Sometimes scientist disagree. For example, the models about how the oceans formed can be looked at as inside-out or outside-in. How does this type of disagreement fit into the scientific process?
By evaluating opposing arguments, scientific claims can be examined and strengthened.
Scientific logic depends on conflicting data collected by different groups.
Logical conclusions can only be made when all parties agree.
Scientific hypotheses are disproved when two scientists come to different conclusions.
Answers
Answer:
By evaluating opposing arguments, scientific claims can be examined and strengthened.
Explanation:
The purpose of argument is to establish a better, more accurate conclusion. This is demonstrated in the given scenario: because there is disagreement, scientists work hard to find conclusive evidence towards one point or another.
Why not B: It doesn't really depend on conflicting data, though a bigger sample size and more groups helps to get a wider representation. You want your results to gradually converge.
Why not C: This is so untrue! Disagreement is key to healthy discussion and honing down scientific points.
Why not D: Two scientists can disagree; this doesn't flat-out disprove hypotheses. What it does is cast light on their discrepancy and lead them to improve their conclusions or do more research.
Related Questions
A catalyst is a ______.
Answers
Answer:
a substance that increases the rate of a chemical reaction without itself undergoing any permanent chemical change.
Answer:
A substance that speeds up chemical reactions.
Explanation:
Can you identify each of the individual components in the unknown mixture based only on the retention time analysis for EACH of the GC chromatogram? Why or Why not? Explain.
Answers
Retention time analysis alone cannot provide comprehensive identification of individual components in an unknown mixture. It serves as a preliminary indication of the compounds' elution order and relative retention times, but further analyses are necessary for accurate identification.
Based solely on the retention time analysis of GC chromatograms, it is not possible to identify each individual component in an unknown mixture with certainty. Retention time alone does not provide enough information to accurately identify compounds. While retention time can be used as a characteristic parameter to compare and identify known compounds under specific chromatographic conditions, it is not sufficient to determine the exact identity of unknown compounds.
To confidently identify individual components in a mixture, additional information is required, such as comparing retention times with known standards, conducting mass spectrometry analysis for compound identification, or using other analytical techniques to obtain structural information. These additional analyses help in establishing a more definitive identification by comparing the retention time and mass spectra of the unknown components to those of known compounds.
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Can someone please help me with this
Answers
DNA replication process is the event during which the molecule duplicates. It occurs in the interphase and involved different enzymes, a DNA molecule, and free nucleotides. Image attached.
Whatis DNA replication?DNA replication is the process through which DNI molecule duplicates. This event takes place during the S stage of the interphase. So when the cell divides during mitosis or meiosis, each cell will get a complete set of chromosomes.
DNI replication is semi-conservative because each new molecule carries an original DNI strand and a new one. The fact that the new molecule is composed of an original strand makes it semi-conservative. The old existing strands are used to synthesize the new complementary strand.
The origin of the replication requires helicase enzymes to break hydrogen bonds and separate the two original strands. The topoisomerase enzyme is necessary to release tension. Other proteins are also needed to join the strains and keep them separated.
Once the molecule is opened, there is a region named replication forks. DNA polymerase makes the new nucleotides enter into the fork and pairs them with the corresponding nucleotide of the original strand. Adenine pairs timine, and cytosine pairs guanine.
DNA strands are antiparallel, and replication occurs only in 5'-3' direction. So one of the strands will replicate continuously, while the other strain will be formed by short fragments known as Okazaki fragments.
Primers are needed to make the DNA polymerase work. Primers are small units of RNA and are placed at the beginning of each new fragment.
You will find the labelled Image in the attached files.
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explain how ectotherms deal with the fact that many enzymes have a fairly narrow range for optimal performance.
Answers
The majority of animals must keep their internal body temperatures within a relatively small range. Endotherms keep their bodies warm by producing heat within.
Ectotherms control metabolism in what ways?Animals that employ metabolic heat production to maintain a steady body temperature are known as ectotherms. Instead, their body temperature varies in accordance with the ambient temperature.
Ectothermic species control their body temperatures in what ways?Ectotherms, on the other hand, depend on behavior to control their body temperature. To cool off or warm up, they must move their bodies toward the sun or shade. In comparison to ongoing metabolic regulation, this uses less energy. This explains why many reptiles and other ectotherms may consume a substantial meal once and then go for a while without eating.
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Which of the following best describes environmental quality?
