The digestive system has accessory organs, such as the ______ and gallbladder which produce and store bile; salivary glands; and the ____ which produces bicarbonate and digestive enzymes such as trypsin, chymotrypsin, lipase.
Answers
The digestive system has accessory organs, such as the liver and gallbladder which produce and store bile; salivary glands; and the pancreas which produces bicarbonate and digestive enzymes such as trypsin, chymotrypsin, and lipase.
The digestive system is a complex system in the human body that is responsible for the breakdown, absorption, and assimilation of food. It consists of a series of organs and structures that work together to facilitate the digestion and absorption of nutrients.
The main organs of the digestive system include:
Mouth: The digestion process begins in the mouth, where food is mechanically broken down by chewing and mixed with saliva.
Esophagus: The esophagus is a muscular tube that carries food from the mouth to the stomach through a process called peristalsis.
Stomach: The stomach is a muscular organ that receives food from the esophagus. It mixes and churns the food with digestive enzymes and stomach acids to break it down into a semi-liquid mixture called chyme.
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Related Questions
An oak tree falls in a forest. It kills some ants and stops grass from growing
below it. What type of disturbance is this?
O A. Secondary
O B. Primary
O C. Cyclical
O D. Small
Answers
Answer:
This is O D. Small type of disturbance.
Explanation:
Small-scale biological disturbance.
Answer:
O D. small
Explanation:
In ecology a disturbance is an event that causes a change in the environment. There are small-scale disturbances and high-magnitude disturbances. Small-scale disturbances are typically driven by biological processes -for example the fall of a tree- while high magnitude disturbances are typically driven by physical processes -for example, storms-. Small-scale disturbances as single-tree blowdowns are very important to create and maintain diversity and heterogeneity in the forest.
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Where in the human uterus do implantation and placentation ordinarily occur?High, Low or Mid Uterus?
Answers
Implantation and placentation ordinarily occur in the mid uterus.
After fertilization, the embryo travels through the fallopian tubes and reaches the uterus. Implantation, which is the attachment of the embryo to the uterine lining, typically occurs in the upper portion of the uterus, known as the fundus. This region provides an optimal environment for the implantation process.
Mid uterus is the region where the fertilized egg implants itself into the lining of the uterus and begins to develop into a fetus. As the fetus grows, the placenta also develops in this region, providing oxygen and nutrients to the growing fetus and removing waste products.
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The correvisin sequires a prim perised adiuartmant. a The wormita +ntry will be difierent than if the erroe had besw सacrerted the poritul year whest it ocrarred. 6. The 20×1. Pepriciation Expener arroent will be involved in the poereving eutigh d. Aal sheve natemente arv trae. 44. Which of the fallowing is an ancurafe description ef the w failare to recerd ab ecriasl is Hikely tio be found? a. An expense that was not acrerued is paid, but there ia no poyaBLe wn thr tooks as thres thould be b. A revenue that was not aceroed is received, but there is ne receiv. attle on the beoks as there shoald be. c. A review of the trial balnnce teveals that aat asset or liability. actoant that ia norrally pireient after secrals are recorded is. fit presest. 4. All abere statemant are sccurate deseriptions of how faiture to fecord an accual is likely to be found 45. A comparison of thin your's trial bolance with lant year's may be w good พay to discever … a. whetber nurmal accuals were made this year- b. whether normal defirrals were made this year c. errers in accruate of deferrals that have resalted in overi or ugderetatement of revenues or expensef d. all of the abowe? 46. When trying to find errun in a trialhalance that docs not balance, the first step should be to ... it. mork from the ledger to the trial balance in check the jourran! entries and postings for errors b. see if the ledger acerant balanter have been calcalated correctly c. work from the ledper to the trial balance to verify that ledger account balances were transferred to the ourrect debit or credit: colurans d work from the trial balance to the ledger to verify that ledger: account balances were transferred to the corrcet debit or credit columns
Answers
The accurate descriptions are as follows: For question 44, none of the options accurately describe the likely finding when a failure to record an accrual occurs. For question 45, the accurate description is option (d): all of the above. For question 46, the correct first step to find errors in an unbalanced trial balance is to work from the ledger to the trial balance and verify the correct transfer of ledger account balances, which corresponds to option (c).
