Answers
Encourage active and passive range-of-motion activities to prevent ineffective tissue perfusion.The nurse should turn the client and encourage active and passive range-of-motion activities to prevent ineffective tissue perfusion.
Briefly describe how you evaluate musculoskeletal injuries?Keep an eye out for redness, bruises, wounds, and swelling.In order to locate locations of point soreness and elicit pain, palpation should be used to pinpoint the issue spot.All bony specular highlights, joint borders, and soft tissues, such as muscles, ligaments, and tendons, should all be palpated.
What is the title of the scoliosis correction devices that fixate the spine?A posterior spinal fusing in the thoracic or lumbosacral spine from scoliosis or trauma is coupled with a Harrington rod, an instrumentation & fusion technique that uses a straight, rigid rod for displacement or compression.A posterior fixing device called an isola.
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Related Questions
which are the most important interventions that can help reduce the incidence of hospital-acquired urinary catheter infections? select all that apply.
Answers
The most important interventions that can help reduce the incidence of hospital-acquired urinary are as follows:
Use indwelling urinary catheters judiciously.Remove indwelling catheters when no longer needed.Use a strict aseptic technique when inserting all urinary catheters. What do you mean by hospital-acquired urinary catheter infections?Hospital-acquired urinary catheter infections are the most common type of healthcare-associated infection reported to the National Healthcare Safety Network (NHSN). Among UTIs acquired in the hospital, approximately 75% are associated with a urinary catheter, which is a tube inserted into the bladder through the urethra to drain urine.
Infection control policies are important in limiting the number of hospital-acquired UTIs. Other important points include catheterization using an aseptic technique and sterile equipment and the use of closed drainage systems.
Therefore, the most important interventions that can help reduce the incidence of hospital-acquired urinary are well mentioned above.
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Last Med Term questions part 2
Answers
Answer:
31.c 32.c 33.b 34.b 35.d
Explanation:
hope this helps. :) what about question 26 though?
past medical significant for atrial fibrillation and copd with a new diagnosis of major depressive
Answers
COPD can lead to feelings of hopelessness, social isolation, reduced physical functioning, and sedentary lifestyle.
What is the preferred antidepressant for COPD?
SSRIs are thought to be a viable option for treating COPD-related sadness or anxiety. The neurotransmitter serotonin is reabsorbed (reuptaken) by the nerve cells that secreted it when an SSRI is taken, which is how it functions.
How is atrial fibrillation brought on by COPD?
One of the main characteristics of COPD is hypoxia, which can cause pulmonary hypertension, atrial remodeling, and finally AFib through increased vascular tone.
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The American Population is living longer. Along with the longevity of life comes additional challenges with both medical and Psychiatric problems. Your patient is about to be discharged from a short-tern rehab center. You overhear the daughter confiding in the nursing student that she cannot handle her mother and will be looking for a Memory care unit to put her mother in. You also hear the student nurse who was raised in a foreign country state, " I would NEVER put my mother in a home. I would take care of her woth my two sisters junti she dies.
what considerations might you make withthis students. Address the cultural differneces in elder care and adress the conself od "Role Strain" in caring for special populations.
Answers
When addressing cultural differences in elder care and the considerations of role strain, it is vital to approach the situation with cultural sensitivity, respect, and open communication.
By acknowledging and respecting diverse cultural perspectives and providing appropriate support and resources, healthcare professionals can assist families in making informed decisions that best meet the needs of their aging loved ones.
When addressing the cultural differences in elder care between the nursing student, who was raised in a foreign country, and the American daughter considering a memory care unit for her mother, it is important to approach the situation with cultural sensitivity and respect.
The student nurse's perspective reflects a cultural norm in many societies where taking care of elderly parents at home is considered a familial obligation.
This perspective is influenced by factors such as filial piety, strong intergenerational bonds, and the belief that caring for parents at home is a sign of respect and honor.
To bridge the cultural gap and provide appropriate guidance, it is essential to acknowledge and respect the student nurse's cultural background and values.
