Use hot water throughout wash cycle nursing instruction is essential, the home health nurse is caring for a client with scabies. when instructing on the proper procedure to wash preworn contaminated clothing
Scabies is a skin condition brought on by human itch mites. Scabies is a cutaneous condition brought on by a human itch mite infestation (Sarcoptes scabiei var. hominis). The microscopic scabies mite burrows into the epidermis of the skin to survive and lay eggs. Severe itching and a rash that mimics pimples are the two most common symptoms of scabies.Scabies is a common ailment that can spread to other people in your home, especially in crowded areas where there may be a lot of close skin contact (like nursing homes, prisons, and child care places). Scabies can sometimes be caught via sharing bedding, towels, or clothing with an infected person.
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Lipid case study Jane went to see her medical provider to discuss the results of recent lab work: Chol: 250 mg/dl LDL: 160 mg/dl HDL: 65 mg/dl Trig: 120 mg/dl Her food recall is: Bkf: 3 eggs Din: chicken sautéed in olive oil 3 slices white toast 2 cups green salad 1 Tbsp. butter 1 cup corn oil ranch dressing 16 oz. OJ 1 small dinner roll 1 Tbsp. canola margarine Lun: sandwich: 1/2 c canned salmon 12 oz. whole milk 1 Tbsp. soybean oil mayonnaise 1 slice cheddar cheese 1 whole pita bread 1 large chocolate chip cookie Snack: 1 cup ice cream 1 oz. potato chips 12 c peanuts 12 oz. coke 1. Evaluate Jane's lab results. Name foods in Jane's food recall that contain high amounts of: 2. Essential fatty acids: 3. Saturated fat: 4. Monounsaturated fat: s. Polyunsaturated fat: 6. Trans fat: 7. Jane is at risk for what disease? Why? 8. What types of dietary fats should Jane decrease her intake of? 9. Provide lower fat food suggestions for Jane. 10. Jane was advised to eat more fiber. Why? 11. If she consumes 2200 kcals and 80 grams of fat, what is % of kcals from fat? Is this within the AMDR for fat?
Evaluation of Jane's lab results: Elevated total cholesterol and LDL cholesterol, lower HDL cholesterol, and normal triglycerides.
Foods high in essential fatty acids: Canned salmon.
Foods high in saturated fat: Butter, cheese, whole milk, ice cream, chocolate chip cookie.
Foods high in monounsaturated fat: Olive oil.
Foods high in polyunsaturated fat: Soybean oil, canola margarine.
No trans fat-containing foods mentioned.
Jane is at risk for cardiovascular disease due to her unfavorable lipid profile.
Jane should decrease intake of saturated fat.
Lower fat food suggestions: Lean proteins, plant-based oils, fruits, vegetables, whole grains.
Jane was advised to eat more fiber for various health benefits.
Percentage of calories from fat: 32.73%, falls within the AMDR for fat.
1. Evaluation of Jane's lab results: Jane's total cholesterol level is elevated at 250 mg/dl, which puts her at risk for cardiovascular disease. Her LDL cholesterol level is also high at 160 mg/dl, indicating an increased risk of plaque buildup in the arteries.
On the positive side, her HDL cholesterol level is within a desirable range at 65 mg/dl, which is beneficial for cardiovascular health. Her triglyceride level is normal at 120 mg/dl.
2. Foods high in essential fatty acids: Canned salmon is a good source of omega-3 fatty acids, which are essential for heart health and have been shown to lower cholesterol levels.
3. Foods high in saturated fat: Butter, cheese, whole milk, ice cream, and the chocolate chip cookie are all sources of saturated fat. Consuming too much saturated fat can raise LDL cholesterol levels and increase the risk of heart disease.
4. Foods high in monounsaturated fat: Olive oil is a good source of monounsaturated fat, which can help improve cholesterol levels and reduce the risk of heart disease.
5. Foods high in polyunsaturated fat: Soybean oil and canola margarine contain polyunsaturated fats, which include omega-6 fatty acids. These fats, when consumed in moderation, can have positive effects on heart health.
6. No trans fat-containing foods were mentioned in Jane's food recall. Trans fats are known to increase LDL cholesterol levels and should be avoided as much as possible.
