 - 800) / 800] × 100%

Percent change in urine output = (400 ml/hr / 800 ml/hr) x 100%

Percent change in urine output = 0.5 x 100%

Percent change in urine output = 50%

Therefore, the percent change in urine output is 50% (rounded to the nearest whole number).

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Final answer:

The percent change in the patient's urine output, when it increased from 800 ml/hr to 1200 ml/hr, is 50%.

Explanation:

To calculate the percent change in urine output, you first subtract the initial output from the final output, then divide that by the initial output, and finally multiply by 100 to get the percentage.

If we plug the values in, that's:

(1200 ml/hr - 800 ml/hr) / 800 ml/hr * 100% = 50%

So, the urine output has increased by 50%

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Common behaviors that are a result of Alzheimer's disease are

Answers

Answer:

angry outbursts and physical aggression, hand wringing pacing and rocking, accusing loved ones of wrong doing and hallucinating, repeating stories and leaving the house unassisted, sleep problems and sundowing

Explanation:

1, Verbal or physical aggression, which can be quite alarming, is common in patients with Alzheimer’s.

2, Dementia makes it very difficult to process stimuli and new information, causing many people with Alzheimer’s disease to become anxious. 

3, Caregivers may feel at a loss when an Alzheimer’s patient exhibits behavior that is clearly not grounded in reality: either hallucinations—perceiving something that isn’t really there—or delusions, which are false beliefs that can lead to paranoia.

4, The memory problems caused by Alzheimer’s disease can lead to a range of distressing behaviors, including repetition of words or activities, disorientation even in familiar places, and, in severe cases, confusion about the passage of time.

5, It’s not well understood why sleep disturbances occur in many Alzheimer’s patients, but it’s common for them to experience nighttime restlessness and changes to their sleep schedule.

Which class of diuretic can decrease calcium in the body?

Answers

Explanation:

Thiazode Diuretics can decrease calcium in the body.

tại sao chỉ mỗi kháng sinh mới có MIC

Answers

Answer:

, khfzorusruosruozurosurso

One of the main functions of tcells is to

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

producing cytokinesregulating immune response killing infected host cells

Noctissssss where are you??????

If you don't know who noctis is don't answer plz

Answers

Answer:

Hey Elesis im here what do you wan't me for????

^^^^^^^^^ Ik u said Dont answer but I did... anyways bye ur person already answered

The early stages of influenza pass by as if the infection were any other viral infection. What is the distinguishing feature of an influenza viral infection that makes it different from other viral infections

Answers

The distinguishing feature of an influenza viral infection that makes it different from other viral infections is the severity of its symptoms and the speed at which it spreads.

It is caused by the influenza virus that is transmitted through the air or by coming into contact with surfaces contaminated with the virus. The early stages of influenza are similar to those of other viral infections. The early symptoms include fever, muscle pain, cough, and sore throat. However, as the infection progresses, it can cause severe respiratory symptoms, such as shortness of breath, chest pain, and difficulty breathing. The influenza virus can cause complications such as pneumonia, which can lead to hospitalization or even death. This is why it is important to get vaccinated against the flu every year and take other preventive measures such as washing hands frequently and avoiding close contact with people who are sick.

In summary, the severity of symptoms and the speed of transmission are the distinguishing features of influenza viral infection that makes it different from other viral infections.

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guys WHAT IS THE ANWSER I AM SO CLOSE TO ENDING SOMEONE HELP ME OUT :)

guys WHAT IS THE ANWSER I AM SO CLOSE TO ENDING SOMEONE HELP ME OUT :)

Answers

C
Generic a drug that is unbranded

attach to sclera allowing precise and rapid movement of the eyeball

Answers

Answer:

EXTRAOCULAR MUSCLES

Explanation:

This is a group of 7 striated (fibrous, banded) muscles that connect to the sclera (see below) to control the movement of the eyes with rapid precision. :)

5
Select the correct answer.
Cerise is a new mother. She wants to stimulate her baby's cerise is a new mother. She wants to stimulate her baby’s visual development. Which is the best way for her to do that?
A. by letting the baby watch television programs
B. by exposing the baby to fast moving objects
C. by limiting the baby's exposure to bright colors
D. by exposing the baby to objects of bright colors

Answers

Answer:

D. by exposing the baby to objects of bright colors

Explanation:

Newborns find high contrast colors easier to pick out.

