Answers
True. According to studies, folks who are more religiously active at the end of their lives have less anxiety about dying than those who are less religious.
Does anxious resemble anxiety?The terms "anxiety" and "anxiousness" are frequently used interchangeably with the feeling of being "nervous," and while the two conditions have some symptoms, they differ in intensity and duration. Anxiety is sometimes persistent and isn't always a reaction to a specific incident.
What symptoms of anxiety do I have?feeling anxious, tense, or unable to unwind. having apprehension or a fear of something bad happening. having the impression that time is moving slowly or quickly. feeling that other people are staring at you and can tell you're nervous.
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Related Questions
T/F? Avedis Donabedian introduced a model of medical quality
based on three criteria: structure, process, and outcomes.
Answers
True. Avedis Donabedian, a renowned physician and researcher, introduced a model of medical quality that is widely recognized in the field. This model is based on three key criteria: structure, process, and outcomes.
The structure component of Donabedian's model refers to the physical and organizational attributes of the healthcare setting. It includes factors such as the availability of resources, facilities, equipment, and personnel. Evaluating the structure helps assess whether the healthcare system is adequately prepared to deliver quality care.
The process component focuses on how healthcare is delivered to patients. It includes aspects such as the interactions between healthcare providers and patients, the appropriateness and timeliness of care, adherence to clinical guidelines, and the coordination of services. Evaluating the process helps determine whether care is being provided in an effective and efficient manner.
The outcomes component assesses the impact of healthcare on patients' health status and overall well-being. It includes indicators such as patient satisfaction, health outcomes, and the overall quality of life. Evaluating outcomes helps determine the effectiveness of the healthcare provided and its ability to meet the intended goals.
Donabedian's model of medical quality, with its emphasis on structure, process, and outcomes, has been widely used as a framework for assessing and improving healthcare quality. It provides a comprehensive approach that helps identify areas for improvement and guide quality improvement initiatives in healthcare organizations.
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Which of the following is not a goal of psychology
A. Measurement
B. Prediction
C. Control
D. Intellectualism
Answers
Answer:
I THINK IT IS A OR B
Explanation:
Answer:
D. Intellectualism
Which of the following is an example of a national-level professional organization for a pharmacy technician?
O A. American Association of Pharmacy Technicians
O B. The pharmacy board of a local state hospital
O C. Local CDC branches
O D. American Association for Safe Medication
Answers
A national-level professional organization for a pharmacy technician is A. American Association of Pharmacy Technicians.
The answer is option A.
What is a national-level professional organization for a pharmacy technician?NPTA is the arena's biggest expert organization for pharmacy technicians. Its assignment is to increase the fee of pharmacy techs and to help them meet their non-public and professional dreams.pharmacy technician IIIA pharmacy technician III is commonly the very best degree of certification within the career path and requires more enjoyment and schooling.There are two number one businesses that provide pharmacy tech certification; the pharmacy Technician Certification Board (percent) and the countrywide Healthcareer affiliation (NHA). Both are licensed through the national commission for Certifying corporations (NCCA) and are identified in all 50 states.
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Express in your words two reasons to which to decide to become a practical nurse
Answers
Answer:
you can enter the workforce faster, it also offers a large amount of variety
Explanation:
What additional health and fitness assessment is strongly recommended for a client with type 2 diabetes
Answers
For a client with Type 2 Diabetes, in addition to a standard health and fitness assessment, it is strongly recommended to conduct a comprehensive metabolic and glucose tolerance test.
What is health and fitness assessment?A health and fitness assessment is a comprehensive evaluation of an individual's physical and health status. The purpose of a health and fitness assessment is to gather information about an individual's health history, lifestyle, and physical fitness levels in order to develop a personalized plan for improving their health and wellness. The assessment typically includes a combination of physical measurements, medical tests, and self-reported information.
Examples of components that may be included in a health and fitness assessment are:
Body composition measurement: This includes determining the amount of body fat, muscle mass, and bone density.Cardiovascular fitness assessment: This can include measuring heart rate, blood pressure, and aerobic capacity.Strength and flexibility assessment: This measures an individual's ability to perform strength exercises and assesses the range of motion in joints.Medical history: This includes information about any past or present medical conditions, surgeries, or injuriesNutritional assessment: This includes information about an individual's eating habits, food choices, and any dietary restrictions or requirements.Lifestyle assessment: This includes information about an individual's physical activity levels, sleep patterns, stress levels, and substance use.The results of a health and fitness assessment can help healthcare professionals and fitness professionals to design safe and effective fitness programs, identify health risk factors, and develop a personalized plan for improving overall health and wellness.