Engaging in a non-judgmental conversation about her perspective and understanding her cultural beliefs can help create a supportive environment for discussion.
Addressing the daughter's concerns about her ability to handle her mother's care is also crucial. Role strain refers to the stress and strain experienced by individuals who are responsible for caring for special populations, such as elderly parents with complex medical and psychiatric problems.
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Brent has been in a coma for three weeks. A doctor wanted to try a new drug to try and bring him out of the coma.
When Brent was given the drugs, he woke up front his coma. Which best describes what happened to Brent?
He experienced a positive incident.
He experienced a negative incident.
He experienced a positive accident.
He experienced a negative accident.
Answers
There is a right and left cervical plexus.
True or false
Answers
The statement "There is a right and left cervical plexus" is True because The cervical plexus is a network of nerves that arises from the ventral rami (branches) of the first four cervical spinal nerves (C1-C4).
It is located in the neck region. The cervical plexus gives rise to various branches and nerves that supply motor and sensory innervation to different structures in the head, neck, and shoulders.
The cervical plexus has a right and left division, with each division supplying its respective side of the neck and upper body. The nerves originating from the cervical plexus control motor functions, such as muscle movement and sensation, in their respective regions.
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what medication is used to treat nausea/vomiting associated with chemotherapy? avastin, adriamycin, bevacizumab, zofran
Answers
The medication that is used to treat nausea/vomiting associated with chemotherapy is Zofran.
Zofran (ondansetron) is a medication that is used to prevent nausea and vomiting that is caused by cancer chemotherapy, radiation therapy, or surgery. Zofran works by blocking the action of serotonin, a natural substance that can cause nausea and vomiting.
Zofran is available in tablet form, which is taken orally, and as an injection, which is given by a healthcare professional. The medication may be taken with or without food, but it should be taken exactly as prescribed by a doctor or healthcare professional.
The usual adult dose of Zofran for preventing nausea and vomiting caused by chemotherapy is 8 mg taken orally or 16 mg given by injection 30 minutes before the start of chemotherapy. The medication may be given again 4 hours after the first dose if nausea and vomiting continue.
Zofran can cause side effects, although not everyone will experience them. Common side effects of Zofran include headache, constipation, and diarrhoea. In rare cases, Zofran can cause serious side effects such as allergic reactions, abnormal heart rhythms, and seizures. If you experience any of these side effects, seek medical attention immediately.
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Chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting (CINV) is a common side effect of cancer treatment. It can cause significant distress and compromise the quality of life. Antiemetic drugs are the mainstay of therapy for CINV.Zofran (ondansetron) is a medication commonly used to treat nausea and vomiting caused by chemotherapy.
It belongs to a class of drugs known as serotonin receptor antagonists, which work by blocking the action of serotonin, a neurotransmitter that can trigger vomiting.There are other drugs available to treat CINV, such as aprepitant, dexamethasone, metoclopramide, and prochlorperazine. The choice of antiemetic depends on the chemotherapy regimen and the patient's risk of developing CINV.
For example, highly emetogenic chemotherapy is more likely to cause CINV and requires more aggressive antiemetic therapy than low emetogenic chemotherapy.In summary, Zofran is a medication commonly used to treat chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting. However, the choice of antiemetic depends on the chemotherapy regimen and the patient's risk of developing CINV.
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Laboratory results are interpreted using what kind of values?
Answers
Laboratory results are interpreted using the kind of values which are known as reference range.
What is a Laboratory?This is referred to as a facility which provides controlled conditions in which scientific or technological research and experiments, are done by different types of individuals. This contains different types of equipment and specimens neede for the various reactions involved.
The reference range on the other hand are referred to as normal set of values such as "normal: 66-88mg/dL" which represents the average set of value for a large healthy population.
Laboratory results are interpreted using reference age as it helps to depict the exact medical condition or state of the individual which is therefore the reason why it was chosen as the correct choice.
