the members of a population survive and successfully reproduce due to the specific phenotypes they posses. this is an example of

Answers

Answer 1

Natural selection is the variation in individual survival and procreation brought on by phenotypic variances. The development of a population's heritable features across generations is a fundamental process of evolution.

Natural selection can boost the frequency of the beneficial alleles from one generation to the next, or create microevolution, when a phenotype generated by certain alleles helps organisms survive and reproduce better than their contemporaries. Natural selection affects the entire organism; the individual is the unit of selection. NS is unable to affect specific alleles (genes). The phenotype, not the genotype, is the unit of natural selection. However, it has the potential to alter genotype. Because an organism's phenotype is what interacts with its environment, natural selection focuses on it. The physical characteristics and observable attributes that enable an organism to survive in its environment make up the phenotype. By expressing the proteins that result in the visible features, the genotype regulates the phenotype.

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Related Questions

regular wildfires in many forests open up areas where new trees can grow. eventually, these young trees will refill the burned regions and the mature forest will be restored. this type of recovery best illustrates .

Answers

The type of recovery that best illustrates regular wildfires in many forests opens up areas where new trees can grow and eventually, these young trees will refill the burned regions and the mature forest will be restored is called secondary succession.

Secondary succession is the process by which an ecosystem regains its original ecological state after a severe ecological disturbance, such as a fire or a flood, has occurred. It begins after a primary ecological succession has been disrupted or destroyed, such as after a fire or a flood. The plant community that is replaced by secondary succession is the one that existed before the disruption, and it is called the climax community. The initial stage of secondary succession is called the pioneer stage, in which the first plants to colonize an area are typically those that are fast-growing and able to tolerate harsh environmental conditions. As time progresses, these early pioneers will be replaced by other plant species that are more adapted to the new conditions. The first few years after a fire, for example, are typically characterized by the growth of herbaceous plants and shrubs that can tolerate harsh environmental conditions. As the soil recovers and becomes more nutrient-rich, larger trees and other plants will begin to grow, eventually restoring the mature forest that was present before the fire. Therefore, the process of restoring the forests with the growth of new trees is the best example of secondary succession.

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Discuss how declines in sea ice algae are contributing to a decline in polar bear populations.​

Answers

Answer:

i dont know

Explanation:

For an electrophoretic mobility shift assay, you mix in a test tube bacterial cell extract and a 32-P-labeled fragment of DNA that contains the CAP binding site and the lacP of the lac operon. Which of the following would cause a mobility shift if added to the mix?
glucose
lactose
allolactose
cAMP
anti-lac repressor antibody
anti-CAP antibody

Answers

The addition of an anti-CAP antibody to the mix would cause a mobility shift in the EMSA.

Option (f) is correct.

In an electrophoretic mobility shift assay (EMSA), a mobility shift occurs when a DNA-protein complex forms, altering the migration pattern of the DNA fragment during electrophoresis. In this case, the bacterial cell extract likely contains the CAP protein, which can bind to the CAP binding site of the lac operon DNA fragment.

The options glucose, lactose, allolactose, and cAMP are small molecules or metabolites that can affect gene regulation in the lac operon, but they do not directly interact with the DNA-protein complex formed in the EMSA. Therefore, they would not cause a mobility shift.

On the other hand, an anti-CAP antibody specifically targets and binds to the CAP protein. If added to the mix, the anti-CAP antibody can form a complex with the CAP protein, potentially interfering with its binding to the DNA fragment.

Therefore, the addition of the anti-CAP antibody would result in a mobility shift in the EMSA.

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Complete question is:

For an electrophoretic mobility shift assay, you mix in a test tube bacterial cell extract and a 32-P-labeled fragment of DNA that contains the CAP binding site and the lacP of the lac operon. Which of the following would cause a mobility shift if added to the mix?

a) glucose

b)lactose

c) allolactose

d) cAMP

e) anti-lac repressor antibody

f) anti-CAP antibody

1. Which of the following is an example of sensitization:
You blink each time your eye doctor gives you a puff of air in your eyes.
A dog was hit by his previous owner, and now the dog cowers each time his new owner reaches out to pet him.
You no longer feel your shirt touching your skin.
You're walking on the sidewalk and a bicyclist almost hits you, so you jump out of the way.