7. Jane is at risk for cardiovascular disease. The elevated levels of total cholesterol (Chol) and LDL cholesterol, combined with a relatively low level of HDL cholesterol, indicate an unfavorable lipid profile. These factors contribute to an increased risk of developing cardiovascular disease, including conditions such as atherosclerosis, heart attack, and stroke.
8. Jane should decrease her intake of saturated fat, as it can raise LDL cholesterol levels and contribute to cardiovascular disease risk. Foods such as butter, cheese, whole milk, and high-fat desserts should be limited.
9. Lower fat food suggestions for Jane:
Choose lean protein sources like skinless poultry, fish, and legumes.
Incorporate more plant-based oils, such as olive oil or avocado oil, for cooking and salad dressings.
Increase intake of fruits, vegetables, and whole grains.
Opt for low-fat or skim milk and dairy products.
Select snacks that are lower in fat and sodium, such as fresh fruits, vegetables, or air-popped popcorn.
10. Jane was advised to eat more fiber because dietary fiber offers several health benefits. It helps maintain healthy cholesterol levels, regulates blood sugar levels, promotes healthy digestion, and contributes to a feeling of fullness, aiding in weight management.
11. To calculate the percentage of calories from fat:
Fat intake: 80 grams (1 gram of fat = 9 calories)
Total calorie intake: 2200 kcals
Calculate fat calories: 80 grams * 9 calories/gram = 720 calories from fat
Calculate percentage of calories from fat: (720 calories / 2200 calories) * 100 = 32.73%
The AMDR (Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Range) for fat is generally recommended to be 20-35% of total daily calorie intake. In this case, Jane's fat intake represents 32.73% of her total calorie intake, which falls within the recommended range for fat consumption.
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- Stimulation of these venous barorecptors results in reflex vasodilatation
However increase the heart rate!
Answer:
Baroreceptor reflexes are essential for normal cardiovascular homeostasis and ... heart rate (and cardiac output) by increasing parasympathetic activity and ... However, these two directions of responses should not be considered simply ... and in turn result in increases in sympathetic stimulation of the juxtaglomerular cells
Kirron arrived and took over compressions. To ensure high quality CPR, providers should switch off giving compressions every ---------minutes or sooner if the provider giving compressions is fatigued. My answer was 2 minutes an was marked wrong answer.
Answer:
2 minutes
Explanation:
You should switch off every two minutes or about 5 cycles of chest compression and breathing, however, if it is a child, it should be about 10 cycles of compressions and breathing. That's weird that it was marked wrong though.
Kirron arrived and took over compressions. To ensure high quality CPR, providers should switch off giving compressions every 2 minutes or sooner if the provider giving compressions is fatigued.
In the context of providing high-quality cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR), it is recommended to switch the person giving compressions every 2 minutes or sooner if the provider becomes fatigued. CPR is a crucial life-saving technique performed during cardiac arrest to maintain blood flow to vital organs until more advanced medical help can be provided.
Performing effective CPR requires a significant amount of physical effort, and fatigue can quickly set in, affecting the quality and effectiveness of the compressions. By rotating compressors every 2 minutes, it ensures that providers remain fresh and able to deliver strong and consistent chest compressions.
Regular rotation also helps prevent compressions from becoming too shallow or too fast, which can be detrimental to the outcome of the resuscitation efforts. High-quality CPR involves compressions that are at least 2 inches deep and delivered at a rate of 100-120 compressions per minute.
It is essential for all providers involved in CPR to communicate effectively, so the switch happens smoothly without any delay in compressions. This teamwork and coordinated effort contribute to the best chances of successful resuscitation and better outcomes for the patient in cardiac arrest. Remember, CPR guidelines may vary slightly depending on the specific guidelines and protocols in different regions or organizations. Always follow the guidelines and training provided by a certified CPR training program or healthcare authority.
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Painkillers do not cure infectious diseases. Why?
Discuss the various way in which diet and physical fitness are influenced by the processes of cell respiration.
We can say that diet and physical fitness are influenced by the processes of cellular respiration because there is an association between the initial stores of muscle glycogen and the duration of the effort.
What is Muscle Glycogen?Muscle glycogen decreases in a semilogarithmic manner as a function of time, but the concentration of this substrate does not reach zero, which suggests the participation of other fatigue mechanisms in the interruption of prolonged exercise.
In this type of activity, glycogen depletion first occurs in slow-twitch fibers, followed by depletion in fast-twitch fibers. The decrease in the rate of muscle glycogen utilization is synchronously linked to the increase in fat metabolism.
