Answers
The client that is most appropriate for the new nurse is primigravida in active phase of stage one, waiting for epidural. The correct option is 3.
What is epidural?An epidural is a back injection that relieves pain in a specific area of your body.
Epidural anesthesia is a type of epidural commonly used to relieve pain during childbirth and some types of surgery.
The primigravida provides numerous opportunities for basic and diverse skills that would be extremely beneficial to a new nurse.
This is the best client to work for because it will give you valuable experience with basic labor and delivery procedures.
Thus, the correct option is 3.
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Your question seems incomplete, the missing options are:
1. A gravida 3 para 2 in active phase of stage one, expecting twins.
2. A gravida 2 para 0 at 41 weeks gestation, awaiting induction.
3. A primigravida in active phase of stage one, waiting for epidural.
4. A 12-hour post Cesarean section needing assistance to ambulate.
Related Questions
pertaining to the chest med term
Answers
Answer:
Thoratic
Explanation:
The nurse is assessing an older adult client who is having difficulty with mobility. assessment reveals that the client has stiff and awkward muscle movements. the nurse identifies this as?
Answers
The nurse identifies this as spasticity.
What is nursing assessment?Nursing assessment is defined as the systematic and a professional way a nurse uses to gather information about the well being of a patient.
The information that is gathered from the patient may include the following:
physiological, psychological, sociological, and spiritual status of the patient.The assessment that reveals stiff and awkward muscle movement can be identified by the nurse as spasticity.
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a nurse is assessing a client receiving tube feedings and suspects dumping syndrome. what would lead the nurse to suspect this? select all that apply.
Answers
Tachycardia, Diarrhea, Diaphoresis can lead the nurse to suspect this syndrome
Tactile signs such as tachycardia, feeling hot, sweating, nausea, diarrhea, and other hyperglycemic symptoms may be present in the diagnosis of dumping syndrome. A condition known as "dumping syndrome" occurs when food, particularly sugar, moves too quickly from the stomach to the duodenum. Another name for it is fast gastric emptying. It might be one of the side effects of a stomach or esophageal operation. It might be a later dumping that takes place 2 to 3 hours after a meal or an early dumping that occurs 10 to 30 minutes after a meal.
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complete question:
a nurse is assessing a client receiving tube feedings and suspects dumping syndrome. what would lead the nurse to suspect this? select all that apply.
Tachycardia
Diarrhea
Diaphoresis
29. How are bloodborne disease being transmitted *
Answers
Answer:
Bloodborne pathogens such as HBV and HIV can be transmitted through contact with infected human blood and other potentially infectious body fluids such as: semen. vaginal secretions. cerebrospinal fluid.
Explanation:
Answer:
Bloodborne pathogens such as HBV and HIV can be transmitted through contact with infected human blood and other potentially infectious body fluids such as: semen. vaginal secretions. cerebrospinal fluid.
The nurse made an error in documenting
nurse use for correcting a documentation
a patient's care. Which method would the
error in a paper chart?
Answers
Given that the nurse has made this error the way that she would be able to take care of the documentation error would be to draw a single line across the error she made along with her initials then she would follow through with the correct details.
What is meant by documentation error?This is the term that is used to refer to the error that the nurse would make while trying to write on what should be the information as it concerns a patient and the medication that they are to adhere to.
When she makes such an error she has to take the measure above before she would go ahead to do the right thing on paper. The nurse has to change this so that she would be able to communicate what is to be the correct information to the right people. If she keeps it as it was without corrections, she would be sending the wrong messages and this may bring confusions as well as misunderstanding.
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which of the following is the most widespread cause of death among smokers?
Answers
The following is the most widespread cause of death among smokers:
Lung cancer is the most widespread cause of death among smokers. This growth can be slow and may not cause symptoms for many years. Eventually, the cancer cells can form tumors and spread to other parts of the body.
Lung cancer is the most prevalent and dangerous type of cancer. The lungs, which are two organs in your chest that aid in breathing, are affected by it. The primary cause of lung cancer is smoking, which may damage the cells that line the lungs.