They cannot see far away (more than 30 cm), so answer A is incorrect. Newborn sight is fuzzy and they are just learning to track objects with their eyes, so answer B is also incorrect.

. 1. Could an automated medical diagnosis system ever replace live doctors? Why or why not? at least 200 words

Answers

The question of whether an automated medical diagnosis system could replace live doctors is a complex and multifaceted one.

While automated systems have made significant advancements in medical diagnosis and decision support, there are several factors to consider that suggest complete replacement is unlikely.

First and foremost, medicine is not solely about diagnosis. It encompasses a broad range of skills and expertise that extend beyond pattern recognition. Doctors possess comprehensive knowledge acquired through years of education, clinical experience, and patient interactions. They possess critical thinking abilities, empathy, and the capacity to assess complex medical situations holistically. These qualities are currently challenging for automated systems to replicate fully.

Additionally, medicine involves a human element. The doctor-patient relationship is built on trust, compassion, and effective communication. Patients often seek emotional support, counseling, and reassurance from their doctors. These aspects of healthcare delivery cannot be replicated by machines, as they require empathy, understanding, and the ability to address the unique needs and concerns of individual patients.

Furthermore, medical decision-making is influenced by a variety of factors, including patient preferences, values, and social context. Doctors consider multiple variables, weigh risks and benefits, and tailor treatments accordingly. Automated systems, although capable of analyzing vast amounts of medical data, may struggle to incorporate these nuanced aspects into their recommendations.

Another critical aspect to consider is the ethical and legal implications of automated medical diagnosis. Medical decision-making involves complex ethical considerations, such as patient autonomy, privacy, and accountability. Implementing fully automated systems raises questions about responsibility and liability in the event of errors or adverse outcomes.

That being said, automated medical diagnosis systems can be valuable tools for doctors. They can enhance efficiency, accuracy, and access to information, allowing doctors to make more informed decisions. These systems can assist with data analysis, provide evidence-based guidelines, and offer support in diagnosing rare conditions or complex cases. However, they should be viewed as aids rather than replacements for human clinicians.

In conclusion, while automated medical diagnosis systems have the potential to augment healthcare delivery, it is unlikely that they will completely replace live doctors. The practice of medicine encompasses not only diagnosis but also a multitude of skills, qualities, and human interactions that are challenging to replicate in machines. The human element, ethical considerations, and the holistic nature of medical decision-making make doctors indispensable in providing comprehensive and personalized care to patients.

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What type of infectious agent is the new medicine for?

Answers

The agents that cause disease fall into five groups: viruses, bacteria, fungi, protozoa, and helminths (worms). Protozoa and worms are usually grouped together as parasites, and are the subject of the discipline of parasitology, whereas viruses, bacteria, and fungi are the subject of microbiology.

Romans developed surgical tools such as scalpels and retractors. Which of the following career fields evolved around the development of these devices?

A: Genetic medicine
B: Medical sales representative
C: Medical instrument engineering
D: Biochemistry
E: Pharmacy

Answers

The career that evolved for the development of these tools was medical instrument engineering (Option C). This field allows the development of different medical devices.

Medical instrument engineering

Medical instrument engineering refers to the techniques and strategies aimed at developing new tools in medicine.

Currently, this field (medical instrument engineering) is aimed at designing, developing and repairing electronic medical devices and medical tools.

The devices can be used for improving the overall health of patients in clinical settings, as well as for developing new medical strategies.

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A conditional licence can not exceed how many months?

Answers

A conditional licence, also known as a probationary licence, is typically issued to new drivers who have recently obtained their driver's licence. This type of licence comes with certain restrictions, such as a lower blood alcohol limit and a requirement to display "P" plates on the vehicle.

The length of time for which a conditional licence is valid can vary depending on the jurisdiction, but in most cases, it cannot exceed 12 months. This is because the purpose of the conditional licence is to give new drivers time to gain experience and demonstrate safe driving behaviour before being granted a full, unrestricted licence.
It is important for drivers to abide by the restrictions of their conditional licence, as any violation could result in suspension or cancellation of the licence. Additionally, driving while under the influence of drugs or alcohol or committing a serious driving offence may also result in the loss of the conditional licence.