With this information, we can conclude that diet and physical fitness are influenced by cellular respiration processes.
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Autosomal Dominant Compelling Helioopthalmic Outburst (ACHOO) Syndrome is characterized by
Uncontrollable sneezing in response to abrupt exposure to strong light, often intense sunlight, is a symptom of the Autosomal Dominant Compelling Helioopthalmic Outburst (ACHOO) Syndrome.
Why does ACHOO syndrome occur?
The same phenomena is known as the ACHOO syndrome, sun sneeze, and the photic sneeze reflex. They talk about a condition that makes people sneeze when exposed to strong light, such as sunlight.
The photic sneeze reflex is caused by what gene?
The likelihood of the photic sneeze response is also influenced by genetics. Although it is unclear how this gene raises the likelihood of this response, the C allele on the rs10427255 SNP is notably implicated in it.
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Explain the consequences of not protecting your skin from the
sun. Provide a reliable resource for information provided.
Answer:
Most skin cancers are caused by too much exposure to ultraviolet (UV) light. UV rays are an invisible kind of radiation that comes from the sun, tanning beds, and sunlamps. UV rays can damage skin cells. Protection from UV rays is important all year, not just during the summer.
The most important step for preventing cardiovascular disease is to live a healthy lifestyle. true or false
Answer:
T
Explanation:
Edge 2021
A group of researchers want to conduct a clinical trial to determine whether a new cholesterol-lowering agent is useful in preventing coronary heart disease (CHD). They identified 12,327 potential participants for the trial. Upon initial exam, 309 were found to have CHD. The remaining subjects entered the trial and were divided equally into the treatment and placebo groups. Of those in treatment group, 505 developed CHD after 5 years of follow-up, while 477 developed CHD during the same period in the placebo group. What is the incidence during the 5-year study?
Answer:
The incidence during the 5-year study is 982.
Explanation:
The incidence refers to the number of those who newly developed the CHD during the 5-year study period. This number includes the 505, who developed CHD after 5 years of follow-up and the 477, who developed CHD during the same period in the placebo group. The incidence does not include the 309, who were found to have CHD upon the initial examination. When this number (982) is compared with the total of 12,327 potential participants in the study, the incidence rate is obtained.
Malcolm still remembers vivid details about the day of the terrorist attacks on 9/11. What almond-shaped brain structure is responsible for this phenomenon of connecting memories and strong emotions in such emotionally charged events?.
Answer: The amygdala
Explanation: The amygdala is almond-shaped and is involved in memory-making and emotional responses.
Which substance would be most important for the nurse to determine if the client is taking due to it intensifying the serious adverse effect of acetaminophen?
Alcohol would be most important for the nurse to determine if the client is taking it as an administration due to it intensifying the serious adverse effect of acetaminophen.
Acetaminophen as AntitussiveAs an antitussive, hydrocodone/acetaminophen is frequently employed. To help healthcare professionals guide patient therapy and get the best results, this activity describes the indications, mechanism of action, routes of administration, notable adverse effects, contraindications, monitoring, and toxicity of hydrocodone/acetaminophen.
Hydrocodone is one of the most frequently specified painkillers by doctors and nurses as one of the most commonly abused by patients.
It is a probably potent medication for controlling pain starting from moderate to severe pain in postoperative patients, trauma patients, or cancer patients.
Numerous randomized trials through the nurses have shown that combining acetaminophen and hydrocodone is significantly more effective while maintaining the same level of side effects.
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Correct Question
A nurse is caring for an older adult who is taking acetaminophen (Tylenol) for the relief of chronic pain. Which substance is most important for the nurse to determine if the client is taking because it intensifies the most serious adverse effect of acetaminophen?
1) Alcohol
2) Caffeine
3) Saw palmetto
4) St. John's wort
A patient with spinal stenosis at the C5-C7 level with a painful intervertebral disc displacement had a cervical discectomy, corpectomy, allograft from C5 to C7, and placement of instrumentation (a 34-mm plate from C5 to C7). A. M50. 23, M48. 02, M54. 2 B B. M48. 02, S13. 171 C C. M48. 02, M50. 23 D D. M54. 2, M50. 30
A patient with spinal stenosis at the C5-C7 level with a painful intervertebral disc displacement had a cervical discectomy, corpectomy, allograft from C5 to C7, and placement of instrumentation (a 34-mm plate from C5 to C7).