For a client with Type 2 Diabetes, in addition to a standard health and fitness assessment, it is strongly recommended to conduct a comprehensive metabolic and glucose tolerance test. This test will help to assess the individual's glucose metabolism and identify any abnormalities or issues related to the control of blood sugar levels.
Other recommended assessments include:
Hemoglobin A1C test: This test measures the average blood sugar levels over the past 2-3 months and provides insight into the control of blood sugar levels over time.Lipid panel: A lipid panel is used to assess the levels of cholesterol and triglycerides in the blood, which are important risk factors for heart disease.Blood pressure: High blood pressure is a common complication of Type 2 Diabetes, so it is important to regularly monitor blood pressure levels.Nephropathy screening: Nephropathy, or damage to the kidneys, is a common complication of Type 2 Diabetes. Regular screening for nephropathy is important to detect and manage this condition.It is also important for a client with Type 2 Diabetes to have a comprehensive assessment of their diet and physical activity levels, as well as a review of any medications they are taking. This will help to identify any changes that need to be made in order to effectively manage their diabetes and maintain good overall health.
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Question 19 options: The guidance for having infant sleep on their back to reduce the incidence of SIDS has a grade of A. The Back-to-Sleep campaign directed information at parents and care-givers with the involvement of clinicians, crib manufacturers, and the media. The mortality from SIDS fell by approximately 50% within several years of the beginning of the Back-to-Sleep campaign Case-control studies were important in establishing a cause and effect relationship between having infants sleep prone and Sudden Infant Death Syndrome. Sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) is the most common cause of death between age 1 month and one year. Twenty years ago it resulted in over 5,000 deaths per year.
Answers
Back to Sleep campaign, which urges parents to put their infants to sleep on their backs (supine position) to lower the risk of Sudden Infant Death Syndrome, or SIDS.
The US National Institute of Child Health and Human Development (NICHD) at the US National Institutes of Health is supporting the Safe to Sleep campaign, formerly known as the Back to Sleep campaign, which urges parents to put their infants to sleep on their backs (supine position) to lower the risk of Sudden Infant Death Syndrome, or SIDS. Since infants are most at danger of SIDS between the ages of 0 and 1, this age range is the campaign's focus. The incidence of SIDS has decreased by more than 50% since the 1994 launch of "Safe to Sleep." However, incidents of newborn asphyxia while sleeping have increased. As a result, the campaign's objective has been expanded to emphasize safe sleep.learn more about Back to Sleep campaign here: https://brainly.com/question/13310038
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29. How are bloodborne disease being transmitted *
Answers
Answer:
Bloodborne pathogens such as HBV and HIV can be transmitted through contact with infected human blood and other potentially infectious body fluids such as: semen. vaginal secretions. cerebrospinal fluid.
Explanation:
Answer:
Bloodborne pathogens such as HBV and HIV can be transmitted through contact with infected human blood and other potentially infectious body fluids such as: semen. vaginal secretions. cerebrospinal fluid.
An optimal time to assess resting heart rate would be after you have _____. a. read in bed quietly for about half an hour b. performed flexibility exercises for about half an hour c. watched an action movie for about half an hour d. exercised vigorously for about half an hour e. walked at a moderate pace for no longer than an hour
Answers
Answer:
read in bed quietly.
Explanation:
When patients use ?, they sometimes need to take potassium supplements because these drugs prevent reabsorption of potassium. If patients are unable to produce their own ?, they probably have high blood sugar levels. ? can reduce the muscle contractions that cause some of the symptoms in patients with chronic gastrointestinal problems. A ? can be used to treat the high levels of stomach acid that can lead to chronic heartburn.
Answers
Answer:
1) Thiazide Drugs
2) Insulin
3) Antispasmodic Drugs
4) proton pump inhibitor
Right on Edg 2021
Explanation:
Answer:
1) Thiazide Drugs
2) Insulin
3) Antispasmodic Drugs
4) proton pump inhibitor
Right on Edg
Explanation:
Being prepared for a fire emergency would include all of the following, EXCEPT ________.