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what type of immunity results from injection of tetanus toxoid

Answers

The injection of tetanus toxoid results in the development of acquired active immunity.

Tetanus toxoid is a vaccine that contains inactivated toxins produced by the bacterium Clostridium tetani, which causes tetanus. When the toxoid is injected into the body, the immune system recognizes it as foreign and mounts an immune response. This immune response involves the production of specific antibodies against the tetanus toxin.

The antibodies generated in response to the tetanus toxoid vaccination provide active immunity. This means that the immune system is primed to respond quickly and effectively if the individual is exposed to the actual tetanus toxin in the future. If such exposure occurs, the pre-formed antibodies will recognize and neutralize the toxin, preventing the development of tetanus disease.

It's important to note that the tetanus toxoid vaccine does not provide immediate protection. It takes time for the immune system to generate a sufficient antibody response. Therefore, it is recommended to receive booster shots of the tetanus toxoid vaccine every 10 years to maintain adequate immunity.

In summary, injection of tetanus toxoid results in the development of acquired active immunity, as it stimulates the production of antibodies that provide protection against tetanus toxin.

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In a medical setting,what's done to whole numbers to minimize the chance of errors?

Answers

Ensure correct entry of the prescription. ...
Confirm that the prescription is correct and complete. ...
Beware of look-alike, soundalike drugs. ...
Be careful with zeros and abbreviations. ...
Organize the workplace. ...
Reduce distraction when possible.

when monitoring water for bacterial contamination, it is best to check for abundant pathogens abundant non-pathogens rare pathogens rare non-pathogens

Answers

When monitoring water for bacterial contamination, it is best to check for both abundant pathogens and rare pathogens. This is because some pathogenic bacteria can cause serious illnesses, and even death, while others may be less harmful but still cause discomfort or mild illness.

In addition, it is important to check for abundant non-pathogens, as their presence can indicate other types of contamination that may pose a risk to human health.
Bacterial contamination of water can be caused by a variety of sources, including sewage leaks, animal waste, and runoff from agricultural or industrial activities. It can lead to a range of health problems, including gastrointestinal illness, skin infections, and respiratory problems. Monitoring water for bacterial contamination is therefore essential to protect public health.
To monitor water for bacterial contamination, samples are taken and tested for the presence of various bacteria. This may involve culturing the bacteria in a lab or using molecular methods to detect specific DNA sequences associated with different types of bacteria. The results of these tests can help identify potential sources of contamination and guide efforts to mitigate the problem.

In summary, when monitoring water for bacterial contamination, it is important to check for both abundant and rare pathogens, as well as abundant non-pathogens, to ensure that the water is safe for human use and consumption.

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what was the subject of the book by vesalius that changed the field of medicine?

Answers

The subject of the book by Vesalius that changed the field of medicine is anatomy.

The book by Vesalius that changed the field of medicine is called De humani corporis fabrica libri septem which was published in 1543. The book is a comprehensive study of human anatomy that provided a detailed description of the human body's structure and the functions of its various organs. The book was highly influential in the development of modern medicine, as it challenged many of the traditional views on anatomy and physiology that had been held for centuries.

Vesalius based his book on his own observations, including dissections of human cadavers, rather than relying on the works of earlier authorities. This approach allowed him to make many groundbreaking discoveries about the human body's structure and function, including the discovery of the true structure of the heart and the role of the lungs in respiration.

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The west nomogram chart has how many Columns

Answers

Answer:

THREE

Explanation:

andrew has been experiencing pain while urinating. On examination,his doctor observes that andrew has inflamed testes. What is andrews doctors diagnosis

Answers

Answer:

Orchitis,

Explanation:

Cryptorchidism  means:  A testicle that hasn't moved into the bag of skin below the penis before birth.

Balanitis  means: Inflammation of the foreskin and head of the penis.

Anorchia, also known as anorchism, is a rare congenital condition in which a male baby grows inside the womb without testes.

And Orchitis is inflammation of one or both of the testicles.

Hope this helped!

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