Answers

The example of sensitization from the given alternatives is that 'A dog was hit by his previous owner, and now the dog cowers each time his new owner reaches out to pet him.'

Sensitization refers to the process in which an organism becomes more sensitive to stimuli, both good and bad. It happens when the body's nervous system becomes oversensitized to a particular stimulus that it begins to respond even to weaker or non-threatening stimuli.

The example given in the first option refers to a simple reflex action that occurs in response to the puff of air that is blown into the eyes during the eye examination. The third option is about sensory adaptation, which occurs when sensory receptors are exposed to stimuli for an extended period, resulting in a reduction in sensitivity. The fourth option refers to the fight or flight response that occurs as a result of a threatening stimulus, in which an individual's body prepares to confront or flee from danger.

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Help please i will give you brain list ​

Help please i will give you brain list

Answers

The two main properties of sound are frequency and amplitude. The frequency of the sound waves determines the pitch of the sound. The amplitude of sound determines the loudness. The quality of sound is affected by the pitch and the loudness.

Answer:

The two main properties of sound are frequency and amplitude. Frequency of sound waves is responsible for determining the pitch of sound. Amplitude however, will determine its loudness. Your sound quality is always affected by  the loudness and pitch.

Hope this helps

Why C-14 would not be useful for dating something from the Precambrian?

Answers

Because carbon-14 (C-14) dating is only helpful for very recent materials, generally up to around 50,000 years old, it cannot be used to date objects from the Precambrian epoch.

Thus, between 4.6 billion and 541 million years ago is the Precambrian epoch. This is due to the fact that C-14 dating is only useful for materials that are very recent, often up to 50,000 years old.

Through interactions with cosmic rays, the atmosphere produces the radioactive isotope C-14, which is then ingested by living things through the food chain. C-14 is not useful for dating items that are millions or billions of years old because of its 5,730-year half-life.

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In what ways do plants and animals depend on each other?

Answers

Answer:

plants provide shelter and air for the animals

and when animals die they decompose and become fertilizer for the plant

Which autonomic system is most likely to be dominant while someone is experiencing stress about an upcoming job interview?

the peripheral nervous system
the sympathetic nervous system
the somatic nervous system
the parasympathetic nervous system

Answers

B) The Sympathetic Nervous System

Explanation:

I got it right on edj :)

Answer:

Sympathetic nevous system

Explanation:

I got it right on a edge (2021)  bio quiz

Starvation hunting accidents predators exposure and disease are all factors which do what.

Answers

According to the research, the correct option is limit wildlife populations. Starvation, hunting accidents, predators, exposure and disease are all factors that limit wildlife populations.

What are factors that limit wildlife populations?

The limiting factors are the environmental or ecological factors that act directly on the living beings of wildlife populations, limiting their size, of all the environmental factors, it is frequent that only one limits the growth of the crop.

Within each ecosystem, organisms and wildlife populations maintain a complex set of relationships with other individuals of their own species where the factors that are the components of the environment that directly influence these organisms are:

Starvation

Hunting accidents

Predators

Exposure

Diseases

Therefore, we can conclude that according to the research, the correct option is limit wildlife populations. Starvation, hunting accidents, predators, exposure and disease are all factors that limit wildlife populations.

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Which two of the following statements about protein synthesis are FALSE? Proteins are always translated as linear polypeptides, beginning from the amino terminus, but may be cleaved or joined afterward. The sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide is specified by ribosomal RNA. The sequence information in proteins can be transferred back into DNA by reverse transcriptase. According to the "sequence hypothesis", the structure and properties of a protein are determined by its primary amino-acid sequence. In eukaryotic cells, polypeptide synthesis takes place on ribosomes in the cytoplasm. ОО Genes and the polypeptides they encode are colinear: that is, the order of missense mutations in a recombination map is the same as the order of the affected amino acids.

Answers

False statements of protein synthesis are: The sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide is specified by ribosomal RNA.  According to the "sequence hypothesis", the structure and properties of a protein are determined by its primary amino acid sequence. The eukaryotic cells always carry out polypeptide synthesis on ribosomes located in the cytoplasm.

Proteins are always translated as linear polypeptides, beginning from the amino terminus, but may be cleaved or joined afterward, and the sequence information in proteins can be transferred back into DNA by reverse transcriptase.