Answers
Answer:
Open windows on the east side of the building of fire breaks out
A fire emergency would include all of the following, EXCEPT Open windows on the east side of the building if a fire breaks out.
What emergency would fire extinguishers include?Fire calls for gasoline, heat, and oxygen to burn. fireplace extinguishers follow an agent that will cool burning heat, smother gasoline or cast off oxygen so the hearth cannot maintain to burn. A portable fireplace extinguisher can quickly manage a small fire if carried out with the aid of an individual properly skilled.An extinguisher with an ABC score is suitable to be used with fires regarding regular combustibles, flammable liquids, and energized electrical gadgets. An extinguisher is rated for use with a couple of risks and needs to include a symbol for each threat type.Learn more about fire extinguishers here:-https://brainly.com/question/1180266
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Ordered: 130mg. Available 1gr/tablet. How many tablets should be given?
Answers
1.5 g this ensures the patient gets the right amount of perscription.
Answer:
2
Explanation:
I will assume that 'gr' stands for 'grain' and mot for 'gram' (sometimes used)
1 grain = 65 mg
130 mg/ 65 mg/tab = 2 tablets
6. Which one of the following statements about the responsibilities of medical
billers and coders is correct?
A. They play a minor role in health care reimbursement.
B. They should not examine patient records.
C. They create documentation required for reimbursement from only third-party
payers.
O D. They use three code sets: ICD, CPT, and HCPCS.
Answers
Answer:
Last option is the correct choice.
Explanation:
The following statement about the responsibilities of medical billers and coders is correct: They use three code sets: ICD, CPT, and HCPCS.
Best Regards!
An injury to the surface of the skin caused by trauma, such as scratching or abrasions is called a(an)
Answers
Answer:
ABRASION. Scraping, or rubbing away of a surface, such. as skin, by friction. Abrasion may be the result of trauma, such as a skinned.
Explanation:
why is white stuff on my sons phone
Answers
Answer:
it depends. what is the texture, and what does it look like
which of thw following is a characteristics of low-context culture
Answers
Answer:
i would say c.
Emphasis on logic and facts. Facts are more important than intuition in the decision-making process. Words are more important than body language. Verbal messages are explicit, direct, and concise.
Choose the correct answer regarding utilization of triglycerides for energy.
Question 7 options:
A-Triclycerides must go through glycogenolysis to hydrolyze into glycogen and fatty acids
B- Beta oxidation is required in the mitochondria to transform the fatty acids to acetyl-CoA
C- The breakdown of fat is less efficient than CHO therefore fewer ATP are generated from fat catabolism for energy
D- Skeletal muscle is only able to utilize fat stored within the muscle to produce energy while all other body cells are able to utilize fat from adipose cells
Answers
Choose the correct answer regarding utilization of triglycerides for energy.
Question 7 options:
A-Triclycerides must go through glycogenolysis to hydrolyze into glycogen and fatty acids
B- Beta oxidation is required in the mitochondria to transform the fatty acids to acetyl-CoA
C- The breakdown of fat is less efficient than CHO therefore fewer ATP are generated from fat catabolism for energy
D- Skeletal muscle is only able to utilize fat stored within the muscle to produce energy while all other body cells are able to utilize fat from adipose cells
The correct option regarding utilization of triglycerides for energy are: Triglycerides must go through glycogenolysis to hydrolyze into glycogen and fatty acids. Thus, the correct options are A, B, C, and D.
What are triglycerides?A triglyceride is an ester derived compound from glycerol and three fatty acid molecules. Triglycerides are the main constituents of the body fat in humans and other vertebrates, as well as the vegetable fat.
Triglycerides must go through the glycogenolysis to hydrolyze into glycogen molecule and fatty acid molecules. Beta oxidation is required in the mitochondria to transform the fatty acid molecules to acetyl-CoA molecules. The breakdown of fat is less efficient than that of CHO therefore, fewer ATP molecules are generated from the fat catabolism for energy. Skeletal muscle is only able to utilize fat which is stored within the muscle to produce energy while all the other body cells are able to utilize fat from the adipose cells.
Therefore, the correct options are A, B, C, and D.
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Choose the term that best matches the description given.