The following is a list of some symptoms of lung cancer: Having difficulty breathing or wheezing A persistent cough Coughing up phlegm or blood Chest discomfort that is constant or gets worse if you smoke, the best way to prevent lung cancer is to stop. If you stop smoking before the age of 40, you can significantly lower your risk of dying from a smoking-related disease. Lung cancer is a condition that affects the lungs. It is caused by the growth of abnormal cells in the lungs.
This growth can be slow and may not cause symptoms for many years. Eventually, the cancer cells can form tumors and spread to other parts of the body.
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9. What advantage is there to having "blind" subjects in an experiment?
O The subjects know what groups they are in, so they can behave the way the experimenter predicts.
There is no subject bias because they do not know which group they belong to.
There is no experimenter bias because they do not know which groups the subjects belong to.
The experimenter will not know the role of each of the members of the experiment.
Answers
Answer:
There is no subject bias because they do not know which group they belong to.
Explanation:
Alcohol, marijuana, cocaine, and a wide variety of other chemical agents that alter perceptions and moods are called.
Answers
Answer: Psychoactive Drugs
Explanation:
Analyse the negative effect of people’s personal views about infectious diseases on the health and safety of people?
Answers
Answer:
The negative effects of people’s personal views about infectious diseases on the health and safety of people are numerous and far-reaching. Such views can lead to complacency and a false sense of security, resulting in people failing to take appropriate preventative measures. For example, people may fail to get vaccinated, or they may not take adequate safety precautions when visiting areas deemed high risk. These attitudes also lead to a lack of public trust in health care professionals and a reluctance to seek medical advice when it is necessary. Furthermore, these views can be discriminatory and can lead to stigmatization and marginalization of individuals who have contracted an infectious disease, or are perceived to have done so. This can have a serious impact on their mental and physical health, as well as their ability to socialize and take part in society. Ultimately, it is essential that people understand the facts and risks associated with infectious diseases, and that they adopt the necessary health and safety protocols in order to protect themselves and others.
Dr. Diwan wants Kay’s prescription to only be filled once. Which abbreviated instruction should Dr. Diwan include on her prescription?
NR
NPO
D.A.W.
e.m.p.
Answers
Answer:
NR
Definition-
NR-- no refill; this means that a prescription can be filled only once
Answer:
NR
Explanation:
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erik is a 5 yo child that presents with one golden-crusted lesion at the site of an insect bite. it is consistent with impetigo. which medication would be the first line choice for treatment?
Answers
Erik, a 5-year-old boy, shows up with a single golden-crusted lesion where an insect attacked him. The first-line medication for treating impetigo in children is topical mupirocin 2% ointment.
Mupirocin is a topical antibiotic that is effective against the bacteria commonly responsible for impetigo, including Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes.
It is important to note that, in addition to medication, good hygiene practices such as frequent hand washing, keeping the affected area clean, and not sharing personal items like towels or clothes can also help prevent the spread of impetigo.A particular class of antimicrobial agent that works against bacteria is an antibiotic.
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6. CPG 101 V2 includes a six-step planning process. These steps include all of the following EXCEPT:
Answers
The Consumer Products Good (CPG) 101 V2 is the FDA guideline that provides the basic requirements and best practices for good manufacturing practices (GMPs) for the manufacturing of human food, animal food, dietary supplements, and cosmetics.
These guidelines provide a reference for manufacturers to follow to ensure that their products meet the required quality standards and are safe for human consumption. The six-step planning process of CPG 101 V2 includes:
Step 1: Preliminary Steps
Step2: Scope
Step 3: Hazard Analysis
Step 4: Preventive Controls
Step 5: Verification
Step 6: Record-keeping and Documentation
The steps mentioned above outline the CPG 101 V2's planning process, which ensures the production of safe, high-quality food products.
The FDA requires all food manufacturers to implement these steps to ensure that the products are manufactured under suitable conditions, maintain quality, and are free from contaminants. However, the six-step planning process of CPG 101 V2 does not include identifying the location of the production facility. Although, manufacturers should ensure that the facility they choose meets the requirement of FDA's good manufacturing practice.
