Stephen has a counter that is orange on one side and brown on the other. The counter is shown below: A circular counter is shown. The top surface of the counter is shaded in a lighter shade of gray and Orange is written across this section. The bottom section of the counter is shaded in darker shade of gray and Brown is written across it. Stephen flips this counter 24 times. What is the probability that the 25th flip will result in the counter landing on orange side up? fraction 24 over 25 fraction 1 over 24 fraction 1 over 4 fraction 1 over 2

The number of ways can the selection be made is 84.

Given:

an executive hires 3 office workers from 8 applicants.

a ) .

Number of ways = C ( 8 , 3 )

C ( n , r ) = n! / ( n - r ) ! r!

C ( 8 , 3 ) = 8! / ( 8 - 3 ) ! 3!

= 8! / 5! * 3 !

= 8 * 7 * 6 * 5! / 5! * 3!

= 56 * 6 / 3!

= 56 * 6 / 3 * 2 * 1

= 56 * 3 / 2 * 1

= 28 * 3 / 1

= 28 * 3

= 84 ways

Learn more about the selection here:

https://brainly.com/question/27990491

#SPJ4

Answer:

99.1

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

c = 10

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that H varies directly as c³ then the equation relating them is

H = kc³ ← k is the constant of variation

To find k use the condition when H = 40, c = 2 , then

40 = k × 2³ = 8k ( divide both sides by 8 )

5 = k

H = 5c³ ← equation of variation

When H = 5 000, then

5000 = 5c³ ( divide both sides by 5 )

1000 = c³ ( take the cube root of both sides )

\(\sqrt[3]{1000}\) = c , so

c = 10

Answer:

y = 5x^2+10x +14

Step-by-step explanation:

y = 5(x+1)^2+9

= 5(x^2+2x+1)+9

= 5x^2+10x +14

Answer:

Ok, sure.

Step-by-step explanation:

Total number: 5 yellow + 3 orange + 1 red = 9 balls.

To calculate the probability, we need to determine the favorable outcomes, which is the number of ways we can choose one orange ball and one red ball.

Number of ways to choose one orange ball: 3

Number of ways to choose one red ball: 1

Since we need to choose one orange ball and one red ball, the number of favorable outcomes is the product of these two:

Number of favorable outcomes = 3 * 1 = 3

Now, let's calculate the total number of possible outcomes. We will choose 2 balls out of the 9 available in the box.

Number of ways to choose 2 balls out of 9 = 9C2 = (9 * 8) / (2 * 1) = 36

Therefore, the total number of possible outcomes is 36.

Finally, we can calculate the probability:

Probability = Number of favorable outcomes / Total number of possible outcomes

Probability = 3 / 36

Probability = 1 / 12

So, the probability that one ball is orange and the other is red is 1/12.

Answer:

\(\frac{1}{12}\) or 0.0833

Step-by-step explanation:

This  problem can be solved using the formula:

P(A∩B)=P(A)×P(B∣A)

where P(A∩B) is the probability of both events happening, P(A) is the probability of the first event happening, and P(B∣A) is the probability of the second event happening given that the first event has happened.

In this case, we want to find the probability that one ball is orange and the other is red. There are two possible ways this can happen: either we draw an orange ball first and then a red ball, or we draw a red ball first and then an orange ball. We can use the formula to calculate the probability of each scenario and then add them up.

The probability of drawing an orange ball first is P(O)=3/9​, since there are 3 orange balls out of 9 total balls. The probability of drawing a red ball second given that we have drawn an orange ball first is P(R∣O)=1/8​ since there is 1 red ball out of 8 remaining balls. Therefore, the probability of drawing an orange ball first and then a red ball second is:

P(O∩R)=P(O)×P(R∣O)= 93/9 × 1/8 ​= 1/24​

Similarly, the probability of drawing a red ball first is P(R)=1/9​, since there is 1 red ball out of 9 total balls. The probability of drawing an orange ball second given that we have drawn a red ball first is P(O∣R)=3/8​, since there are 3 orange balls out of 8 remaining balls. Therefore, the probability of drawing a red ball first and then an orange ball second is:

P(R∩O)=P(R)×P(O∣R)= 1/9 × 3/8 ​=  1/24​

Finally, we can add up the probabilities of both scenarios to get the answer:

P(O,R)=P(O∩R)+P(R∩O)= 1/24 + 1/24​ = 2/24 ​= 1/12

Therefore, the probability that one ball is orange and the other is red is 1/12​ or about 0.0833.

a) Tanisha spent $15,000 to buy the car.

b) The rate of change of Tanisha's car over time is $1,250 per year.

c) A possible equation to represent the relationship between the value of Peter's car, V, in dollars, and time, t, in years is V = -1,250t + C, where C is the initial value of Peter's car.

d) The graph for Anna's car value over time would be a parallel line to Tanisha's line, passing through the point (5, 15,000).

e) The equation representing Anna's car value over time is V = -1,250t + 21,250, and her car will be worth $4,000 in approximately 15.8 years.

a) To determine how much Tanisha spent to buy the car, we need to find the initial value or y-intercept of the graph.

This represents the value of the car at time t = 0.

By looking at the graph, we can see that the y-intercept is at $15,000.

Therefore, Tanisha spent $15,000 to buy the car.

b) The rate of change of Tanisha's car over time can be determined by finding the slope of the line on the graph.

We can select two points on the line, such as (0, 15,000) and (4, 10,000), and use the slope formula:

Rate of change = (change in value) / (change in time) = (10,000 - 15,000) / (4 - 0) = -5,000 / 4 = -1,250

The rate of change of Tanisha's car over time is -1,250 dollars per year.

c) Since Peter's car costs less than Tanisha's and the value of both cars changes at the same rate, we can represent the relationship between the value of Peter's car, V, in dollars, and time, t, in years with the equation:

V = -1,250t + C

Where C represents the initial value or y-intercept of Peter's car.

The initial value of Peter's car can be different from Tanisha's car but less than Tanisha's initial value.

d) To draw Anna's car value over time on the same graph, we know that her car is worth the same as Tanisha's car in 5 years. So, the point (5, 15,000) should lie on Anna's graph.

The graph of Anna's car value over time would be a parallel line to Tanisha's line, passing through the point (5, 15,000).

e) To find an equation representing Anna's car value over time, we can use the slope-intercept form of a linear equation: y = mx + b, where y represents the car value, x represents time, m represents the rate of change, and b represents the initial value.

Since Anna's car is worth the same as Tanisha's in 5 years, the equation would be:

V = -1,250t + C

To find when Anna's car will be worth $4,000, we can substitute V = 4,000 into the equation and solve for t:

4,000 = -1,250t + C

Without the value of C, we cannot determine the exact time when Anna's car will be worth $4,000.

However, by knowing the value of C, we can substitute it into the equation and solve for t.

For similar question on parallel line.  

https://brainly.com/question/16742265  

#SPJ8

The journey along Line segment X Y is longer than the path along Line segment Z Y, and the path along Line segment Z Y is longer than the path along Line segment A B, hence Option-A is the correct answer.

Given that,

He makes paths that follow Line segments A and B, X and Y, and Z and Y through the garden.

We have to find which accurately compares the pathways' lengths.

We know that,

The length of the third side in a triangle is proportional to the angle Ф  if the lengths of the two sides that make up the angle Ф are fixed.

XY > YZ because XY's opposing angle (79°) is greater than YZ's (65°).

As before, YZ > AB because the opposing angle of YZ (65°) is greater than that of AB (36°).

Since both sides of the angle are the same length (8 feet),

As a result, assertion A. is accurate. (Answer)

Therefore, The journey along Line segment X Y is longer than the path along Line segment Z Y, and the path along Line segment Z Y is longer than the path along Line segment A B, hence Option-A is the correct answer.