It appears that the text provided contains several errors and inconsistencies. However, I will attempt to address the questions based on the context and assumptions made.
44. The inaccurate description of the failure to record an accrual that is likely to be found is option (c): A review of the trial balance reveals that an asset or liability account that is normally present after several are recorded is not present. In reality, if an accrual is not recorded, it would lead to an understatement or omission of expenses or revenues, not the absence of assets or liabilities in the trial balance.
45. A comparison of this year's trial balance with last year's may be a good way to discover whether normal accruals or deferrals were made this year and whether errors in the accurate or deferred recognition of revenues or expenses have resulted in over- or understatement. Therefore, the correct option is (d): all of the above.
46. When trying to find errors in a trial balance that does not balance, the first step should be to work from the ledger to the trial balance to verify that ledger account balances were transferred to the correct debit or credit columns. This option corresponds to option (c).
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Make identical strands of DNA:
CCG GAT TTT AAT TAG CTA CTA TCG TAC TAC GTT GGT GCT
Answers
A goes with T, so
Answer:
GGC CTA AAA TTA ATC GAT GAT AGC ATG ATG CAA CCA CGA
Which of the following are factors in a marine biome that are not factors in a terrestrial (or land) biome?
water and temperature
dissolved oxygen and salinity
Answers
Answer: Dissolved oxygen and Salinity
Explanation: Good luck! :D
helppp mweeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeee
Answers
Answer:
with what?
Explanation:
Answer:
with what and what grade are you in cause I might not know the answer
Determine the correct sequence of events during the creation of recombinant DNA.
I. Plasmid is cut open with enzymes
II. Target gene is cut out with enzymes
III. Plasmid is inserted into the bacterium
IV. Target gene is bonded to the plasmid with Ligase
A. IV, I, II, III
B. II, I, IV, III
C. I, II, III, IV
D. IV, III, I, II
Answers
Answer:
I believe the correct answer to your question is A
IV, I, II, III
which two structures clearly divide the forearm flexors from the extensors?
Answers
The two structures that clearly divide the forearm flexors from the extensors are: Medial Epicondyle, Lateral Epicondyle.
The medial epicondyle is a bony prominence on the inner side of the humerus bone, located at the elbow joint. It serves as the attachment site for several flexor muscles of the forearm, including the pronator teres and flexor carpi radialis.
The lateral epicondyle is another bony prominence on the outer side of the humerus bone, also situated at the elbow joint. It provides attachment points for the extensor muscles of the forearm, such as the extensor carpi radialis brevis and extensor digitorum.
These structures serve as anatomical landmarks that clearly separate the muscles responsible for forearm flexion from those involved in forearm extension.
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You are studying an extremely large population of unicorns found on a remote island. You observe variation in both the amount of sparkles each unicorn has on their coats, as well as the length of their tails. You found that unicorns with more sparkly coats have greater success at finding mates and reproducing, but that the length of their tail does not seem to affect survival or reproduction. After some intense work in your lab, you determine that gene Glitter Enhancing Protein-7 (Gep7) is responsible for the amount of sparkles, while gene Unicorn Fibroblast Growth Protein (Ufgp) is responsible for tail length.
Of these two genes (Gep7 and Ufgp), which one is more likely to be in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium and why? You must address why the one gene is more likely to be in HWE and why the other gene is less likely to be in HWE. Given that the population is extremely large and that the island is remote, you can rule out any impacts of genetic drift and gene flow.
To earn full points for the ‘address the question & is scientifically accurate’ part of the holistic rubric, please use the following:
There should be no mention of gene flow or genetic drift for either gene as the question said that both mechanisms could be ruled out (because remote island and extremely large population, respectively)
- Ufgp is more likely to be in HWE than Gep7
The sparkly coat trait associated with Gep7 is responsible for non-random mating and/or selection acting (i.e, those with ‘more sparkly coats have greater success at finding mates and reproducing’)
- Tall length (trait associated with Ufgp) doesn’t appear to affect survival or reproduction.
- There is nothing to indicate that mutation rate is higher in one gene versus the other, so this should not be a factor in reasoning for this question.