Therefore, the step excluded from the planning process is to identify the location of the production facility. The six-step planning process is a robust guide for manufacturers to produce safe food products that meet the quality standards.
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All pandemics are caused by infectious virus or bacteria that cross from animals to humansa. Trueb. False
Answers
Answer:
False, not all viruses are zoonotic diseases. Some originate within the human body such as influenza type a
Explanation:
anti-inflammatory drugs used to treat musculoskeletal disorders are primarily nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs or nsaids. a special category of nsaids is the cox-2 inhibitor that also has antipyretic properties and does not pose the bleeding risks of other nsaids. match the terms concerning nsaids.
Answers
Non-steroidal anti inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) with category COX-2 inhibitors and with lowest bleeding risk is Celecoxib.
Celecoxib is in a class of NSAIDs called COX-2 inhibitors. It works by stopping the body's production of a substance that causes pain and inflammation. Celecoxib is used to relieve pain, tenderness, swelling and stiffness in musculoskeletal caused by osteoarthritis (arthritis caused by a breakdown of the lining of the joints), rheumatoid arthritis (arthritis caused by swelling of the lining of the joints), and ankylosing spondylitis (arthritis that mainly affects the spine).
The most clinically relevant finding is that, among all NSAID subtypes, cardiovascular and bleeding risks were lowest with celecoxib.
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what is the most common blood type?
Answers
Answer:
type b
Explanation:
Answer:
b
Explanation:
Which of the following are ways in which masks help prevent the spread of 5 points
viruses? (Select all that apply.) *
A Masks catch respiratory droplets before they evaporate, preventing them from
becoming microdroplets that can be easily carried through the air.
B. Masks reroute droplets to the sides of a person's face.
C. Masks reduce the momentum of droplets they don't catch.
D. Masks prevent us from breathing as deeply, making us produce fewer droplets.
Answers
The word stem -meter means instrument used to
The word stem electr(o) means
Answers
Answer:
Measure
Electricity
light
radiant energy
sound
Explanation:
Why does a director of radiology thinks he’s in this leadership
position?
Answers
The director of radiology thinks he’s in this leadership position because he is in charge of a department that is vital to a hospital's functionality, has several years of experience in radiology, and has a leadership role within the hospital.
Radiology is a medical speciality that deals with diagnosing and treating illnesses and disorders using medical imaging techniques such as X-rays, computed tomography (CT), and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). It is a complex and technology-driven field that necessitates a high level of training and skill.
The director of radiology thinks he’s in this leadership position because he is responsible for overseeing the department that is critical to a hospital's functionality. Radiology is an essential component of modern healthcare, and the director is responsible for ensuring that the department functions efficiently and effectively. The director is responsible for managing the hospital's diagnostic imaging equipment, ensuring that they are kept in good working order, and managing the staff who operate the equipment.
He has several years of experience in radiology, and his expertise in this field makes him uniquely qualified to lead the radiology department. He can provide guidance and support to other staff members in the department, as well as oversee their work.
As a result, the director of radiology holds a leadership position within the hospital, which is critical to its success.
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Case Study 3 – Consent
A 14-year-old youth suffering depression does not want to discuss his problems with his parents. He seeks help from a community health centre. On his first visit he is provided with counselling and asked to return for a second visit where the possibility of medication will be discussed. He is reassured that his parents do not have to be involved if he does not want them to be. Researchers from the centre are looking for people to take part in a study that will find out if a new investigational drug can help in the treatment of depression. They invite the fourteen-year-old to participate in the randomised controlled trial. The researchers say that parental consent is not needed for the 14-year-old to access treatment so they do not need to obtain parental consent for him to participate in the research.
Questions
Is the researcher’s view correct?
Does it depend on the nature of the reasarch?
Answers
Hopefully this helped! :)
the nurse is preparing to administer a flu shot to an adult client. how would the nurse proceed? place the steps in sequential order. all options must be used.