When patients see themselves represented in the medical setting, the benefit is:
More satisfaction with their care People view it as more equitable and fair. Better quality care. More varied solutions
Answers
Answer:
self courage
Explanation:
to be feel better in medical setting you have to be with self courage
Unattached earlobes (EE or Ee) are described in the textbook as dominant over attached earlobes (ee). A couple both have unattached earlobes. Both notice that one of their parents on both sides has attached earlobes (ee). Therefore, they correctly assume that they are carriers for attached earlobes (Ee). The couple proceeds to have four children. What is the most probable result
Answers
Answer: 1 kid would be EE, 2 would Ee and the fourth would be ee.
Based on the Healthy People 2020 initiative, what is one change that should be made in school cafeterias
Answers
Answer:
Removal of soda pop machine from the lunch room
Explanation:
This is because research has shown that this soda has minimal nutritional value and has too much sugar content that unnecessary increases body mass index which is detrimental to the body as it could lead to diabetes and other cardiovascular diseases
Which is the correct path of an electrical excitation from the pacemaker to a cardiomyocyte in the left ventricle (LV)?
Answers
Answer:
The question is lacking the options, below is the completely stated question and options:
This is the correct path of an electrical excitation from the pacemaker to a cardiocyte in the left ventricle (LV).
A. sinoatrial (SA) node → atrioventricular (AV) node → atrioventricular (AV) bundle → Purkinje fibers → cardiocyte in LV
B. atrioventricular (AV) node → sinoatrial (SA) node → atrioventricular (AV) bundle → Purkinje fibers → cardiocyte in LV
C. sinoatrial (SA) node → atrioventricular (AV) bundle → atrioventricular (AV) node → Purkinje fibers → cardiocyte in LV
D. atrioventricular (AV) node → Purkinje fibers → atrioventricular (AV) bundle → sinoatrial (SA) node → cardiocyte in LV
E. sinoatrial (SA) node → atrioventricular (AV) node → Purkinje fibers → atrioventricular (AV) bundle → cardiocyte in LV
Answer:
The correct answer is:
sinoatrial (SA) node → atrioventricular (AV) node → atrioventricular (AV) bundle → Purkinje fibers → cardiocyte in LV (A.)
Explanation:
The electrical impulse conduction system of the heart refers to the pathways through which electrical signals pass, to cause excitation of specific paths of the heart, leading to depolarization, which in turn leads to contraction and relaxation of the heart. The correct excitation pathway is as follows:
1. Normal excitation originates in the sinoatrial (SA) node, from which depolarization spreads throughout the atria, causing impulses (excitation) to spread from the SA node to the atria. It is believed that this depolarization spreads to the atrial cells through adjacent myocardial cells and myofibrils.
2. Next, the depolarization from the atria reaches the atrioventricular (AV) node, causing excitation of the AV node. The AV node is located on the floor of the right ventricle, close to the interventricular septum. The excitation leaves this site by two pathways; the fast and slow pathways which vary based on the time of transmission of impulses to the next phase.
3. Next, from the AV node, the excitation is passed to the two branches of the bundle of His, which form a network of fibers known as purkinje fibers, from where excitation passes to the apical region of the left and right ventricles causing depolarization of the ventricular myocardium.
Attached to this answer is a picture to show what the pathway looks like.
The correct path of an electrical excitation from the pacemaker to a cardiomyocyte is:
sinoatrial (SA) node → atrioventricular (AV) node → atrioventricular (AV) bundle → Subendothelial conducting network → cardiomyocyte in LV.
The heart is a cone-shaped hollow muscular organ that possesses the property of generating its own electrical impulses or excitations.
It is divided into four(4) chambers namely the right ventricle, left ventricle, right atrium and left atrium.
The correct path of an electrical excitation is from:
The pacemaker: This is also called the sinoatrial (SA) node. It generates the electrical excitations.Atrioventricular (AV) node: The electrical excitation initiated by SA node is then transmitted to AV node. This transmits the signal from atria to ventricles.Atrioventricular (AV) bundle: These are specialised fibres that originate from the AV node. They are the bundle that divides to form the right and left bundle branches.Subendothelial conducting network: This is also called the Purkinje fibres which is formed within the ventricular myocardium.Cardiomyocyte of the left ventricle: The cardiomyocytes are set of cells that generates contractile force in the heart. These are located at the left ventricle.Therefore, the correct path of an electrical excitation from the pacemaker to a cardiomyocyte is:
sinoatrial (SA) node → atrioventricular (AV) node → atrioventricular (AV) bundle → Subendothelial conducting network → cardiomyocyte in LV.