Answers
In the given scenario, the gene Unicorn Fibroblast Growth Protein (Ufgp) is more likely to be in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium than the Glitter Enhancing Protein-7 (Gep7).
Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium (HWE) is an important principle that describes how the frequency of alleles in a population will remain constant over generations in the absence of other factors. The principle requires several conditions, such as random mating, no mutations, no genetic drift, no selection, and no gene flow. Ufgp is more likely to be in HWE than Gep7 The gene Unicorn Fibroblast Growth Protein (Ufgp) is more likely to be in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium (HWE) than the Glitter Enhancing Protein-7 (Gep7).
It is because the variation in tail length does not seem to affect survival or reproduction. Hence, the allele frequencies of Ufgp will not be under selection, and there will be no evolution occurring with this gene. Ufgp being a neutral gene, can be assumed to be in HWE. Even if the tail length is influenced by Ufgp, there is no selection against either long or short tails.
In contrast, Gep7 gene is less likely to be in HWE as the sparkle coat trait is responsible for non-random mating and/or selection acting. This means that unicorns with sparkly coats have greater success at finding mates and reproducing. As a result, there will be a selection pressure favoring Gep7 allele that increases sparkles. This will cause a change in the allele frequencies of Gep7 over time, resulting in evolution. Therefore, Gep7 is less likely to be in HWE than Ufgp.
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How is childbirth an example of a
positive feedback mechanism?
A. The fetus of a human grows and as it grows
larger the uterus of the mother grows larger.
B. The release of oxytocin leads to increased
contractions which produces more oxytocin.
C. The fluid in the placenta begins to be filtered
out so the baby falls lower.
D. A chemical is released at fertilization that
stimulates the growth of the fetus that releases
more.
Answers
The release of oxytocin leads to increased contractions which produce more oxytocin. thus option B is correct.
What do you mean by the positive feedback mechanism?
A system for positive feedback In reaction to an output variation, homeostasis is a mechanism that leads the output to fluctuate even more in the direction of the initial deviation. A positive feedback system amplifies errors and affects the state of the output.
Oxytocin has the effect of imitating more contractions, and so more Oxytocin is released as a result! It's a never-ending cycle of rising contractions and hormone levels to help push the baby.
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The absorptive sutface or the small intestime is increased by _____times because of the rugae, villi and microvilli.
Answers
Answer:
dude its surface got to chilll bro
1. Bacteria. Two bacteria were placed in a dish. The number of bacteria quadruples every hour. There are now 131,072 bacteria in the dish. How many hours have passed since the original two bacteria we
Answers
To determine the number of hours that have passed since the original two bacteria were placed in the dish, we can use the fact that the number of bacteria quadruples every hour.
Starting with two bacteria, we can observe the progression:
Hour 1: 2 bacteria
Hour 2: 2 x 4 = 8 bacteria
Hour 3: 8 x 4 = 32 bacteria
Hour 4: 32 x 4 = 128 bacteria
Hour 5: 128 x 4 = 512 bacteria
Hour 6: 512 x 4 = 2048 bacteria
Hour 7: 2048 x 4 = 8192 bacteria
Hour 8: 8192 x 4 = 32768 bacteria
Hour 9: 32768 x 4 = 131072 bacteria
Therefore, it took 9 hours for the number of bacteria to reach 131,072.
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Catherine works in a plant nursery and likes all the brightly colored flowers there. She asks the owner about them and is surprised to learn that all flowers have to stages to their life cycle. What are the two stages plants go through during their life cycle? Choose two that apply.
Answers
Answer:
the gametophyte stage and the sporophyte stage are the first 2 stages of a plants life.
Explanation:
The plants go through haploid and diploid stages during their life cycle.
What is the alternation of generation?Plants have two distinct multicellular stages in their life cycle diploid and haploid.
In the diploid stage, the plant has 2 sets of chromosomes while in the haploid stage the plant only single set of chromosomes.
Therefore, the plants go through haploid and diploid stages during their life cycle.
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1. Which of the following is a characteristic that both invertebrates and vertebrates share?
Answers
Answer:
Both vertebrate and invertebrate organisms are multicellular. Both vertebrate and invertebrate organisms contain eukaryotic cells.
Explanation:
WHAT MIGHT HAPPEN IF
ALL THE HERBIVORES IN
A FOOD WEB
DISAPPEAR?