O a measure of pollution and corruption in a given area
O a measure of how many plants and animals are living in a given area
O a measure of how suitable an environment is for humans
O a measure of the environment's ability to support life
Answers
The cranial bone that articulates with the atlas is the ______.
a. parietal bone
b. temporal bone
c. sphenoid occipital bone
Answers
The cranial bone that articulates with the atlas is the c) sphenoid occipital bone.
The occipital bone connects to the temporals, sphenoid, parietals, and the atlas, the top vertebra, in the back of the skull.There are two concave facets on the atlas bone's superior surface. The occipital bone of the skull's underside has rounded condyles that connect to the facets. The head is free to nod up and down at this intersection. The axis bone sits just beneath the atlas bone.The synovial articulation between the first cervical vertebra and the occipital bone is known as the atlantooccipital joint (atlas).learn more about atlas here: https://brainly.com/question/6775465
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one of the major problems with the theory of mind-body dualism is identifying and demonstrating how the immaterial mind relates to and acts on the physical body/brain.
t
f
Answers
One of the major problems with the theory of mind-body dualism is identifying and demonstrating how the immaterial mind relates to and acts on the physical body/brain, the given statement is true because the theory of mind-body dualism is based on the idea that the mind and the body are separate entities.
The mind is considered to be an immaterial entity, while the body is a physical entity, the theory suggests that these two entities interact with each other, but the nature of this interaction is not well understood. One of the major problems with the theory of mind-body dualism is identifying and demonstrating how the immaterial mind relates to and acts on the physical body/brain. Some philosophers argue that the mind is able to influence the body through the process of causation. Others suggest that the mind is able to influence the body through the process of interaction or correlation.
It can be concluded that the theory of mind-body dualism is based on the idea that the mind and body are separate entities that interact with each other, but the nature of this interaction is not well understood. One of the major problems with this theory is identifying and demonstrating how the immaterial mind relates to and acts on the physical body/brain. Some philosophers suggest that the mind is able to influence the body through causation while others suggest that it is able to influence through interaction or correlation. So therefore the given statement is true because the theory of mind-body dualism is based on the idea that the mind and the body are separate entities.
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how do you know if a difference from the mean is a strength or a weakness on the wais
Answers
On the Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS), a difference from the mean can be interpreted as a strength or a weakness depending on the specific circumstance.
The mean score represents the average performance of a standardized sample, and deviations from the mean can indicate individual variations. A higher score compared to the mean in a specific cognitive domain suggests a relative strength in that area, highlighting superior abilities or skills. A lower score compared to the mean may indicate a relative weakness or difficulty in that particular domain.
It is crucial to consider the overall profile of scores of WAIS and take into account the individual's strengths and weaknesses across multiple domains rather than relying solely on isolated differences from the mean to make a comprehensive assessment. A comprehensive evaluation should consider various factors, including the individual's background, functional implications, and other relevant test scores.
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The complete question is:
How do you know if a difference from the mean is a strength or a weakness on the WAIS (Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale)?
definiton of
metabolism and homeostasis.
Answers
Answer:
um it means ur just skinnyyy
Explanation:
2. A heart attack occurs when an artery in the heart is blocked, restricting the flow of blood. Why would a heart attack be accompanied by feeling short of breath? (6 points)
Answers
When does DNA replication occur.
Answers
Answer:
S Phase
Explanation:
DNA replication occurs during the S Phase of cell division and they must replicate before they can divide.
which one of the following statements best describes the evidence that suggests that down syndrome is more often the result of nondisjunction during oogenesis rather than during spermatogenesis?
A) Mothers, but not fathers with Down syndrome can have children with Down syndrome.
B) Fathers, but not mothers with Down syndrome can have children with Down syndrome.
C) The incidence of Down syndrome births increases with increasing age of the father.
D) The incidence of Down syndrome births increases with increasing age of the mother.
Answers
The evidence that suggests that down syndrome is more often the result of nondisjunction during oogenesis rather than during spermatogenesis is D) The incidence of Down syndrome births increases with increasing age of the mother
D) The incidence of Down syndrome births increases with increasing age of the mother is the statement that best describes the evidence suggesting that Down Syndrome is more likely the result of nondisjunction during oogenesis. Nondisjunction is when the genetic material is not evenly divided into gametes during meiosis. This type of event is more common in oocytes than in sperm, leading to an increase in the rate of Down Syndrome in mothers as they age. Studies have shown that the risk of Down Syndrome increases four-fold with a mother's age of 35 and older. Thus, the risk of nondisjunction during oogenesis increases with increasing age of the mother, making it the most likely cause of Down Syndrome.