Explanation: Protein synthesis is the process by which cells manufacture proteins. It is initiated by DNA in the nucleus and can be modified during translation. The process has two main stages: transcription, during which the DNA sequence of a gene is transcribed into mRNA, and translation, during which the nucleotide sequence of the mRNA determines the amino acid sequence of a protein.

False statements:1. The sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide is specified by ribosomal RNA. The correct statement is that the sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide is determined by the sequence of nucleotides in mRNA.

2. According to the "sequence hypothesis", the structure and properties of a protein are determined by its primary amino acid sequence. The correct statement is that according to the "sequence hypothesis," the structure and properties of a protein are determined by its tertiary structure, not by its primary amino acid sequence.

3. The eukaryotic cells always carry out polypeptide synthesis on ribosomes located in the cytoplasm. The correct statement is that ribosomes in eukaryotic cells can be found in both the cytoplasm and the endoplasmic reticulum (ER). They may translate proteins destined for the cytoplasm or for the lumen of the ER or secretory pathway. Thus, two of the given statements are false.

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Please help me

What determines if an ocean current is warm or cold- short answer

THIS IS SCIENCE PLEASE HELP ME I GIVE BRAINYLIST

Answers

Answer:

Currents originating in low latitudes near the equator tend to carry warmer water. Currents originating in high latitudes near the north or south pole tend to carry colder water.

Explanation:

Brainiest please

Which type of relationship is formed when a Julia butterfly drinks a spectacled caiman's tears?

commensal

mutualistic

parasitic


Answers

The relationship formed when a Julia butterfly drinks the tears of a spectacled caiman is known as mutualism.

Mutualism is a type of symbiotic relationship in which both organisms benefit from the association happening in-between.

In this case, the Julia butterfly obtains sodium and other minerals that are essential for its survival and reproduction, which are not readily available in the nectar of flowers that it typically feeds on. The spectacled caiman benefits from the presence of the butterflies, as they help to remove excess salt from the caiman's eyes and keep them clean.

This mutualism relationship is not that common and is observed in only a few species of butterflies and reptiles and is considered a rare type of mutualism.

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What is the purpose of using genetic engineering to develop edible vaccines?
O to make vaccines that are capable lasting years in the body to prevent future infections
O to diminish negative side effects that may occur from administering vaccines with syringes
O to enhance the flavor of vaccines so people are more likely to use them
O to prevent widespread diseases in developing countries without using syringes

Answers

Answer:

D

Explanation:

The purpose of using genetic engineering to develop edible vaccines is to prevent widespread diseases in developing countries without using syringes.

What is  genetic engineering?

Genetic engineering is the manipulation of genetic material in an organism to achieve a desired trait or characteristic. This is done by modifying the DNA sequence of an organism or by transferring genetic material from one organism to another.

Genetic engineering has numerous applications, including the development of genetically modified crops that are resistant to pests or able to grow in harsh environments, the production of medicines and vaccines using genetically modified organisms, and the creation of transgenic animals used in scientific research.

However, there are also concerns about the safety and ethical implications of genetic engineering, particularly when it involves modifying the genes of humans or the release of genetically modified organisms into the environment.

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Please help meeeeeeeeeweewwwwweeeeee

Please help meeeeeeeeeweewwwwweeeeee

Answers

Answer:

the answers are D, E and G

Explanation:

You and your physiology instructor are trapped in an overturned ship. To escape, you must swim underwater a long distance. You tell your instructor it would be a good idea to hyperventilate before making the escape attempt. Your instructor calmly replies, "What good would that do, since your pulmonary capillaries are already 100% saturated with oxygen?" What would you do and why?

Answers

In this scenario, hyperventilation would be counterproductive as the pulmonary capillaries are already 100% saturated with oxygen.

Hyperventilation would actually decrease the amount of carbon dioxide in the blood, causing the blood pH to rise, leading to respiratory alkalosis and even unconsciousness. Therefore, the instructor is correct in advising against hyperventilation before attempting to swim underwater a long distance. Instead, it would be better to take a few deep breaths and then start swimming underwater.

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Consider the diagram that depicts the lysogenic and lytic cycles.

The steps of the lysogenic cycle are shown. In Step A, attachment and entry occurs. In step B, the provirus is formed. In step C, the cell begins to divide. In step D, the provirus leaves. In step E, the virus is replicated and assembled. In step F, lysis and release of the virus occurs.