Answers
Answer:
Well, if all the herbivores disappeared, multiple things could occur. Without anyone keeping plants in check, plants may grow too abundant and may be harmful to the food web. Not only that, but predators that eat herbivors might starve without food. On the plus side, natural resources like water would increase without herbivores drinking/using it.
I hope this helps :)
Explanation:
Which of the following is NOT a possible outcome for phosphorus after it is taken up and converted into organic phosphorus by plants?
A. It evaporates into the atmosphere.
B. It get consumed when consumers eat the producers.
C. It can be excreted by consumers and decomposed into the soil.
D. It can be washed into rivers or bodies of water.
Answers
Answer: I'm pretty sure the answer is A...
Explanation:
Well, It does not play a significant role. The phosphorus cycle is different compared to the water,carbon, and nitrogen cycle because it can not be found in the gas state.
Hope this helped :) LMK
Answer:
a
Explanation:
I NEEEEDDDD HEEELPPP PLEASE
Answers
Answer:
25%
Explanation:
Each box has 25 %
because 100 ÷ 4 = 25
Heterozygous is different, homzygous is same
you can remember homzygous is same alleles by remembering man likes man (the word for it, brainly won't let me say it) which is same gender interest.
which factors that would decrease the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen? select all that apply.
Answers
Several factors can decrease the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen. These include an increase in temperature, a decrease in pH (acidity), an increase in carbon dioxide concentration, and the presence of certain substances such as 2,3-bisphosphoglycerate (BPG) or hydrogen ions.
One factor that decreases the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen is an increase in temperature. Higher temperatures can cause hemoglobin to undergo structural changes, reducing its ability to bind with oxygen. Additionally, a decrease in pH, resulting in increased acidity, can lower the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen. When pH decreases, the concentration of hydrogen ions increases, leading to the formation of additional bonds that stabilize the deoxygenated form of hemoglobin.
An increase in carbon dioxide (CO2) concentration can also decrease the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen. Carbon dioxide can bind to hemoglobin and form a compound called carbaminohemoglobin, which stabilizes the deoxygenated form of hemoglobin and reduces its ability to bind oxygen. Moreover, the presence of 2,3-bisphosphoglycerate (BPG) can decrease the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen. BPG binds to hemoglobin and stabilizes its deoxygenated form, promoting the release of oxygen to tissues. This effect is particularly important in red blood cells, where BPG levels are regulated to match metabolic demands.
In summary, several factors can decrease the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen. These include an increase in temperature, a decrease in pH, an increase in carbon dioxide concentration, and the presence of substances such as BPG or hydrogen ions. Understanding these factors is crucial in comprehending how oxygen is transported and released by hemoglobin in different physiological conditions.
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hi yall! quick question.
Which of the following group of organisms are prokaryotes?
Archaea
Dinosaur
Fish
Fungi
Answers
Answer:
Archaea is prokaryotes...
Explanation:
Hope it helps you
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Answer: A. Archaea
Explanation: Prokaryotes are single-celled organisms of the domains
What molecules are classified as carbohydrates?
Answers
Answer:
A carbohydrate is an organic compound such as sugar or starch, and is used to store energy. Like most organic compounds, carbohydrates are built of small, repeating units that form bonds with each other to make a larger molecule. In the case of carbohydrates, the small repeating units are called monosaccharides.
Carbohydrates are biological molecules or biomolecules. They are made out of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen. They are composed roughly in a ratio of 1 atom of carbon to one molecule of water.
What are carbohydrates?
Carbohydrates are also called sugar molecules or carbs. They are among the three macronutrients required by our body, in addition to proteins and fats.
Carbohydrates are broken down by our body into glucose units. Glucose is a monosaccharide, which is present in our blood sugar. It is the main source of energy for the cells, tissues and organs of our body.
Glucose can be used immediately or stored in the liver and muscles for later use. The storage form of glucose in our body is called glycogen.
Several other forms of carbohydrates are found. They are starches, or complex carbohydrates; sugars which are simple carbohydrates and fibres which are complex carbohydrates that cannot be broken down by the body.
Therefore, carbohydrates are biomolecules.