Answer: C. M48.02, M50.23
Patient with spinal stenosis at the C5-C7 level instrumental placement of instrumental M48.02, M50.23, hence option c is correct.
What is spinal stenosis?Although ACDF is considered a safe operation with very few consequences, certain complications can be substantial and linger for several weeks to months.
Treatments, if months of therapy have not eased the symptoms and the stenosis is severe, surgery to enlarge the spinal canal may be required. Because bone continues to degrade, even successful surgery may necessitate further therapy years later.
You might expect your neck to be stiff and uncomfortable after surgery. This should become better in the weeks following surgery.
Therefore instrumental M48.02, and M50.23, with spinal stenosis at the C5-C7 level, hence option c is correct.
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Developments in medical technology make it possible to:.
Developments in medical technology make it possible to detect and treat different types of illnesses.
What is medical technology?The expression medical technology makes reference to the development of new methodologies and devices to enhance heath.
Medical technology has been fundamental for increasing the quality of life of people around the world.
In conclusion, developments in medical technology make it possible to detect and treat different types of illnesses.
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a nurse is caring for a client who has active pulmonary tuberculosis and a new prescription for iv rifampin the nurse should
They ought to anticipate having urine that is red in color.
Active pulmonary tuberculosisActive pulmonary tuberculosis is a contagious bacterial infection mostly affecting the lungs that is brought on by the bacterium Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
Although it happens less frequently, the infection can potentially spread to other organs such the kidneys, spine, and brain.
The following are signs of active pulmonary tuberculosis:
Cough that persists for longer than three weekschest discomfortblood in the mouth FatigueLoss of weightreduced appetitesweats at nightFeverWhen an infected individual coughs or sneezes, which releases bacteria into the air, tuberculosis is spread through the air.
Close contacts with individuals who have active pulmonary tuberculosis increase the chance of infection.
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the question is incomplete. the question you are looking for is
a nurse is caring for a client who has active pulmonary tuberculosis (TB) and a new prescription for IV rifampin. the nurse should instruct the client that they should expect to experience which of the following manifestations while taking this medication?
You are shadowing an endocrinologist who is examining a patient complaining of weakness, weight loss, and heat intolerance. The doctor points out the patient's obvious exophthalmos and asks for your diagnosis.
What would you speculate is the patient's problem?
A. Hyposecretion of parathyroid hormone
B. Hypersecretion of parathyroid hormone
C. Hyposecretion of thyroid hormone
D. Hypersecretion of thyroid hormone
E. Hyposecretion of calcitonin
The patient's problem is hypersecretion of thyroid hormone.
The endocrinologist has a patient with weakness, weight loss, heat intolerance and obvious exophthalmos.
Given these signs and symptoms, what would you speculate is the patient's problem?
The patient's problem is hypersecretion of thyroid hormone. The patient is showing the following signs and symptoms: weakness, weight loss, and heat intolerance. These symptoms suggest an overactive thyroid gland, which causes the body's metabolism to speed up. Thyroid hormone is responsible for regulating metabolism. When the thyroid gland produces too much of it, the patient may experience weight loss, increased heart rate, sweating, and other symptoms. This condition is known as hyperthyroidism. Exophthalmos (bulging of the eyes) is also a symptom of hyperthyroidism.In hyperthyroidism, the thyroid gland is overactive, leading to the overproduction of thyroid hormone. The patient may experience symptoms such as irritability, nervousness, muscle weakness, tremors, and others. Exophthalmos (bulging of the eyes) is a well-known sign of hyperthyroidism. Hyperthyroidism is a treatable condition. Antithyroid drugs, radioactive iodine, and surgery are all options for treating it.
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An obese 56-year-old woman experienced a sudden onset of dyspnea and chest pain while reading a book. Her breathing is labored and her heart rate is 130 beats/min. Despite supplemental oxygen, her oxygen saturation remains low. What should the EMT suspect
EMT suspects a women to have Pulmonary embolism
What is Pulmonary Embolism (PE)?