To learn more about segment visit: https://brainly.com/question/12728072

#SPJ4

Answer:

It's A

Step-by-step explanation:

I got 100 on the quiz

Answer:

2 6 12

Step-by-step explanation:

there are the only factor of 12 there

Answer:

the answer is 17.75

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

17.75

Step-by-step explanation:

i took the test

1) Converting all to scientific notation gives;

J a p a n = 1.3718 * 10⁸

B r a z i l = 2.75 * 10⁸

G e r m a n y = 8.5619 * 10⁷

United Kingdom = 6.3706 * 10⁷

N i g e r i a = 1.43615 * 10⁸

B a n g l a d e s h = 1.8251 * 10⁰

I n d i a = 1.589143847902 * 10¹²

2) Arranging the populations from least to greatest is;

1.8251 * 10⁰ < 6.3706 * 10⁷ < 8.5619 * 10⁷ < 1.3718 * 10⁸ < 1.43615 * 10⁸ < 2.75 * 10⁸ < 1.589143847902 * 10¹²

The proper format for scientific notation is a x 10^b where a is a number or decimal number such that the absolute value of a is greater than or equal to one.

We are given countries and their populations as;

J a p a n = 1.3718 * 10⁸

B r a z i l = 2.75 * 10⁸

G e r m a n y = 8.5619 * 10⁷

United Kingdom = 6.3706 * 10⁷

N i g e r i a = 1.43615 * 10⁸

B a n g l a d e s h = 1.8251 * 10⁰

I n d i a = 1.589143847902 * 10¹²

1) Converting all to scientific notation gives;

Japan = 1.3718 * 10⁸

B r a z i l = 2.75 * 10⁸

Germany = 8.5619 * 10⁷

United Kingdom = 6.3706 * 10⁷

N i g e r i a = 1.43615 * 10⁸

Ban glad e s h = 1.8251 * 10⁰

India = 1.589143847902 * 10¹²

2) Arranging the populations from least to greatest is;

1.8251 * 10⁰ < 6.3706 * 10⁷ < 8.5619 * 10⁷ < 1.3718 * 10⁸ < 1.43615 * 10⁸ < 2.75 * 10⁸ < 1.589143847902 * 10¹²

3) The way it was solved was to change all numbers first to scientific notation

Read more about Scientific Notation at; https://brainly.com/question/27862246

#SPJ1

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

North-east has a bearing of 45 degrees

South-west has a bearing of 225 degrees.

Taken anticlockwise,

angle = south-west - north-east

=  (225-45)

= 180 degrees

answer

hope this helps....

Answer:

C there is no solution

Step-by-step explanation:

These 2 equations are the same but equal too different things so they are parralell

hopes this helps

The fifth term of the arithmetic sequence is -1190.

An arithmetic sequence is a sequence of numbers in which the difference between consecutive terms remains constant. To find the fifth term, we can use the formula for the nth term of an arithmetic sequence:

aₙ = a₁ + (n - 1) * d

where aₙ represents the nth term, a₁ is the first term, n is the position of the term, and d is the common difference.

Given that the 100th term is -1240 and the common difference is -25, we can substitute these values into the formula.

Since the fifth term corresponds to n = 5, we can calculate:

a₅ = -1240 + (5 - 1) * (-25)

= -1240 + 4 * (-25)

= -1240 - 100

= -1340

Therefore, the fifth term of the arithmetic sequence is -1190.

Learn more about arithmetic sequences

brainly.com/question/28882428

. #SPJ11

Answer:

£330

Step-by-step explanation:

The total ratio between Paul and Malachy is 2 + 3 = 5.

The amount that Paul will receive is:

2/5 * 2750 = £1100

The second ratio is between Paul, his wife and their son in the ratio 5:4:1. The total ratio between Paul, his wife and their son is:

5 + 4 + 1 = 10

The amount that Paul's wife will receive is:

4/10 * 1100 = £440

The amount that their son will receive is:

1/10 * 1100 = £110

Therefore, the amount that the wife will receive over the son is:

440 - 110 = £330

Answer:

Two pairs of parallel sides

Step-by-step explanation:

The given transformation performed on parallelogram RSTU = 180° clockwise rotation

Given that a rotation is a form of rigid transformation, the shape and size of the preimage RSTU will be equal to the the shape and size of the image R'S'T'U'

Therefore, RSTU ≅ R'S'T'U' and R'S'T'U' is also a parallelogram with two pairs of parallel sides.

The bold statement does not pertain to either the independence of trials or the mutual exclusion of outcomes property of the binomial scenario.

The bold statement does not describe the independence of trials or the mutual exclusion of outcomes property of the binomial scenario.