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__________ refers to the process of EPSPs and IPSPs interacting to generate excitation or inhibition.
Answers
The process of EPSPs and IPSPs interacting to generate excitation or inhibition refers to the summation of postsynaptic potentials (PSPs). The summation of PSPs describes how a neuron integrates signals from multiple presynaptic neurons. This can lead to the generation of an action potential (AP) in the postsynaptic neuron.
There are two types of summation: temporal summation and spatial summation. Temporal summation occurs when a single presynaptic neuron fires repeatedly, producing multiple EPSPs or IPSPs in quick succession. These PSPs can add up over time to reach the threshold for an AP in the postsynaptic neuron. Spatial summation occurs when multiple presynaptic neurons fire at the same time, producing EPSPs or IPSPs in different locations on the postsynaptic neuron. These PSPs can also add up to reach the threshold for an AP.
Overall, the summation of PSPs is an important mechanism by which neurons integrate signals from other neurons in the nervous system. It allows for the generation of complex patterns of activity and the processing of information in the brain.
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what are the two components of the cardiovascular system? group of answer choices veins and heart capillaries and veins arteries and heart heart and blood vessels arteries and veins
Answers
The two components of the cardiovascular system are arteries and veins. The cardiovascular system is in charge of distributing blood to various regions of the body.
cardiovascular system is made up of the organs and tissues listed below:
A closed blood cardiovascular system, Among these vessels are:
Arteries are blood vessels that transport blood out from the heart.Veins are Blood vessels that return blood to the heart.Capillaries are small blood veins that branch off from arteries to supply blood to all bodily tissues.The body has two blood circulation systems. The first is the circulatory system as a whole. This is the main blood circulatory system that transports blood to the body's organs, tissues, and cells. The pulmonary circulatory system is the second system. The circulatory system transports blood from the heart to the lungs. It is the site where oxygen enters and carbon dioxide exits the circulation.
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What is Speciation? I am confused
Answers
Answer:
D- the formation of two or more species from a common ancestor.
WILLL GIVE BRAINLISTTT!!! Why are scientists rethinking where life might be found?
Answers
Answer:
Cause they are always making up theroies and have no clue what is real and what is not, and they think the world is made my science so there has to be other plantes like earth since it was made there has to be others
When introducing foreign DNA into vector DNA, which of the following is necessary to seal DNA into an opening created by the restriction enzyme?
A) DNA ligase
B) DNA polymerase
C) plasmids
D) RNA primase
E) DNA helicase
Answers
The correct answer is A) DNA ligase. When introducing foreign DNA into vector DNA, DNA ligase is necessary to seal the DNA into an opening created by the restriction enzyme.
DNA ligase is an enzyme that catalyzes the formation of phosphodiester bonds between adjacent nucleotides in DNA strands. In the context of genetic engineering, DNA ligase is used to join the ends of the foreign DNA fragment with the vector DNA, creating a recombinant DNA molecule. This process is often referred to as DNA ligation.
DNA polymerase is an enzyme that synthesizes DNA strands by adding nucleotides to a growing DNA chain. It is not directly involved in sealing the opening created by the restriction enzyme. Plasmids are small, circular DNA molecules that can be used as vectors to carry foreign DNA. They are not involved in the sealing process.
RNA primase is an enzyme involved in the synthesis of RNA primers during DNA replication. It is not directly involved in sealing DNA into the vector. DNA helicase is an enzyme that unwinds DNA strands during DNA replication and other DNA processes. It is not involved in the sealing of DNA into the vector.
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A small population of wolves is introduced to an ecosystem. The graph shows how the wolf population changes over time.
Which part of the graph shows the highest rate of growth before the ecosystem reaches its carrying capacity for wolves?
OA. A to B
OB. B to C
OC. C to D
OD. After D
Answers
The part of the graph shows the highest rate of growth before the ecosystem reaches its carrying capacity for wolves is B to C. This sigmoid growth curve is for the Geometric Growth phase.
What is carrying capacity?The maximum number of organisms that a system can sustainably support is known as carrying capacity. The ability of an ecosystem to replenish the food, water, environment, or other essentials that populations need to thrive are just a few examples of the many variables that may affect an ecosystem's carrying capacity for a certain species.