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What could be potential laboratory findings in a patient who is on anticoagulant therapy and has a prolonged INR (International Normalized Ratio) and PPT (Partial Thromboplastin Time), but a normal aPTT (Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time)?
Answers
The potential laboratory findings in a patient on anticoagulant therapy with a prolonged INR and PTT, but a normal aPTT may indicate an increased risk of bleeding.
The INR and PTT are commonly used to monitor anticoagulant therapy. A prolonged INR indicates that the patient's blood is taking longer than usual to clot, and a prolonged PTT indicates a deficiency in clotting factors. These results suggest that the patient may be at an increased risk of bleeding. A normal aPTT suggests that the clotting time for the intrinsic pathway of coagulation is normal, which is not typical in patients on anticoagulant therapy. This discrepancy may be due to the specific anticoagulant medication the patient is taking or an underlying clotting disorder. Additional laboratory tests may be necessary to determine the cause of the abnormal results and adjust the patient's treatment accordingly.
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A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a laminectomy with spinal fusion. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
a. Monitor sensory perception of the lower extremities.
b. Assist the client into a knee-chest position to manage postoperative discomfort.
c. Maintain strict bed rest for the first 48 hours postoperative.
d. Position the client in a high-Fowler's position if clear drainage is noted on the dressing.a. Monitor sensory perception of the lower extremities.
Answers
The action which a nurse should take when taking care of a patient who is postoperative following a laminectomy with spinal fusion is:
Monitor sensory perception of the lower extremities.
The correct answer choice is option a.
What is meant by laminectomy?Laminectomy refers to surgical procedure which creates an opening by way of removing tissues concerned with arthritis of the spine. However, this help to allow the passages of substances to be removed from the spine.
From the context of the task given above, it is expedient that a well trained healthcare provider monitors the perception of the lower extremities of patient with such health condition in order to help manage while caring for him or her.
In conclusion, it can be deduced from the explanation given above that a client with such health condition needs to be monitored properly.
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Pulmonary circulation is the key component that supports both respiratory and cardiovascular systems. Examine this diagram of a human heart as seen while looking at the front of the body. A diagram showing the heart with labels A through D. A is above the heart. B is on the left side of the heart. C is on the right side of the heart. D is below the heart. Which correctly identifies where the blood is flowing to and from? A: lower body, B: left lung, C: right lung, D: upper body A: upper body, B: right lung, C: left lung, D: lower body A: right lung, B: upper body, C: lower body, D: left lung A: left lung, B: lower body, C: upper body, D: right lung Mark this and return
Answers
Answer:
where is the diagram????????
Answer: The 3rd Option
aka Answer Choice- A: right lung, B: upper body, C: lower body, D: left lung
A dtap and an oral poliomyelitis vaccine (live) are administered to a new 5-year-old patient. a history and examination are performed for an acute uri, and the medical decision making is straightforward (separate identifiable service).
Answers
Answer: 99201-25
90700
90749
90471
90474
Explanation:
If someone faints, you should do all of the following except __________.
tighten the person's clothing.
leave the person lying down and check the airway to make sure it is clear.
call for help if he or she does not regain consciousness in about a minute.
raise the person's legs above the level of his or her head.
Answers
Answer:
look down
Explanation:
leave the person lying down and check the airway to make it is clear
list 2 Habits for successful aging
Answers
Answer:
not smoking and getting some form of daily physical activity
6. Which one of the following statements about the responsibilities of medical
billers and coders is correct?
A. They play a minor role in health care reimbursement.
B. They should not examine patient records.
C. They create documentation required for reimbursement from only third-party
payers.
O D. They use three code sets: ICD, CPT, and HCPCS.
Answers
Answer:
Last option is the correct choice.
Explanation:
The following statement about the responsibilities of medical billers and coders is correct: They use three code sets: ICD, CPT, and HCPCS.
Best Regards!
__________ supported the claim that diagnosis of mental illnesses is often influenced by context and subjective evaluations.