Answers
To administer a flu shot to an adult client, the nurse follows these steps: verify the client's identity, explain the procedure and obtain informed consent, prepare the equipment, cleanse the injection site, administer the flu shot, dispose of the syringe properly, provide aftercare instructions, and document the administration for record-keeping purposes.
Administering a flu shot to an adult client involves several sequential steps. Here are the steps the nurse would typically follow:
1. Verify the client's identity: The nurse ensures that the client's identification matches the prescribed flu shot and confirms any allergies or contraindications.
2. Explain the procedure: The nurse communicates the purpose and benefits of the flu shot to the client, addressing any concerns or questions they may have.
3. Obtain informed consent: The nurse ensures that the client understands the risks and benefits of the flu shot and obtains their written consent to proceed.
4. Prepare the equipment: The nurse gathers the necessary supplies, including the flu vaccine, syringe, alcohol swab, cotton balls, and adhesive bandage.
5. Position the client: The nurse asks the client to expose their upper arm and positions them comfortably, ensuring good access to the injection site.
6. Cleanse the injection site: The nurse cleanses the injection site with an alcohol swab, using a circular motion from the center outward.
7. Administer the flu shot: The nurse uses a quick and smooth motion to insert the needle into the muscle of the client's upper arm at a 90-degree angle, aspirating if necessary, and then slowly injects the vaccine.
8. Dispose of the syringe: The nurse carefully places the used syringe in a sharps container or another appropriate disposal container.
9. Provide aftercare instructions: The nurse advises the client on possible side effects, such as soreness at the injection site, and provides instructions on managing them. They may also suggest actions to take if any adverse reactions occur.
10. Document the administration: The nurse records the details of the flu shot administration, including the date, time, vaccine lot number, site of injection, and any adverse reactions.
Following these steps ensures a safe and effective administration of the flu shot, while maintaining the client's comfort and providing accurate documentation for future reference.
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a client with polycythemia vera reports gouty arthritis symptoms in the toes and fingers. what is the nurse's best understanding of the pathophysiological reason for this symptom?
Answers
Symptoms of limp polycythemia vera are fatigue, dizziness or headache, blurred vision, nosebleeds, excessive sweating, difficulty breathing, itching, numbness in the hands or feet, and skin turning red. If symptoms of gouty arthritis occur, there may be an increase in uric acid.
Polycythemia vera is a blood disorder that causes the body to produce too many red blood cells. This disorder occurs due to malignancy of the growing blood cells when the bone marrow produces too many red blood cells.
Increased levels of uric acid in the blood (hyperuricemia) are a major factor in the occurrence of gouty arthritis. Problems will arise if monosodium urate (MSU) crystals form in the joints and surrounding tissues.
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benzocaine topical is prescribed to decrease pain or discomfort caused by minor skin irritations,sunburn,teething pain, and so forth if you diluted 145 ml of a 18% benzocaine lotion 6% how much could you produce
Answers
(145x18)/6 = 435ml
22. The Rotavirus vaccine can have
effect.
Answers
Rotavirus vaccine have Side effects are rare, usually mild, and may include fussiness, diarrhea, and vomiting.
Rotavirus vaccine Infants and young children are more susceptible to the rotavirus. In addition to vomiting, fever, and severe watery diarrhea, the virus can also cause stomach pain. Children who contract the rotavirus illness may become dehydrated and require hospitalization. To guard against rotavirus sickness, the CDC advises newborns to receive rotavirus vaccination. In the United States, there are now two rotavirus vaccinations that are approved for use in infants. RotaTeq® (RV5) is administered in three doses at ages 2 months, 4 months, and 6 months. Two doses of Rotarix® (RV1) are administered at two and four months of age.To learn more about Rotavirus vaccine refer :
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Peter has a vitamin deficiency, a skin problem, brain damage, and a chronic liver problem due to his chronic substance abuse of which drug?
Answers
Answer:
Alcohol
Explanation:
I hope that thos helps.
Mr. J. underwent a repair of a torn biceps brachii 2 days ago. During passive ROM exercises, which combination of motions should you avoid at end range to protect (not disrupt) the healing tissue?