In a binomial scenario, the independence of trials means that the outcome of one trial does not affect the outcome of another trial. Each trial is considered independent of the others. In this case, the researcher is testing a single individual, so there is no concept of multiple trials.

The mutual exclusion of outcomes property refers to the fact that in a binomial scenario, there are only two possible outcomes for each trial, and they are mutually exclusive. For example, if the outcomes are success (having diabetes) and failure (not having diabetes), an individual cannot have both outcomes simultaneously. However, the bold statement does not provide information about the possible outcomes or their exclusivity.

Therefore, the bold statement does not pertain to either the independence of trials or the mutual exclusion of outcomes property of the binomial scenario.

To know more about mutual exclusion check the below link:

https://brainly.com/question/31813445

#SPJ4

In parallelogram LMNP,

The measure of angle N in degrees is 50°

Now, According to the question:

Let's know:

What is parallelogram?

A parallelogram is a special kind of quadrilateral that is formed by parallel lines. The angle between the adjacent sides of a parallelogram may vary but the opposite sides need to be parallel for it to be a parallelogram. A quadrilateral will be a parallelogram if its opposite sides are parallel and congruent.

The given data is :

In parallelogram LMNP, m∠L = 6x-40, m∠M = 4x+10

We know that, sum of the interior angles of parallelogram is 360°.

Here, m∠M=m∠P=4x+10

and, Here, m∠L=m∠N=6x - 40

m∠L+m∠M+m∠N+m∠P=360°

6x - 40 + 4x + 10 + 6x - 40 + 4x +10 = 360°

20x - 80 + 20 = 360°

20x - 60 = 360°

20x = 360° - 60

20 x = 300

x = 15°

Now, To find the measure of angle N in degrees.

where, m∠N = 6x - 40

Put the value of x

m∠N = 6 × 15 - 40

m∠N = 50°

Hence,  The measure of angle N in degrees is 50°

Learn more about Parallelogram at:

https://brainly.com/question/19187448

#SPJ4

Answer:

94

Step-by-step explanation:

a1+ 23d =2+23*4= 94

94 is the 24 th term

The set of all possible outcomes is called the sample space. Thus in the context of a random experiment, the sample space is our universal set.

A sample space is a set of potential results from a random experiment. The letter "S" is used to denote the sample space. Events are the subset of possible experiment results. Depending on the experiment, a sample area could contain a variety of results.

The set of all potential outcomes or results of an experiment or random trial is referred to as the sample space in probability theory. The potential ordered outcomes, or sample points, are listed as elements in a set that is used to represent a sample space.

Learn more about sample space here

https://brainly.com/question/10558496

#SPJ4

Answer:

11,695 ft²

Step-by-step explanation:

Since the pizza is circular

Area of a circle = π r²

but radius is the diameter divided by 2

Step-by-step explanation:

DISCUSSION QUESTIONS (DQ's).

1. Is division always a negative in a religious faith? Why or why not?

Answer:

Triangles a, b, and d

Step-by-step explanation:

The three triangles have a side length measurement, an angle measure, then another side length measurement

in that order (the order matters)

Triangle a,b and d are the answers.

"SAS" is when you know the two sides and the angle between them. Use the cosine theorem to calculate the unknown edge, then use the sine and cosine theorem to find the smaller of the other two angles, and then use the three angles that are 180 ° to find the last angle. .. The side of the

angle refers to the two rays or line segments that form the angle. In the figure below, the rays BA and BC are the sides of the angle ABC. An angle is formed by rotating a ray around its endpoint.

Edge-side assumptions-> If the two sides and edges of a triangle are congruent with the two sides and the edges of another triangle, the two triangles are congruent by the side-angle assumptions.

Learn more about triangles here:https://brainly.com/question/3999145

#SPJ2

Answer:

12?

Step-by-step explanation:

If angle BDC is -3+20° and CDA is -2x+55° then the angle BDC will be 29°.

Given that angle BDC is -3+20° and CDA is -2x+55°.

We are required to find the angle BDC.

Angle is basically degree of inclination of something on the surface.

From the given figure we can say that the sum of angle BDC and angle CDA is equal to 90 degrees.

Angle BDC+Angle CDA=90

We have to put the respective expressions in the above equation.