Answers
Answer: David Rosenhan study
Explanation:
David Rosenhan conducted a study which supported the claim by diagnosing the mental illnesses. This diagnoses is supported by subjective evaluations. He conducted the experiment to judge whether the psychiatric disorders are reliable and valid to help mentally ill patients. The experimenters were provided with hallucinogens and then provided with antipsychotic drugs when were admitted to psychiatric hospital.
Answer:
b on edge
_____________________________
true/false. mpaction is an option to reduce fragmentation of main memory. the disadvantage of this approach is that it is to keep doing it every now and then.
Answers
False. Memory compaction is a technique used to reduce fragmentation of main memory, but the disadvantage is not that it needs to be done repeatedly.
The disadvantage of memory compaction is that it can be time-consuming and can affect system performance, particularly if the system is under heavy load.
Memory compaction involves moving the active data from multiple partially filled memory segments into a smaller number of contiguous segments, which can be time-consuming and can introduce overhead. However, it can be a useful technique for managing memory fragmentation in systems with limited memory resources.
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one hour after a transfusion of packed red blood cells (rbcs) is started, a client develops redness on the trunk and reports itching. the nurse stops the rbc infusion and administers diphenhydramine 25 mg po, as ordered. thirty minutes later, the redness and itching are gone. what action should the nurse take next?
Answers
The action should the nurse take next is resume the transfusion.
What is blood transfusion?A blood transfusion is a routine medical procedure in which donated blood is delivered to you through a narrow tube placed into a vein in your arm. This potentially life-saving procedure can help replace blood lost through surgery or injury. A blood transfusion can also help if a disease prevents your body from producing blood or a blood component properly. Blood transfusion is usually done without complications. If complications do occur, they are usually mild. With a blood transfusion, you get the part of blood you need, and most often red blood cells are transplanted. You can also receive whole blood, which contains all the parts, but whole blood transfusions are not common.To learn more about blood transfusion, refer;
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List three words you associate with the word “Psychology”.
Answers
Answer:
1. Attitude.
2. Medicine.
3. Therapy
Wash cutting boards after each use to prevent the spread of A) Bacteria
B) Disease
C) Germs
D) Both A and C are correct
Answers
Where in the gastrointestinal track do drugs delivered orally have their highest absorption?
Answers
Answer: The small intestine
Explanation:
which drug has been used as an indicator for much of the research on correlates of drug use? A. Marijuana B. CBD oil C. Morphine
Answers
Many studies on the correlates for drug use have utilised marijuana consumption as an indication. Government efforts to control harmful drugs and drugs that cause dependence have grown significantly.
Correct option is, A.
a crucial marker of medication absorption?An important predictor of drug absorption is bioavailability. It stands for the provided dose fraction that, when given orally or through another extravascular dosing method, successfully reaches the systemic circulation.
What is most strongly correlated with crime?Criminality, especially sexual offences, has a strong correlation with mesomorphic and muscular body types. Criminality has a substantial genetic correlation when age and sex are taken into account. Criminals frequently have low amounts of 5-HIAA and low monoamine oxidase activity.
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The nurse is evaluating the actions of a caregiver for a client with a lower extremity cast. which action of the caregiver indicates the nurse needs to provide additional instruction?
Answers
The nurse is evaluating the actions of a caregiver for a client with a lower extremity cast. which action of the caregiver indicates the nurse needs to put a plastic cover over the client's cast for 36 hours
Cast covers have an airtight seal and fit over the cast. They typically come in the shape of a long plastic sleeve that may be worn over a cast on either the arm or leg.Long-term plastic wrapping of the cast may cause discomfort, which the nurse may need to address. The other actions are all appropriate. To stop itching and infection, the cast can be blotted dry with a cloth. Daily joint movement above and below the cast stops muscle atrophy. For the first 48 hours, elevating the damaged area above the level of the heart helps to prevent edema brought on by fluid shift.DISCLAIMER
A nurse is evaluating the actions of a caregiver for a client with a lower extremity cast. Which action of the caregiver indicates the nurse needs to follow up?