In which step of the diagram are new viruses assembled?
step B
step C
step E
step F

Answers

The diagram is not given in the question, so the diagram is attached below: Answer:

step E

Explanation:

The viruses are assembled in Step E.

The assembly of the virus occurs in nucleus or cytoplasm of host cell. In step D, viral components of virus are synthesized and in the next step E, The viral component assembled into mature virus.

Hence, the correct option is "Step E".

Consider the diagram that depicts the lysogenic and lytic cycles.The steps of the lysogenic cycle are

Answer:

C. step E

Explanation:

just took the test from E D G E and got 100% :D

hope this helps ya'll

a(n) is a neuron that carries infromation from the external environment or from the body, back to the central nervous system

Answers

A sensory neuron is a neuron that carries information from the external environment or from the body, back to the central nervous system.

When you contact a hot surface with your fingertips, your sensory neurons will fire and transmit messages to the rest of your nervous system about the information they have just received. Sensory neurons are the nerve cells that are activated by sensory input from the environment. The brain obtains information from sensory neurons thus allowing us to sense, touch, see, smell. The brain interprets the information and sends the instruction back to the muscled using motor neurons and thus allowing us to act accordingly.

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3.
A
C
What effect does fertilizer have on plant growth? Identify the correct step from the choices
below.
ask a question
collect the data
B
draw conclusions
state the hypothesis

Answers

If the amount of fertilizer applied to plants is increased, then plant growth will increase.

Since out here the independent variable is the variable that's being controlled or changed on reason by the experimenter, It can moreover be thought of as the cause is the fertilizer and the dependent variable is which is the one dependent on the independent variable is the growth of the plant. Here the hypothesis for an observable phenomenon is a proposed explanation or a theory to be utilized in science, one must be able to test it within the frame of a test.  A logical examination is planned to test this hypothesis. Here the Hypothesis is that  If the amount of fertilizer applied to plants is increased, then plant growth  will increase.

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epigenetic changes may be ___ but they aren't necessarily ___​

Answers

Epigenetic changes may be inherited but they aren't necessarily reshaped.

What do you mean by epigenetic changes?

Epigenetics is the study of stable phenotypic changes that do not involve alterations in the DNA sequence. The epigenetics implies features that are "on top of" or "in addition to" the traditional genetic basis for inheritance.

Several lifestyle factors have been identified that might modify epigenetic patterns, such as diet, obesity, physical activity, tobacco smoking, alcohol consumption, environmental pollutants.

Epigenetic modifications are heritable chemical or physical changes in chromatin. There are two types of epigenetic modifications – DNA methylation and histone modifications.

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tropical grasslands with scattered trees are also known as select one: a. taigas. b. tundras. c. chaparrals. d. savannas. e. temperate plains.

Answers

Tropical grasslands with scattered trees are also known as d. savannas. Grasslands are large open areas dominated by grasses and have few or no trees. When you find a tropical grassland with scattered trees, it is referred to as a savanna.

Savannahs are grassland ecosystems characterized by scattered trees and a dry climate. They are found in tropical and subtropical regions, particularly in Africa, South America, and Australia. Savannahs are typically dominated by grasses, which are adapted to the dry conditions and periodic wildfires that are common in these ecosystems. The grasses provide food for grazing animals such as zebras, antelopes, and buffalo, which in turn are preyed upon by predators such as lions, hyenas, and cheetahs. Savannahs also support a variety of other plant and animal species, including shrubs, small trees, and a diverse array of insects and birds. The scattered trees in savannahs provide shade and habitat for animals, and also help to regulate the water cycle by reducing evaporation and increasing water infiltration into the soil.

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during cell injury caused by hypoxia, why is there an increase in the osmotic pressure within the cell?

Answers

Due to entry of sodium inside the cell, during cell injury caused by hypoxia, there an increase in the osmotic pressure within the cell.

Moving fluid and ions into the cell causes immediate failure of metabolism and a reduction in ATP synthesis in hypoxic damage. Normally, the active-transport enzyme ATPase and the presence of ATP maintain the pump that removes sodium ions from the cell. Reduced ATP and ATPase levels enable sodium to accumulate in the cell while potassium diffuses outward in metabolic failure brought on by hypoxia. More water is drawn into the cell when osmotic pressure rises as intracellular sodium levels rise. The other choices fall short of adequately describing the cell damage brought on by hypoxia, which leads to an increase in osmotic pressure.