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Epigenetics may be defined as changes in the expression of a gene or set of genes by _______ and _______.
Answers
Epigenetics studies how DNA methylation and alterations to chromosomal proteins affect how a gene or group of genes express itself.
In biology, epigenetics is the study of persistent phenotypic changes (sometimes referred to as marks) that do not involve changes in the DNA sequence. In epigenetics, the prefix epi- ("above, outside of, surrounding") denotes characteristics that are "on top of" or "in addition to" the conventional genetic foundation for heredity. The term "epigenetics" can refer to any heritable phenotypic alteration, but it is most frequently used to refer to modifications that impact gene activity and expression. Such changes in cellular and physiological phenotypic features may be the product of external or environmental influences or be a normal component of development.
The phrase also refers to the modifications made to the genome that are relevant from a functional standpoint but do not alter the nucleotide sequence.
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(a) Explain the effect of noise on humans when they are undergoing prolong and continuous exposure? (b) The hearing range can be divided into three main ranges called infrasound, audible sound and ultrasound. Define each range by relating it to humans, animals, tools, and machineries.
Answers
Prolonged and continuous exposure to noise can have various negative effects on humans, including physical, psychological, and physiological impacts. The hearing range is divided into three main ranges: infrasound, audible sound, and ultrasound.
When humans are exposed to prolonged and continuous noise, it can have detrimental effects on their well-being. Physically, noise can lead to hearing loss or damage to the auditory system. Psychologically, it can cause stress, irritability, anxiety, and difficulty concentrating. Physiologically, noise can disrupt sleep patterns, increase blood pressure, and negatively impact overall health.
The hearing range consists of three main ranges. Infrasound refers to sounds with frequencies below the range of human hearing, typically below 20 Hz. While humans cannot hear infrasound, some animals like elephants and whales can perceive it, and certain natural phenomena such as earthquakes and thunder produce infrasound. Audible sound is the range that humans can hear, typically between 20 Hz and 20,000 Hz. It includes speech, music, and environmental sounds. Ultrasound refers to sounds with frequencies above the range of human hearing, typically above 20,000 Hz. Some animals, such as bats and dolphins, can detect ultrasound, and it is used in various applications like medical imaging and pest control devices.
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Question is attached on the picture
Answers
Answer:
A
Explanation:
o(≧o≦)o my brother and me thank it is A i hope this helps o(≧o≦)o
Which of the following organisms is a heterotroph? a) Rose b) Pine tree c) Deep-sea tubeworm d) None of these
Answers
Since the given organisms prepare their own food, hence none of the organisms mentioned are heterotrophs. Thus, the correct answer is Option D.
Heterotrophs are organisms that depend on other species (plants and animals) for food since they are unable to prepare it for themselves. They are dependent on these producers for food, either directly or indirectly.
The rose and the pine tree, two of the choices given, are both autotrophs since plants can make their own food through photosynthesis. On the other hand, the deep-sea tubeworm is a chemoautotroph, meaning it gets its energy from inorganic substances in its surroundings.
Therefore, the correct answer is Option D.
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Pls ans this... need and answer quick :)
Answers
Answer:
B. They can bear extreme temperatures.
An advantage that cold-blooded animals have compared to warn-blooded ones is They can bear extreme temperatures.
why does the liver need glucagon and epinephrin in activation of glycogen breakdown? epinephrin is needed to bind beta-adrenergic receptors to activate the phosphoinositide pathway to release ca2 from the endoplasmic reticulum. epinephrin is needed to directly bind adenylate cyclase. glucagon can only activate phospholipase c. epinephrin is needed to bind alpha-adrenergic receptors to activate the phosphoinositide pathway to release ca2 from the endoplasmic reticulum. glucagon is needed to bind beta-adrenergic receptors to activate protein kinase c.
Answers
Because epinephrin is required to bind beta-adrenergic receptors in order to activate the phosphoinositide pathway and release Ca² from the endoplasmic reticulum, the liver needs both glucagon and epinephrin to stimulate glycogen breakdown. Hence (a) is the correct option.
The epinephrine receptors in the liver are 1-adrenergic, which means they function by phospholipase C activation and Ca₊₊ -dependent protein kinase stimulation. The liver possesses receptors for glucagon and epi, and it reacts to both. The hepatic plasma membrane was chosen as a suitable tool for the clarification of the ways by which the hormonal signal is conveyed through the membrane via a coupling system to an amplifying entity because it contains both alpha- and beta-adrenergic receptors.