Using a towel to dry the cast
Moving joints above and below the cast regularly
Elevating the injured part above heart level for 48 hours
Wrapping the client's cast with a plastic cover for 36 hours
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During prenatal development, the embryo and fetus are exposed to nicotine. What are the possible effects?.
Answers
During prenatal development, exposure to nicotine can lead to several possible effects. These effects can vary from one individual to another. Nonetheless, it is essential to minimize nicotine exposure during pregnancy. Explanation: Smoking during pregnancy can harm the unborn baby as well as the mother.
Nicotine from smoking can lead to complications in the development of the fetus. The effects of nicotine on fetal development are summarized below: Smoking can lead to low birth weight, which can increase the risk of infant mortality. Premature birth is also possible with nicotine exposure during fetal development. Respiratory distress syndrome can also be a result of smoking during pregnancy, which can result in neonatal death.
There is an increased risk of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) when the baby is exposed to nicotine while in the womb.Exposure to nicotine during the prenatal period can affect the central nervous system and brain development of the baby. This could lead to behavioral problems later in life. There is also an increased risk of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) and learning disabilities. An increased risk of hearing problems in infants can result from exposure to nicotine during the prenatal period.
Women who smoke during pregnancy are more likely to have miscarriages, stillbirths, and complications during delivery. The above possible effects suggest that smoking during pregnancy can be dangerous for both the mother and the baby.
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The pregnant mother who has had no prenatal care comes to the labor and delivery department with ruptured membranes. The history of group B streptococcus (GBS) is unknown. The mother states she has no known drug allergies. The nurse will prepare to administer which drug to this mother?
Answers
Ideally, the nurse should use penicillin g.
Why is this medicine necessary?To prevent infections.To reduce the possible actions of bacteria.As the patient did not undergo prenatal care, it is not possible to identify a specific risk of infection, in addition to those present in any surgery. In this case, it may be appropriate to use penicillin G, which is a common antibiotic that is effective against a wide range of bacteria.
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a nurse is trying to influence a client to adhere to a medication regimen. using a health beliefs model to formulate interventions to achieve medication adherence with the client, a nurse should make which statement?
Answers
In order to achieve medication adherence with a client, a nurse using a health beliefs model should make the statement that the client's personal beliefs and attitudes towards their health and medication are important to consider.
By understanding the client's individual health beliefs and how they perceive their medication, the nurse can tailor interventions that address any barriers or misconceptions the client may have. The health beliefs model suggests that a person's behavior is influenced by their perceived susceptibility to a health problem, the perceived severity of the problem, the perceived benefits of taking action, and the perceived barriers to taking action.
Therefore, the nurse should work with the client to identify these factors and address any concerns or misconceptions in order to promote medication adherence. This approach empowers the client to take an active role in their own health and medication management, ultimately leading to better health outcomes.
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The most appropriate statement for a nurse to make when using a health beliefs model to promote medication adherence would be: b. "Taking your medication will help you avoid complications and manage your condition effectively."
The health beliefs model, also known as the Health Belief Model (HBM), is a theoretical framework that suggests individuals are more likely to take action and adhere to a recommended health behavior if they perceive certain key factors. These factors include the belief that taking the recommended action will prevent negative consequences or complications and effectively manage their condition. This approach is more likely to motivate the client to adhere to the medication regimen compared to statements solely based on doctor's prescription, potential adverse effects, or overall health and well-being.
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Complete Question
A nurse is trying to influence a client to adhere to a medication regimen. Using a health beliefs model to formulate interventions to achieve medication adherence with the client, a nurse should make which statement?
a. "You should take your medication because it is prescribed by your doctor."
b. "Taking your medication will help you avoid complications and manage your condition effectively."
c. "If you don't take your medication, you may experience adverse effects and your condition may worsen."
d. "You should take your medication because it is important for your overall health and well-being."