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What might plant cells do with the sugars made during photosynthesis?

Answers

"What Are Plant Cells?"

_____________________________

Plant cells are the basic unit of life in organisms of the kingdom Plantae. They are eukaryotic cells, which have a true nucleus along with specialized structures called organelles that carry out different functions. Plant cells have special organelles called chloroplasts, which create sugars during the process of photosynthesis.Plants use the energy of the sun to change water and carbon dioxide into a sugar called glucose. Glucose is used by plants for energy and to make other substances like cellulose and starch. Cellulose is used in building cell walls, meanwhile starch is stored in seeds and other plant parts as a food source.

In conclusion to this, it is likely that once the plant cells have forged the sugars during photosynthesis, they will send the necessary amount of sugars to the mitochondria, where in which it will be broken down to produce energy (ATP).

^(NOTE)^: Mitochondrion (mi-to-chon-dri-on) is an organelle found in large numbers in most cells, in which the biochemical processes of respiration and energy production occur. It has a double membrane, the inner layer being folded inward to form layers (cristae).

________________________________________________________

Hope this helps!


How does the Digestive system help to maintain


A. Allow organisms to pass on life

B. Act as structure and support for the body

C. Break down food a form our cells can use and absorb

Answers

Answer:

C.

Explanation:

The digestive system allows our body to break down the foods we eat, so that we can get the nutrients from it!

Hope this helps!!

The answer is C.


The digestive system is a series of organs that convert food into essential nutrients, and moves unwanted waste out.


hopes this helps,, have a great day :))

The pedigree below depicts a dominant trait. What is the genotype of individual I-1 (use the letter A for a dominant allele and a for a recessive allele)? How did you come to this conclusion? Using your best grammar, write 3-5 sentences.

The pedigree below depicts a dominant trait. What is the genotype of individual I-1 (use the letter A

Answers

Individual I-1 is heterozygous (Aa) for the dominant trait. This is because they have a child (II-1) who is homozygous recessive (aa). The only way for this to happen is if individual I-1 is heterozygous.

What is the conclusion on the pedigree?

Pedigree analysis: A pedigree is a diagram that shows the inheritance of a trait from parents to offspring. In this pedigree, the dominant trait is represented by a solid symbol and the recessive trait is represented by an open symbol.

Genotype: The genotype of an individual is their genetic makeup, or the combination of alleles that they have for a particular trait. The phenotype of an individual is their physical appearance, which is determined by their genotype and the environment.

Heterozygous: An individual is heterozygous for a trait if they have one dominant allele and one recessive allele. This means that they have the potential to express the dominant trait, but they may also express the recessive trait if they are in an environment that is not favorable for the dominant trait.

Homozygous: An individual is homozygous for a trait if they have two copies of the same allele for that trait. This means that they will always express the trait, regardless of the environment.

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How could the loss of biodiversity affect humans?

How could the loss of biodiversity affect humans?

Answers

The loss of biodiversity could affect humans by leading to the loss of potential medicine, foods and products and is therefore denoted as option B.

What is Biodiversity?

This refers to the variations which exists between organisms which are present in different types of ecosystem.

Lack of variation means there will be shortage of organisms which have differences in their traits or features. This isn't ideal because these differences may be as a result of natural selection which makes them fitter therefore having more beneficial properties.

These are therefore the most appropriate ways in which the loss of biodiversity affect humans.

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when a bacterium acquires a trait from its temperate phage, it is called

Answers

When a bacterium acquires a trait from its temperate phage, it is called lysogenic conversion. This process occurs during the lysogenic cycle of the bacteriophage life cycle.

A temperate phage is a type of virus that can infect bacterial cells by integrating its genetic material into the bacterial genome. During lysogenic conversion, the bacteriophage's DNA or RNA is incorporated into the host bacterium's genome, leading to the transmission of new traits to the bacterium. This exchange of genetic material can result in the bacterium gaining new capabilities, such as enhanced resistance to environmental factors, improved virulence, or the production of toxins.


This process has significant implications for bacterial evolution and adaptation, as it enables the rapid acquisition of advantageous traits. Additionally, lysogenic conversion can have consequences for human health, as it can contribute to the emergence of more virulent bacterial strains and antibiotic resistance. In summary, lysogenic conversion is the process through which a bacterium acquires a trait from its temperate phage, leading to the transmission of new capabilities and potential implications for bacterial evolution and human health.