-3x+20-2x+55=90

-5x+75=90

-5x=90-75

-5x=15

x=-3

BDC=-3x+20

=-3*(-3)+20

=9+20

=29°

Hence if angle BDC is -3+20° and CDA is -2x+55° then the angle BDC will be 29°.

Learn more about angles at https://brainly.com/question/25770607

#SPJ9

The given system with two coupled subsystems has an undamped natural frequency of 6.714 rad/s and a damping ratio of 0.3001.

The given system consists of two coupled subsystems: a rotational system and a field-controlled motor system. The rotational system is described by the equation of motion 30 dtdt​ + 10w = T(t), where T(t) is the torque applied by an electric motor. The motor system is modeled by the equation 0.001 dtdi​ + 5i = v(t), where i is the field current in amperes and v(t) is the voltage applied to the motor.

The damping ratio of the combined system can be determined by dividing the sum of the two time constants by the undamped natural frequency, i.e. ζ = (τ1 + τ2)ωn​. Given the time constants of the rotational and motor systems as 3 seconds and 0.001 seconds respectively, and the undamped natural frequency as ωn​ = 10 rad/s, we can calculate the damping ratio as ζ = (3 + 0.001) x 10 / 10 = 0.3001.

The combined system's undamped natural frequency is determined by solving the characteristic equation of the system, which is given by (30I + 10ωs)(0.001s + 5) = 0, where I is the identity matrix. This yields the roots s = -0.1667 ± 6.714i. The undamped natural frequency is therefore ωn​ = 6.714 rad/s.

In summary, the given system with two coupled subsystems has an undamped natural frequency of 6.714 rad/s and a damping ratio of 0.3001.

Learn more on rotational sub-systems here:

https://brainly.com/question/29610872

#SPJ11

Answer:

StartFraction p over 0.69 EndFraction

69p

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

the answer is B) 0.69p

Step-by-step explanation:

just took the test on edge 2021

Answer:

182 minutes

Step-by-step explanation:

0.09x+5=21.38

         -5.   -5

0.09x=16.38

/0.09.   /0.09

  X=182

182 minutes

Hopes this helps please mark brainliest

The number of possible sets of heads and tails that have 2 heads is 11.

Given,

There is one coin and it is flipped five times.

First, we have to list out the outcome when we toss the coin five times.

(HHHHH), (HHHHT), (HHHTT), (HHTTT), (HTTTT), (TTTTT), (TTTTH), (TTTHH), (TTHHH), (THHHH), (THTHT), (HTHTH), (THHTT), (THHHT), (HTTTH), (HTTHH), (HTHHH), (THTTT), (TTHTH), (TTTHT), (TTHHT), (HHTHH), (TTHTT), (HHTTH), (HHTHT), (HTHTT), (THTHH), (THTTH), (HTHHT), (HHHTH)

Now, we can list out the possible sets with 2 heads.

(HHTTT), (TTTHH), (THTHT), (HTTHT), (HTTTH), (THHTT), (TTHHT), (TTHTH), (HTHTT), (THTTH), (HTHTT)

So, the number of possible sets of heads and tails that have 2 heads is 11.

Learn more about coin here: https://brainly.com/question/24158973

#SPJ4

Answer:

50

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

312.5

Step-by-step explanation:

We have the series: 250, 50, 10...

As we can see, each subsequent term gets smaller and smaller. Eventually, it will be infinitesimally small. So, our series converges.

We can also see this from our common ratio. Each term is 1/5 of the previous term. Since our r 1/5 is less than 1, our series will converge.

Since it converges, we can indeed find our sum. First, we can write our series using summation. This will be:

\(\displaystyle{\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} 250(\frac{1}{5})^n }\)

We can use the following infinite geometric series formula:

\(\displaystyle{\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} ar^n=\frac{a}{1-r}\)

So, let's substitute 250 for a and 1/5 for r. This yields:

\(\displaystyle{\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} 250(\frac{1}{5})^n }=\frac{250}{1-\frac{1}{5}}\)

Subtract:

\(\displaystyle{\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} 250(\frac{1}{5})^n }=\frac{250}{\frac{4}{5}}\)

Divide. So, our series converges to:

\(\displaystyle{\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} 250(\frac{1}{5})^n }=312.5\)

And we're done!