PE is a type of blood clot that often develops in a major vein in the leg and travels (or embolizes) into the lungs. Mild to severe symptoms are possible. Significant shortness of breath, respiratory issues, low blood pressure, shock, and cardiac arrest are just a few examples.Patients may experience many PEs at once if a blood clot fragments into smaller pieces. Despite supplementing oxygen immediately, the patients oxygen saturations remains low.Learn more about the Pulmonary circulation with the help of the given link:
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A nurse checking the perineum of a client with a radium implant for cervical cancer observes the packing protruding from the vagina. Why must the nurse notifr the health care provider to remove it immediately?
1. The radioactive packing will injure healthy tissue.
2. Removal of the packing will prevent excessive blood loss.
3. Flhe exposure of radium to the environment will diminish its effectiveness.
The nurse must notify the healthcare provider to remove the protruding packing from the vagina immediately because its removal will prevent excessive blood loss.
Radium implants are used in the treatment of cervical cancer to deliver targeted radiation to the affected area. The packing material is often used to hold the radium implant in place during treatment. If the packing is protruding from the vagina, it can cause issues such as irritation, discomfort, and potential bleeding. By notifying the healthcare provider and having the packing removed promptly, the nurse can prevent further complications and excessive blood loss. While it is true that radioactive packing can potentially injure healthy tissue, in this specific scenario, the immediate concern is addressing the risk of excessive bleeding. The exposure of radium to the environment diminishing its effectiveness is not a primary reason for notifying the healthcare provider to remove the protruding packing. The focus should be on ensuring the client's safety, minimizing complications, and providing appropriate care during the course of cervical cancer treatment.
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Explain how the binding of a hormone to a target cell can be likened to an enzyme-substrate reaction
Hormone binding to a target cell and enzyme-substrate reactions share similarities in specific binding, complementary shapes, and molecular recognition. Both processes exhibit specificity and saturation, highlighting the importance of precise molecular interactions in biological regulation.
Firstly, both processes involve specific binding between molecules. In an enzyme-substrate reaction, the enzyme binds to its substrate at the active site. Similarly, a hormone binds to specific receptor molecules on the surface of the target cell.
Secondly, both interactions rely on complementary shapes and molecular recognition. Enzymes have an active site that matches the shape of their substrate, allowing for a precise fit. Similarly, hormones have specific binding sites on their receptors that match their molecular structure, ensuring selective binding to the target cell.
Furthermore, both processes exhibit specificity and saturation. Enzymes have a specific substrate they can act upon, while hormones have specific target cells they can bind to. Additionally, both enzyme-substrate reactions and hormone binding reach a saturation point, where all available binding sites are occupied.
Overall, the analogy between hormone binding to a target cell and enzyme-substrate reaction highlights the specificity, molecular recognition, and complementary nature of their interactions, emphasizing the importance of precise molecular matching for biological signaling and regulation.
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A vaginal examination reveals that a client's cervix is 90% effaced and dilated to 6 cm. The fetus's head is at station 0, and the fetus is in a right occiput anterior position. The contractions are occurring every 3 to 4 minutes, are lasting 60 seconds, and are of moderate intensity. Which description is appropriate to use when reporting on the client's condition
Answer:
Midway through the first stage of labor
Explanation:
How much cation is people
Answer: 4
Explanation:
iron atoms can form 2+ cations or 3+ cations.
What does the acronym RACE stand for, as it pertains to fire safety?
Answer:
Remove, Alarm, Confine, and Extinguish/Evacuate
a 72-year-old man with a history of chronic tobacco use presents to clinic with a complaint of increasing dyspnea while walking to his mailbox. physical examination reveals decreased breath sounds, hyperresonance to percussion, and a barrel chest. a chest x-ray is obtained that demonstrates hyperinflation with flattened diaphragms. what is the most likely diagnosis?
The highest percentage of alcohol a person consumes passes into the bloodstream through the.
The highest percentage of alcohol a person consumes passes into the bloodstream through the blood vessels of the small intestine.
What are the harmful impacts of alcohol consumption?Excessive alcohol consumption leads to severe chronic diseases such as heart disease, stroke, lung infection, high blood pressure, digestive deformity, and many more health-related issues.
Almost 80% of the consumed alcohol passes into the bloodstream through the small intestine while the rest 20% passes through the stomach.
In both these conditions, blood vessels mediate the passage of alcohol from the region of the gut to the bloodstream.
Therefore, it is well described above.
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Should drugs be prescribed to children who have ADHD? What about
adults? On what scientific evidence do you base your opinion?