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why does the liver need glucagon and epinephrin in activation of glycogen breakdown?
a. epinephrin is needed to bind beta-adrenergic receptors to activate the phosphoinositide pathway to release ca² from the endoplasmic reticulum.
b. epinephrin is needed to directly bind adenylate cyclase. glucagon can only activate phospholipase c.
c. epinephrin is needed to bind alpha-adrenergic receptors to activate the phosphoinositide pathway to release ca² from the endoplasmic reticulum.
d. glucagon is needed to bind beta-adrenergic receptors to activate protein kinase c.
13. pharmaceutical or medical supply representatives may be scheduled to see the physician if _____.
Answers
Pharmaceutical or medical supply representatives may be scheduled to see the physician if the facility's policies on sales people permits it.
Medical representatives, often known as pharmaceutical sales representatives or medical sales representatives, market and sell the products of pharmaceutical and medical device manufacturers. To raise awareness of a particular company's medical goods, they employ a number of tactics. Any type of drug used for medical treatment, such as sleeping pills or cough syrup, is referred to as a pharmaceutical. You may be familiar with the terms "pharmacy" and "pharmacist," both of which refer to establishments where you can purchase prescription medications.The term "pharmaceutical science" designates a group of academic disciplines that include Pharmacoeconomics, clinical sciences, drug delivery, drug action, drug discovery and design, and regulatory affairs.To learn more about pharmaceutical.
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During telephase, the
A. Nuclear membrane breaks down
B. Spindle fibers reappear
C. Chromosomes have reached opposite poles of the cell
D. Chromosomes replicate
Answers
Answer:
C. Chromosomes have reached opposite poles of the cell
Explanation:
Telophase is the phase of mitosis when the cell begins to split, forming nuclear membranes around each new set of chromosomes.
Which type or types of energy does a blimp circling above a sporting event have?
A) kinetic energy and gravitational potential energy
B) kinetic energy and elastic potential energy
C) potential energy only
D) kinetic energy only
Answers
Answer:
A
Explanation:
Answer:
A is correct
Explanation:
What is the difference between a bacterial chromosome and a plasmid?.
Answers
A plasmid is actually not considered part of the genome. It is extrachromosomal DNA that codes for gene products that are not essential for survival and function of the bacteria, although they may confer some sort of benefit to the bacteria like antibiotic resistance.
Analyzing a Drosophila mutant You find a Drosophila embryo in which segments A1, A2 A3, and A4 are missing Which of the following is accurate about the molecular defect in this mutant? Check All That Apply There is a mutation in a maternal effect gene. There 1s a mutation in a gap gene. There is a mikation in a par-rule gene. There is a futation in a segment polarty gene. There is a mutation in a gene encoding a transcription factor There is a mutation in a segmentation gene There is a mutation in a homeotic gene
Answers
The molecular defect in this Drosophila mutant are:There is a mutation in a maternal effect gene.There is a mutation in a gap gene.There is a mutation in a segmentation gene.There is a mutation in a gene encoding a transcription factor.
The inaccurate statements are:
There is a mutation in a par-rule gene.
There is a mutation in a segment polarity gene.
There is a mutation in a homeotic gene.
Maternal effect genes, gap genes, and segmentation genes are involved in establishing the initial spatial pattern and segmentation of the embryo. Transcription factors play a crucial role in regulating gene expression, and mutations in these genes can disrupt normal development. Par-rule genes are involved in establishing the anterior-posterior polarity of segments, segment polarity genes control the polarity within individual segments, and homeotic genes are responsible for specifying the identity of body segments. None of these processes specifically account for the absence of segments A1, A2, A3, and A4 in this mutant.
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During a section of the cell cycle collectively called ______, the cell is not dividing, but protein synthesis, cell growth, DNA replication, and basic cell functions are occurring.
Answers
Answer:
INTERPHASE
Explanation:
The cell cycle refers to the series of event from DNA replication to actual division of a cell. Mitosis and meiosis are the two types of cell division, which is made up of two stages namely: interphase and the M-phase.
The interphase is also called resting stage because the cell is not undergoing any division. The interphase is further divided into G1, S and G2 phases. In these stages, the events that occurs include; protein synthesis, cell growth, DNA replication, and basic cell functions.
Genes are strands of
found on chromosomes in the nucleus of a living cell.
A
mutations
B
DNA
C
minerals
D
cells
Answers
Answer:
b)DNA is the correct answer
MARK ME BRAINLIEST THANKS MY ANSWER PLEASE
Beaked whales feed at various depths, but they defecate at the ocean's surface. Nitrogen-rich whale feces deposited in surface waters supply nutrients for algae that are eaten by surface-dwelling fish. Which of the following best predicts what would happen if the whale population decreased?