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what is the name of the divisions that separate monokaryotic hyphae? a. mycelia b. zygospore c. haustoria d. septa

Answers

The name of the divisions that separate monokaryotic hyphae is (d) septa.

Septa are cross-walls that partition the hyphal structure of fungi, dividing the filamentous structure into distinct compartments. These septa provide structural support, enable the regulation of cellular content, and facilitate the proper distribution of organelles and nutrients. Monokaryotic hyphae are hyphal filaments containing only one nucleus per cell compartment.

In contrast, the other terms mentioned are not divisions that separate monokaryotic hyphae. (a) Mycelia refers to the entire mass of hyphal filaments forming the vegetative structure of a fungus and (b) zygospore represents a resting spore produced during sexual reproduction in certain fungi. (c) Haustoria are specialized structures that fungi use to penetrate and extract nutrients from their host organisms. In summary, septa serve as the dividing partitions in monokaryotic hyphae, providing structural and functional organization within the fungal network, so the correct answer is (d) septa.

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which of the following structures is not part of the external ear? question 17 options: tympanic membrane pinna pharyngotympanic tube external acoustic meatus

Answers

The pharyngotympanic tube is not part of the external ear.

The external ear is the visible portion of the ear that is located on the outside of the head. It is made up of several structures, including the pinna, external acoustic meatus, and tympanic membrane. However, the pharyngotympanic tube is not part of the external ear.

The pharyngotympanic tube, also known as the Eustachian tube, is a small tube that connects the middle ear to the nasopharynx (the upper part of the throat that is located behind the nose). It is responsible for equalizing the air pressure between the middle ear and the outside environment, which is necessary for proper hearing and balance.

When you swallow or yawn, the muscles in your throat open the pharyngotympanic tube, allowing air to flow into or out of the middle ear. This helps to equalize the pressure on both sides of the tympanic membrane (eardrum), which is a thin membrane that separates the middle ear from the external ear.

The pinna, or auricle, is the visible part of the external ear that is located on the side of the head. It is made up of cartilage covered by skin and serves to collect and direct sound waves into the ear canal.

The external acoustic meatus, also known as the ear canal, is a narrow, tube-like structure that extends from the pinna to the tympanic membrane. It is lined with tiny hairs and wax-producing gland that help to protect the delicate structures of the middle ear from damage and infection.

The tympanic membrane is a thin, circular membrane that separates the middle ear from the external ear. It vibrates in response to sound waves and transmits these vibrations to the three small bones of the middle ear, which amplify the sound and transmit it to the inner ear.

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Final answer:

Among the options provided, the pharyngotympanic tube is not part of the external ear. The external ear comprises the pinna and the external acoustic meatus, while the tympanic membrane marks the boundary between the external and middle ear. The pharyngotympanic tube, part of the middle ear, links the middle ear to the pharynx.

Explanation:

The structure that is not part of the external ear among the options provided is the pharyngotympanic tube. The external ear consists of the pinna (the visible part of the ear), and the external acoustic meatus (ear canal). The tympanic membrane (ear drum) is considered the boundary between the external and middle ear. The pharyngotympanic tube, also known as the Eustachian tube, is part of the middle ear, not the external ear. It connects the middle ear to the pharynx (throat) and helps equalize pressure in the middle ear.

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Why is it inappropriate to treat a cold with penicillin erythromycin or ciprofloxacin?

Answers

It is inappropriate to treat common cold with penicillin erythromycin or ciprofloxacin because they are antibiotics and won't be effective against viruses.

The flu or common cold is caused by a virus. Penicillin erythromycin and ciprofloxacin are under a group of drugs called antibiotics. Antibiotics are only used to fight bacterial infection, therefore using it against viral diseases like cholera or common cold would produce no effect.

Excessive use of antibiotics, especially when it is not needed can also lead to antibiotic resistance. This occurs when bacteria become resistant to certain antibiotics due to genetic mutation.

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what is chewing the cud mean?​

Answers

Answer:

When animals like cows or sheep chew the cud, they repeat the process of chewing their partially digested meal over and again in their mouth before swallowing it.

OAmalOHope:

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