The idea of carrying capacity connects how many species an environment can support to its resources. Ecosystems cannot consistently go over their carrying capacity. A species will exhaust its supply of food, water, or other essentials when the population density of that species surpasses the ecosystem's carrying capacity. The population will soon start to decline. A population can only increase so much before it exceeds the environment's carrying capacity. Resources won't be available at that point to support long-term growth of the organisation.
What is sigmoid growth curve?An S-shaped (sigmoidal) curve known as a logistic growth curve can be used to describe functions that increase gently at initially, more quickly in the middle growth phase, and slowly at the end, levelling off at a maximum value over time. The growth rate accelerates as the curve's midpoint is approached; the beginning portion of the curve is exponential. The growth rate starts to slow down at the halfway point (K/2), but it keeps growing until it reaches K, the "carrying capacity" for the environment.
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Which of the following occurs when a small group of individuals leaves a population
and establishes a new one in a geographically isolated region?
A. Genetic drift
B. Natural selection
C. Non-random mating
D. Gene flow
Answers
answer is A
Explanation:
A. Genetic drift
Pyruvate dehydrogenase is the entry point for the glycolytic product pyruvate into oxidative metabolism (the citric acid cycle and oxidative phosphorylation). Because it occupies such an important checkpoint in metabolism, it is tightly regulated.
Determine whether the given conditions promote entry into oxidative metabolism or limit entry into oxidative metabolism. These abbreviations may be used: PDH is pyruvate dehydrogenase; PDK is pyruvate dehydrogenase kinase; PDP is pyruvate dehydrogenase phosphatase.
Answers
PDH catalyze pyruvate to acetyl-CoA that enters the citric cycle. By phosphorylating a single subunit of PDH, PDK suppresses the enzyme's catalytic activity.
2. It is converted to lactate, is the response.
An essential enzyme in the body's process of dephosphorylating proteins is phosphatase. As a result, once PDK inactivates PDH, it contributes to the positive regulation of PDH (by dephosphorylating the PDH subunit). As a result, pyruvates in a person with phosphatase deficit will be converted to lactate because PDH is rendered inactive after PDK phosphorylates it. Thus, the conversion of the pyruvates to acetyl-CoA cannot be catalyzed.
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Full Question:
a) Determine whether the following conditions promote entry into oxidative metabolism or limit entry into oxidative metabolism. The following abbreviations may be used: PDH is pyruvate dehydrogenase; PDK is pyruvate dehydrogenase kinase; PDP is pyruvate dehydrogenase phosphatase.
Low O2 levels, PDK active;
High O2 levels, active PDH;
High O2 levels, PDK inhibitor present;
High O2 levels, inactive PDH;
High O2 levels, PDK active;
b) What is the fate of pyruvate (in a human) if a person has a phosphatase deficiency?
It is processed to lactate.
It is processed to acetyl-CoA.
It is processed to ethanol.
. a series of mitochondrial proteins that transfer electron energy to atp and require oxygen.
Answers
The series of mitochondrial proteins that transfer electron energy to ATP and require oxygen is known as the electron transport chain (ETC).
The ETC is a critical component of cellular respiration and occurs in the inner mitochondrial membrane. It consists of a series of protein complexes, including NADH dehydrogenase, succinate dehydrogenase, cytochrome b-c1 complex, cytochrome c, and cytochrome oxidase. These complexes work together to transfer electrons derived from NADH and FADH2, which are produced during earlier stages of cellular respiration, and transfer them along the chain.
As electrons are passed through the protein complexes, energy is released and used to pump protons across the mitochondrial membrane, creating an electrochemical gradient. This gradient is then used by ATP synthase to produce ATP through a process known as oxidative phosphorylation.
The final acceptor of the electron transport chain is oxygen, which combines with hydrogen ions to form water. Thus, the ETC connects the process of electron transfer to the production of ATP, relying on oxygen as the final electron acceptor.
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The complete question is:
A series of mitochondrial proteins that transfer electron energy to ATP and require oxygen is called ______.
A person living in a coma is considered living or dead?
Answers
Answer:
Someone who is in a coma is unconscious and will not respond to voices, other sounds, or any sort of activity going on nearby. The person is still alive, but the brain is functioning at its lowest stage of alertness.