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Which of the following could be reasonably concluded if a fecal pellet is expelled from a sow's vagina during farrowing?
The sow may have a stillborn piglet in her uterus.
The first piglet in the litter is being birthed backward.
The farrowing process has come to a conclusion.
The sow is about to expel her placenta.
Answers
Answer: The first piglet in the litter is being birthed backward.
Explanation:
Farrowing is a term that simply has to do with the action by which pigs give birth. Another term for farrowing is parturition.
As farrowing approaches, it should be noted that the the vulva and the vagina will enlarge which leads to the opening into the womb. When a fecal pellet is expelled from a sow's vagina during farrowing, the first piglet in the litter is being birthed backward.
14. Thomas is 3 months old and weighs 15 lb 6 oz. Thomas is prescribed a medication q6h. The label states that there's 400 mg of the drug in 10 ml
suspension. The recommended dose of the medication for infants is 50 mg/kg/day. How much should Thomas receive per dose?
O A. 1.2 ml
OB. 4.2 mi
O C.3.2 ml
O D. 2.2 ml
Answers
Thomas should receive 8.71 ml per day
Dosage
A dosage is the amount of a medicine or drug that someone takes or should take, and how ` they should take it.
1 oz = 0.0283495 kg; also 1 lb = 0.453592 kg.
Hence 15 lb 6 oz = (15 lb * 0.453592 kg/lb) + (6 oz * 0.0283495 kg/oz) = 6.97 kg
Since the dosage is 50 mg/kg/day. Hence amount of mg given is:
Amount of mg = 50 mg/kg/day * 6.97 kg = 348.5 mg per day
Each 10 ml contains 400 mg; hence:
ml = 348.5 mg * 10 ml per 400 mg = 8.71 ml per day
Thomas should receive 8.71 ml per day
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A CCMA is collecting a capillary blood
sample from a patient. The MA should take
which action?
Squeeze the finger firmly
O Wipe away the first droplet of blood
Keep the patient's hand above heart level
Use the patient's second or fifth digit
Answers
what skills do I benefit when playing a yoyo
Answers
Answer:
a sore finger tolerence
Explanation:
a surgical removal of plaque from an artery is called:
Answers
A surgical removal of plaque from an artery is called Endarterectomy.
Endarterectomy refers to a surgical procedure that is used to remove plaque from the inside of an artery. This is typically done in arteries that have been narrowed by plaque buildup and are causing reduced blood flow to the organs or tissues they serve.
The procedure involves making an incision in the affected artery, then using specialized tools to carefully remove the plaque buildup. This can help to restore normal blood flow to the area and reduce the risk of complications such as heart attack or stroke.
Endarterectomy can be performed on different types of arteries throughout the body, including the carotid arteries in the neck, the femoral arteries in the legs, and the coronary arteries around the heart. The procedure is typically performed by a vascular surgeon and may be done using traditional open surgery techniques or minimally invasive procedures such as endovascular surgery.
Overall, endarterectomy can be an effective treatment option for patients with narrowed or blocked arteries due to plaque buildup.
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The emergency, cardiology, labor and delivery, neurology, and intensive care units are some of the ________ of a typical hospital.
Answers
Hope this helps:)
The emergency, cardiology, labor and delivery, neurology, and intensive care units are some of the departments of a typical hospital.
A hospital is a type of medical facility that offers a variety of healthcare services to people with different illnesses and injuries. It is a location where patients can access healthcare, get diagnosed, treated, and cared for by licenced healthcare professionals. Hospitals are essential elements of any healthcare system because they provide cutting-edge medical equipment, trained medical personnel, and numerous specialised divisions to meet diverse medical demands. These divisions could be maternity wards, intensive care units, surgical units, radiology departments, and many others.