Yes, drugs can be prescribed to children and adults with ADHD based on scientific evidence and individual assessments.
The decision to prescribe drugs for ADHD should be based on a comprehensive evaluation of each individual's specific needs and circumstances, taking into account factors such as age, severity of symptoms, overall health, and potential benefits and risks of medication.
For children with ADHD, the use of medication is supported by scientific evidence. Numerous research studies have shown that certain medications, such as stimulants (e.g., methylphenidate, amphetamines), can effectively reduce symptoms of ADHD, improve attention, impulse control, and overall functioning. However, medication should typically be part of a multimodal treatment approach that may also include behavioral therapy, psychoeducation, and support for parents and caregivers.
Similarly, for adults with ADHD, medication can be an effective treatment option. Research studies have demonstrated the benefits of stimulant medications and non-stimulant medications (e.g., atomoxetine) in reducing ADHD symptoms and improving daily functioning in adults. However, like with children, a comprehensive evaluation and individualized treatment plan are important to determine the appropriateness of medication and to monitor its effectiveness and potential side effects.
It is crucial that decisions regarding medication for ADHD are made collaboratively between healthcare professionals, individuals, and their families, considering the scientific evidence, individual needs, preferences, and potential risks. Regular monitoring and adjustments, as needed, should be part of the treatment process to ensure optimal outcomes.
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How old do you need to be to sign up for Medicare in Oregon?
Answer:
65
Explanation:
People who are younger than 65 may also be Medicare eligible if they've been receiving Social Security disability check for at least 24 months or have end-stage renal disease. Medicare enrollment in Oregon accounts more than 830,000 Oregonians currently enrolled in Medicare.
Medicare eligibility starts at age 65. Your initial window to enroll is the seven-month period that begins three months before the month of your 65th birthday and ends three months after it. Seniors are generally advised to sign up on time to avoid penalties that could prove quite costly over the course of retirement.
dentify the true statement.
a.
PK is not a good predictor of how quickly the PD effect will start.
b.
How quickly a drug is distributed in the body is a study of pharmacodynamics of a drug.,
c.
How slow (or fast) a drug is metabolized can allow us to determine the dosing schedule of a drug.
d.
Both b and c
The true statement is b. How quickly a drug is distributed in the body is a study of pharmacodynamics of a drug.
Pharmacodynamic actions of a drug include stimulating activity by directly inhibiting a receptor and its downstream effects. Depressing activity by direct receptor inhibition and its downstream effects. Antagonistic or obstruction a receptor by binding to that, however not activating it.
4 stages of pharmacodynamics are Absorption: Describes however the drug moves from the location of administration to the location of action. Distribution: Describes the journey of the drug through the blood to varied tissues of the body. Metabolism: Describes the method that breaks down the drug. Excretion: Describes the removal of the drug from the body.
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Some neurological disorders affecting older adults may affect which of the following?
Answer: Weakness, numbness, poor balance, stroke, Parkinson's , and seizures. Neurological disorder can also cause memory loss.
Reticular fiber found in dense connective tissue..true or false?
Answer:
False
Explanation:
Reticular connective tissue is found around the kidney, liver, the spleen, and lymph nodes, Peyer's patches as well as in bone marrow.
If you are swimming the breaststroke your whole body would be in the ______________ position. Explain the reasoning for your choice.
Answer:
You would be sideways
Explanation:
This is because when you stroke your body turns sideways to get the water out if your face.
This may be right please tell me if it is or isn't.
a diastolic blood pressure over ________ mmhg is considered hypertensive.
A diastolic blood pressure over 90 mmHg is generally considered hypertension. Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is defined as persistently elevated blood pressure levels that exceed the normal range.
Blood pressure is measured using two values: systolic pressure and diastolic pressure. The systolic pressure represents the pressure in the arteries when the heart contracts, while the diastolic pressure represents the pressure in the arteries when the heart is at rest between beats.
A diastolic blood pressure of 90 mmHg or higher indicates that the pressure in the arteries during the resting phase is elevated. This is an important criterion used in diagnosing hypertension. It is worth noting that hypertension is diagnosed based on repeated measurements taken on different occasions to ensure accuracy and rule out temporary elevations due to stress or other factors. Hypertension is a significant risk factor for various cardiovascular diseases and requires appropriate management and treatment.
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