Evaluate the reliability and effectiveness of a risk assessment
Answers
The reliability and effectiveness of a risk assessment depend on various factors, including the quality of data, the expertise of the assessors, and the accuracy of the risk assessment model used.
A reliable and effective risk assessment should be based on objective and comprehensive data, analyzed by qualified and experienced assessors who use a scientifically valid and reliable model to identify potential risks and their likelihood of occurrence.
To evaluate the reliability and effectiveness of a risk assessment, it is important to consider the following:
1. Data quality: The accuracy and completeness of the data used in the risk assessment can impact the reliability of the assessment. If the data is incomplete, outdated, or unreliable, the risk assessment may not be accurate.
2. Assessor expertise: The assessors should have the necessary knowledge and skills to conduct a thorough risk assessment. If the assessors lack expertise in the specific area being assessed, the assessment may not be effective.
3. Risk assessment model: The model used to assess the risks should be scientifically valid and reliable. If the model is flawed or inaccurate, the assessment may not be effective.
4. Transparency: The risk assessment should be transparent, and the assessors should be open to feedback and questions from stakeholders.
In conclusion, a reliable and effective risk assessment is critical to identify potential risks and mitigate them. The assessment should be based on comprehensive and accurate data, conducted by qualified assessors using a scientifically valid model, and be transparent and open to feedback from stakeholders.
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An 8-year-old girl comes to your ambulatory care clinic with complaints of left ear pain for the past 3 days. She had respiratory infection a week ago. On physical examination, the tympanic membrane is bulging. Answer the following questions:________.
1. What else should you ask the client?
2. What teaching would you reinforce to prevent the recurrence of otitis media?
3. What expected outcomes would be specific to this situation?
Answers
Answer:
The answer is below
Explanation:
Given the situation above
1. Some of the questions that will be asked from the client includes:
(a). Is your ear feel full?
b) is there any fluid coming out of your ear?
c). do you normally swim?
d). recently, is there anything stuck in your ear?
e). Is the pain from the ear so intense?
2. Some of the teaching to reinforce to prevent the recurrence of otitis media are:
a) Advise the client and her parents to clean the outer layer of the ear.
b) Avoid anything less than elbow in size, in the ear.
c) Ensure the ears are dry immediately after swimming or baths/showers.
3. Some of the expected outcomes that be specific to this situation are:
a) sleeplessness
b) ear pain
c) diarrhea
d) irritability
e) lack of balance
f) hearing loss
complement activation is fundamental to cell destruction in which of the following disorders: (1pts) question 60 - complement activation is fundamental to cell destruction in which of the following disorders: hemolytic disease of the newborn (classic rh type) hereditary spherocytosis paraxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria idiopathic autoimmune hemolytic anemia
Answers
Complement activation is fundamental to cell destruction in autoimmune hemolytic anemia.
D is the correct answer.
Complement plays a crucial role in assisting phagocytic cells in capturing and eliminating infections. Complement receptors (CRs) on phagocytes recognize bound complement components specifically, causing this to happen.
It is frequently found that many diseases are caused by complement proteins being activated too much. For instance, autoimmune conditions, Alzheimer's syndrome, schizophrenia, atypical hemolytic uremic syndrome, angioedema, macular degeneration, and Crohn's disease are some of them.
Primary immunodeficiency disease includes complement deficiency. Immuno-compromise, virulent infection, and sepsis can result from deficiencies in any one of the complement system's components. Deficiency might be full or partial, acquired or hereditary.
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The complete question is:
Complement activation is fundamental to cell destruction in which of the following disorders:
A. hemolytic disease of the newborn (classic rh type)
B. hereditary spherocytosis
C. paraxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
D. idiopathic autoimmune hemolytic anemia
What book i should read to begin to study neuroscience?
Answers
Answer:
Books 1 and 2: The classic neuroscience textbooks
For a textbook similar to the one used in high school biology classes, there are 2 that are generally regarded as the most thorough, and well written. These books are Eric Kandel's Principles of Neural Science*, and Larry Squire's Fundamental Neuroscience.