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This 49-year-old gentleman suffering since 3 days ago with shortness of breath on exertion. This was causing him to rest after walking 10 - 15 meters, having previously had no problems with exercise. He had no chest pain or cough. He had taken a flight back to Miami from Italy two weeks ago. The man is overweight at 130kg and measures 180cm in height. He was admitted to Hospital with probable diagnosis of PE On admission: He is quite uptight and is tachypnoeic and sweating. His JVP was not seen. He had no evidence of calf tenderness or swelling. He has evidence of peripheral cyanosis
Answers
how do we answer.. is this a question or you describing someone?
Kayla Christianson, CMA, has been employed six years by the cardiology practice of three physicians. She is a graduate of a CAAHEP-accredited school. Furthermore, Kayla received extensive hands-on training performing ECGs while doing her required externship.
Kayla has completed an ECG ordered by Dr. Hsu for Mrs. Warner, a 76-year-old patient. Dr. Hsu, Kayla’s boss, telephoned her explaining that he was behind schedule doing rounds at the hospital. He asked her to do him a favor and interpret Mrs. Warner’s ECG, sign his name, and fax the report to Mrs. Warner’s referring internist, who is expecting the results.
Given the scope of Kayla’s education, training, and years of experience as a CMA, would this “favor” fall within the AAMA guidelines of her responsibilities?
Would any portion of Dr. Hsu’s request fall within the guidelines? If so, which portion(s)? Is an exception to these guidelines ever allowed?
How should Kayla respond to Dr. Hsu?
Answers
As far as the scope of Kayla’s education is concerned, the favour that was asked for doesn't fall within the AAMA guidelines of her responsibilities.
The only portion of Dr. Hsu's request that fell within the guidelines is asking for assistance to fax the report.
It would therefore be wise if Kayla to decline the request made by Dr Hsu.
What is Electrocardiography (ECG)?Electrocardiography (ECG) is defined as the type of diagnostic services that is used to detect and observe the beating of the heart for any abnormal sounds.
As a Certified Medical Assistants (CMA), Kayla is not allowed to perform delicate procedures such as the electrocardiography procedure but they are allowed to assist the physician on duty for the procedure.
Therefore, given the scope of Kayla’s education, training, and years of experience as a CMA, this favour doesn't fall within the AAMA guidelines of her responsibilities.
This means that she should decline the request of the doctor and suggest ways that Mrs Warmer can be attended to without implications.
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From the information provided, it should be noted that CMA guidelines, as stipulated by the American Association of Physician Assistants, prohibit the CMA from interpreting patient medical data. Therefore, the favor that was asked by Dr. Kayla Hsu is simply against guidelines.
What is the AAMA code of ethics?AAMA Code of Ethics for Medical Assistants | The AAMA Code of Ethics for medical assistants sets forth principles of ethical and moral conduct as they relate to the medical profession and the particular practice of medical assisting.
What does AAMA mean in medical terms?The Certified Medical Assistant CMA (AAMA) or (AAMA) —credential is a medical assistant who has been credentialed through the Certifying Board (CB) of the AAMA. The credential is awarded to candidates who pass the CMA Certification Exam.
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Bone is constantly being broken down by what?
Answers
A patient has been taking haloperidol for 3 months for a psychotic disorder, and the healthcare provider is concerned about the development of extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS). The healthcare provider will monitor the patient closely for which effects
Answers
c. Tremors and muscle twitching
Tremors and muscle twitching are some of the extrapyramidal symptoms.
What are the extrapyramidal symptoms of haloperidol?Dopamine receptor antagonist haloperidol is prescribed to people with psychotic illnesses. Comparatively to second-generation antipsychotics, haloperidol presents a higher risk of extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS), particularly at high doses.
When treating patients with psychotic diseases like schizophrenia, haloperidol, a butyrophenone antipsychotic, is frequently utilized. It is widely acknowledged that haloperidol's effectiveness in lowering positive symptoms of schizophrenia is mostly due to its antagonistic effects on dopamine (D2) receptors. Extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS), such as dystonia, Parkinsonism, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia, are a substantial danger when using high-potency first-generation antipsychotics (FGAs) like haloperidol without also taking anticholinergic medications.
I understand the question you are looking for is this:
A patient has been taking haloperidol (Haldol) for 3 months for a psychotic disorder, and the nurse is concerned about the development of extrapyramidal symptoms. The nurse will monitor the patient closely for which effects.
a. Increased paranoia
b. Drowsiness and dizziness
c. Tremors and muscle twitching
d. Dry mouth and constipation
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