(A) There would be a reduction in surface nitrogen concentration, which would cause an algal bloom.
(B) The surface fish populations would decline due to reduced populations of algae.
(C) The remaining whales would accumulate mutations at a faster rate.
(D) The remaining whales would be forced to forage in the deepest parts of the ocean.
Answers
Answer:
(B) The surface
According to the passage, nitrogen-rich whale faeces in surface seas provide nutrients for algae, which are devoured by surface-dwelling fish. If the whale population declined, less whale faeces would be deposited in surface waters, reducing the nutrients accessible to algae. This would lead to a decrease in the number of surface-dwelling fish that feed on these algae.
What do we call a gene that is obtained from one organism and inserted into a plasmid so that multiple copies of it can be produced by bacteria?
Answers
The gene obtained from one organism and inserted into a plasmid for multiple copies to be produced by bacteria is called a "recombinant gene" or a genetically modified organism (GMO).
A recombinant gene is created through the process of genetic recombination.
This involves taking a specific gene from one organism (the donor) and inserting it into a plasmid (a small, circular piece of DNA) within a bacterial cell (usually Escherichia coli).
The bacteria then reproduce, creating multiple copies of the recombinant gene. This process is a key technique in genetic engineering and biotechnology, allowing for the mass production of proteins, enzymes, and other gene products.
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Real life non examples for cell membrane
Answers
Answer:
ribosomes, the cell wall, and the cytoskeleton.
Explanation:
Move the terms to their correct descriptions to review the definitions of infection types.
Infection that persists over a long period of time (e.g., HIV)
-Chronic infection
An example is influenza complicated by pneumonia
-Secondary infection
Infection spreads to several sites and tissue fluids, and may travel via nerves and CSF
-Systemic infection
Several microbes establish themselves simultaneously at the infection site
-Mixed infection
Microbes enter the body and remain confined to a specific tissue
-Localized infection
The infectious agent spreads to other tissues from a local site
-Focal infection
Infection comes on rapidly, with severe but short-lived effects
-Acute infection
The initial infection
-Primary infection
Answers
The terms to their correct descriptions to review the definitions of infection types are:
- Chronic infection: Infection that persists over a long period of time (e.g., HIV)
- Secondary infection: An example is influenza complicated by pneumonia
- Systemic infection: Infection spreads to several sites and tissue fluids, and may travel via nerves and CSF
- Mixed infection: Several microbes establish themselves simultaneously at the infection site
- Localized infection: Microbes enter the body and remain confined to a specific tissue
- Focal infection: The infectious agent spreads to other tissues from a local site
- Acute infection: Infection comes on rapidly, with severe but short-lived effects
- Primary infection: The initial infection
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How are photosynthesis and cellular respiration related
A. Both places take place in mitochondria
B. Only plants perform photosynthesis, and only animals perform cellular respiration
C. The equations for photosynthesis and cellular respiration are opposites of each other
D. Photosynthesis provides the energy for cellular respiration
Answers
Answer:
I believe it's C
Explanation:
Photosynthesis is when energy, carbon dioxide and water react to produce glucose and oxygen. It is an endothermic reaction (takes in more energy than it gives off).
glucose
+
oxygen
(+ energy)
→
carbon dioxide
+
water
C
6
H
12
O
6
+
6
O
2
→
6
CO
2
+
6
H
2
O
Respiration is the process of producing energy from glucose. It uses glucose and oxygen to give water, carbon dioxide and energy (this making it exothermic).
carbon dioxide
+
water
+
energy
→
glucose
+
oxygen
>
6
CO
2
+
6
H
2
O
→
C
6
H
12
O
6
+
6
O
2
As you can see from the equations, they are essentially the reverse of each other.
Another difference is how they are used. Respiration occurs in the mitochondria of all living cells, whereas only plants photosynthesise.
In plants, they make their own glucose using the sun's energy, then respire to allow them to use the glucose for energy they can use. The glucose can also be stored and used in many other ways other than in respiration.
Hope this helps:)
Answer:
D. Photosynthesis provides the energy for cellular respiration
Explanation:
Photosynthesis converts carbon dioxide and water into oxygen and glucose. Glucose is used as food by the plant and oxygen is a by-product. Cellular respiration converts oxygen and glucose into water and carbon dioxide. Water and carbon dioxide are by-products, and ATP is energy that is transformed from the process.