A) Elbow extension, shoulder extension, forearm supination
B) Elbow extension, shoulder flexion, forearm pronation
C) Elbow extension shoulder flexion, forearm supination
D) Elbow extension shoulder extension, forearm pronation
Answers
To protect the healing tissue after a repair of a torn biceps brachii, during passive range of motion (ROM) exercises, you should avoid the combination of motions described in option (C): Elbow extension, shoulder flexion, forearm supination.
The biceps brachii muscle is responsible for flexing the elbow, flexing the shoulder, and supinating the forearm. After a surgical repair of a torn biceps brachii, it is essential to avoid excessive tension or stress on the healing tissue to promote proper healing and prevent disruption.
During passive ROM exercises, where the joint is moved by an external force, the combination of elbow extension, shoulder flexion, and forearm supination places tension on the repaired biceps brachii tendon. Elbow extension and shoulder flexion activate the biceps brachii, while forearm supination further engages the muscle and places additional strain on the healing tissue.
Avoiding these end-range motions helps protect the healing tissue by minimizing tension and stress on the repaired area. It allows the tendon to heal without excessive strain and promotes optimal recovery.
By following proper precautions and avoiding movements that stress the healing tissue, rehabilitation can proceed in a manner that supports healing and restoration of normal function in the biceps brachii muscle.
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DID I CLICK THE RIGHT ONE
help me lord
Answers
Answer:
the answer is A
Explanation:
Hope this helps
Upon arriving at the scene, investigators find what appears to be a typical case of arson. What type of substance are they most likely to look for remnants of?
Answers
Answer:
Accelerants
Explanation:
Answer:
Accelerants
Explanation:
Accelerants are substances used to aid the spread of fire. They are commonly used in arson cases.
the nurse is preparing a patient for surgery to correct an age-related cataract of the left eye. which nursing assessments are appropriate for this patient?
Answers
Appropriate nursing assessment for patients who will undergo cataract surgery is to perform ratiometric, biometric, and specular microscope examinations.
What are cataracts?Cataracts are a disease when the lens of the eye becomes cloudy and cloudy.
The most common cause of cataracts is the result of aging or trauma which causes changes in the eye tissue. The lens of the eye is mostly made up of water and protein. With age, the lens becomes thicker and less flexible.
So before carrying out cataract surgery, it is necessary to carry out several studies such as Retinometry Examination, to determine the condition of the eye nerves, Specular Microscope Examination is needed to determine the condition of the cornea and a Biometric examination is needed to determine the size of the eye lens that can be implanted in the eye.
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What are longitudinal and transversal magnetizations?
Answers
Longitudinal magnetization is the component of the net magnetization vector parallel to the magnetic field (z-axis). This is due to a difference in the number of spins in parallel (low energy) and anti-parallel (high energy) state – i.e. before a radiofrequency pulse.
Transverse magnetization is the component of the net magnetization vector perpendicular to the magnetic field (x-y plane). This is due to the spins of individual protons getting more or less into phase (coherence) – i.e. after a radiofrequency pulse.
Recall and list all the different levels of organization of living things from small to big. Then match the following list of terms to their appropriate levels:
Brain
Cardiovascular
Protein
Leukocyte
Glycogen
Baby
Blood
Answers
Answer:
The 7 different levels of organization of living things from small to big are;
MoleculesOrganellesCellsTissuesOrgansOrgan systemsOrganismProtein is a Molecule that is found in many animal products are is useful in building muscle mass in the body.
Glycogen is an Organelle as it is a part of cells and performs the duty of being a carbohydrate reserve.
Leukocytes are white blood cells that help the body fight against infection.
The blood is a tissue that is made up of blood cells with the primary function of supplying oxygen and other essential substances around the body.
The brain is an organ that is in charge of well, everything we do.
The Cardiovascular system is an organ system that the blood falls under. It's purpose is to supply the body with the nutrients it needs to survive.
A baby is an organism that is beautifully made with a lot of complexity and comprises of many organ systems.